These must be documented:
Patients name Date vaccine was administered Vaccine manufacture Lot number Name, address, and title of person administering vaccine Date printed on VIS Date VIS was given to the vaccine recipientThe National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP), a no-fault alternative to the conventional tort system, was established by the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, as modified. It offers compensation to anyone who have been hurt by certain vaccinations.
Before administering a dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, or measles vaccination to an adult or child, a healthcare provider is required by federal law (under the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act) to give the patient a copy of the most recent VIS.
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which of the following statements regarding the amount of carbohydrate you should consume daily is incorrect?
The statement (B) "The AMDR for carbohydrates is 20 to 35 percent of your total daily calories." is incorrect.
The macronutrient category of carbohydrates includes a wide variety of meals and beverages. Most carbohydrates are found naturally in meals made from plants, such grains. Additionally, processed food makers add carbohydrates in the form of starch or extra sugar.
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 45% to 65% of daily calories should come from carbs. Therefore, if you consume 2,000 calories per day, 900 to 1,300 of those calories should come from carbs. That equates to 225 to 325 grams of carbohydrates each day.
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Question correction:
Which of the following statements regarding the amount of carbohydrate you should consume daily is incorrect?
A) The minimum amount of carbohydrate needed for the brain to function efficiently is 130 grams per day.
B) The AMDR for carbohydrates is 20 to 35 percent of your total daily calories.
C) Eating the recommended daily servings for each food group in MyPyramid will ensure that you meet your minimum amount of carbohydrate.
D) In the United States, adult males and females consume more than the minimum DRI for carbohydrates.
Mrs. West wears glasses and dentures and has enjoyed considerable pain relief from arthritis through massage therapy. She is concerned about whether or not Medicare will cover these items and services. What should you tell her?
I will simply inform Mrs. West that Medicare does not cover glasses, dentures or massage therapy.
Some of the things that are covered under Medicare include hospital care, surgery, hospice etc.
On the other hand, Medicare doesn't cover eye exams, dentures cosmetic surgeries. Also, it should be noted that long term care isn't covered by Medicare.
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symptoms of aplastic anemia
Answer
Anemia symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, headaches, bruising, malaise
the nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a breast-fed newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia. which instruction should the nurse provide to the mother?
When providing instructions to the mother of a breastfed newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia, the nurse should instruct the mother to breastfeed her newborn at least 8 to 12 times per day.
What is hyperbilirubinemia?
Hyperbilirubinemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of bilirubin in the blood. It is a yellow substance found in red blood cells that is released when red blood cells are broken down. The liver is responsible for processing bilirubin and excreting it in the form of bile.
Hyperbilirubinemia occurs when there is an overproduction of bilirubin, or the liver cannot excrete bilirubin at a fast enough rate. This leads to a buildup of bilirubin in the blood and can cause jaundice in newborns.
Symptoms of hyperbilirubinemia include yellowing of the skin and eyes, dark urine, and pale stools. Treatment may involve phototherapy, medication, or in severe cases, a blood transfusion.
Instructions to the mother
The nurse should instruct the mother to breastfeed her newborn at least 8 to 12 times per day. This is important because frequent breastfeeding helps to stimulate bowel movements, which can help to eliminate bilirubin from the body. Breast milk also contains antibodies that can help to protect the newborn against infection.
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how important is the emergency medical services
Answer:
Because of today's EMS or emergency medical services, countless lives have been saved through the years. The main purpose of EMS to provide for immediate medical care to the people who most need it, without which, heart attacks and accidents would lead to many more fatalities.
Explanation:
PLEASE MARK BRAINLIST
How many people have successfully quit using amphetamines?
Help Please. provide statistics
Answer:
1.Heroin and prescription painkillers
2.Cocaine
3.Methamphetamine & Crystal Meth
4.Benzodiazepines
5.Nicotine
6.Alcohol
a 45-year-old man is involved in a severe motor vehicle collision. needle decompression of his left thorax is performed in the field prior to his arrival at the hospital. which of the following is the correct place to insert a chest tube in this patient?
The correct place to insert a chest tube in needle decompression procedure is in the second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line in the affected side of thorax which is in this case in the left thorax.
A needle decompression should only be performed if the patient has a tension pneumothorax. A tension pneumothorax occurs when air, either from the lungs or outside the body, enters the pleural space that is normally occupied by the lung. Patient cannot compensate, and several events begin to occur that can lead to death.
A tension pneumothorax can be caused by several things, but the most frequently encountered cause is from trauma resulting in a rib fracture that punctures a lung, releasing air into the pleural space.
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What has become the recognized symbol for medicine it depicts a healing staff with two snakes coiled around the staff?
The Caduceus, which represents a healing staff with two snakes coiling around it, has come to be known as a symbol of medicine.
The caduceus, which has two snakes wrapping around an often-winged staff, is Hermes' traditional emblem. Despite its long history of links with trade, liars, thieves, eloquence, diplomacy, alchemy, and knowledge, especially in the United States, it is frequently employed as a symbol of medicine
Inaccuracies, misinterpretations of symbiology, and ignorance of classical culture led to the modern use of the caduceus as a symbol of medicine becoming established in the United States in the late 19th and early 20th century.
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a client is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism and is to be treated with thrombolytic therapy. the nurse should report which priority data collection finding to the registered nurse before initiating this therapy?
People with clinically significant or substantial pulmonary embolisms typically get thrombolytic treatment (PE). There is evidence that thrombolytic medications could break blood clots more quickly than heparin and thus lower the fatality rate related to PE.
The potential danger of side effects from prophylactic treatment, such as large or small hemorrhaging, is still a source of worry.
An Electrocardiogram, a breast CT with color (not beyond), a R e scans, and pulmonary angiography are examples of diagnostic tests. Plasma D-dimer levels plus arterial blood gas measurement (not venous) are included in laboratory tests. Heparin is one of the drugs recommended for the treatment of PE (single dose followed by a continuous infusion).
The nurse is gathering information from a client who is receiving diuretic medication for hypertensive.
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which of the following is true regarding anterior putuitary glands?
A.it releases hormones made by neuron in the hypothalamus
B.it does not have cell that can produce hormones
C.it is often referred as the "máster gland" of the endocrine system
D.is is not truly part of the endocrine system because it is regulated by the hypothalamus
Answer:
With respect to the anterior pituitary gland, it is true that it is often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system (option C).
Explanation:
The pituitary gland —also called hypophysis— divided into two parts, an anterior part called the adenohypophysis and a posterior part called the neurohypophysis.
The adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland is in charge of the secretion of hormones that serve to regulate the hormonal secretion of other glands, such as the thyroid, the suprarenal glands and the gonads. This is the reason why it is considered and often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system.
The neurohypophysis depends on the control of the hypothalamus and the neurotransmitters that this structure sends to the pituitary, releasing hormones whose effect is direct on the target organ.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Anterior pituitary does not release hormones made by the neurons in the hypothalamus.
B. Adenohypophysis has hormone-producing cells.
D. The anterior pituitary is not regulated by the hypothalamus and is considered part of the endocrine system.
You're a leader in a small community hospital and you're tasked with developing new strategies to lower the overall cost of care. What clinical systems or new processes would you consider to help this task?
Please provide in depth examples and explanations. Please no copying/pasting other chegg material.
As a leader in a small community hospital tasked with developing new strategies to lower the overall cost of care, there are several clinical systems and new processes that you can consider.
Here are some examples:
1. Electronic Health Records (EHR): Implementing an EHR system can help streamline patient information, reduce paper usage, and minimize errors. EHRs allow for better coordination of care among healthcare providers, leading to improved efficiency and cost savings.
2. Telemedicine: Utilizing telemedicine technologies can help reduce costs associated with in-person visits. By providing remote consultations and monitoring, healthcare providers can reach more patients without the need for physical infrastructure. This can help lower costs related to travel, infrastructure, and staffing.
3. Care Coordination: Developing a robust care coordination program can help optimize patient care and reduce unnecessary healthcare services. This involves ensuring smooth transitions of care between different healthcare providers and settings, avoiding duplicate tests or procedures, and promoting effective communication among the care team.
4. Utilization Review: Implementing a utilization review process can help identify and eliminate unnecessary procedures, tests, or medications. By reviewing the appropriateness and efficiency of healthcare services, healthcare providers can reduce costs without compromising patient outcomes.
5. Health Information Exchange (HIE): Establishing an HIE system enables secure sharing of patient information between different healthcare organizations. This can help reduce duplicate tests, improve care coordination, and avoid unnecessary healthcare expenses.
6. Preventive Care Programs: Investing in preventive care programs can help reduce the need for expensive treatments and hospitalizations. By promoting regular screenings, vaccinations, and healthy lifestyle choices, healthcare providers can prevent or detect diseases at earlier stages, leading to cost savings in the long run.
7. Data Analytics: Utilizing data analytics tools can help identify patterns and trends in healthcare utilization and costs. By analyzing this data, healthcare leaders can make informed decisions to optimize resource allocation, identify areas for cost reduction, and improve overall efficiency.
It's important to note that the implementation of these systems and processes may require initial investments and training. However, in the long run, they have the potential to lower the overall cost of care while improving patient outcomes and satisfaction.
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. 1. Could an automated medical diagnosis system ever replace live doctors? Why or why not? at least 200 words
The question of whether an automated medical diagnosis system could replace live doctors is a complex and multifaceted one.
While automated systems have made significant advancements in medical diagnosis and decision support, there are several factors to consider that suggest complete replacement is unlikely.
First and foremost, medicine is not solely about diagnosis. It encompasses a broad range of skills and expertise that extend beyond pattern recognition. Doctors possess comprehensive knowledge acquired through years of education, clinical experience, and patient interactions. They possess critical thinking abilities, empathy, and the capacity to assess complex medical situations holistically. These qualities are currently challenging for automated systems to replicate fully.
Additionally, medicine involves a human element. The doctor-patient relationship is built on trust, compassion, and effective communication. Patients often seek emotional support, counseling, and reassurance from their doctors. These aspects of healthcare delivery cannot be replicated by machines, as they require empathy, understanding, and the ability to address the unique needs and concerns of individual patients.
Furthermore, medical decision-making is influenced by a variety of factors, including patient preferences, values, and social context. Doctors consider multiple variables, weigh risks and benefits, and tailor treatments accordingly. Automated systems, although capable of analyzing vast amounts of medical data, may struggle to incorporate these nuanced aspects into their recommendations.
Another critical aspect to consider is the ethical and legal implications of automated medical diagnosis. Medical decision-making involves complex ethical considerations, such as patient autonomy, privacy, and accountability. Implementing fully automated systems raises questions about responsibility and liability in the event of errors or adverse outcomes.
That being said, automated medical diagnosis systems can be valuable tools for doctors. They can enhance efficiency, accuracy, and access to information, allowing doctors to make more informed decisions. These systems can assist with data analysis, provide evidence-based guidelines, and offer support in diagnosing rare conditions or complex cases. However, they should be viewed as aids rather than replacements for human clinicians.
In conclusion, while automated medical diagnosis systems have the potential to augment healthcare delivery, it is unlikely that they will completely replace live doctors. The practice of medicine encompasses not only diagnosis but also a multitude of skills, qualities, and human interactions that are challenging to replicate in machines. The human element, ethical considerations, and the holistic nature of medical decision-making make doctors indispensable in providing comprehensive and personalized care to patients.
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what are the three connective tissue wrappings in a nerve,and what specific structure does each ensheath?
Answer:
The epineurium encloses the entire nerve. The perineurium encloses bundles of axons. The endoneurium encloses individual axons.
Explanation:
The epineurium encloses the entire nerve. The perineurium encloses bundles of axons. The endoneurium encloses individual axons.
In a peripheral nerve, the individual nerve fibres are organised by connective tissue that consists of three distinct components, called endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium. Each of the three components has specific functional tasks and morphological characteristics.
The three connective tissue wrappings in a nerve are the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium.
The endoneurium is the innermost layer and unsheathes individual nerve fibers. The perineurium surrounds bundles of nerve fibers called fascicles and is responsible for maintaining the structural integrity of the nerve. The outermost layer, the epineurium, encases the entire nerve and provides protection and support. Each connective tissue wrapping serves a specific function in protecting and maintaining the nerve.
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d) A nurse should measure the clients blood pressure. A nurse in an emergency department for a client who has sinus bradycardia should measure blood pressure.
In the case of a client with sinus bradycardia, a nurse in an emergency department should measure the client's blood pressure to assess their overall cardiovascular status and identify any potential complications.
Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower-than-normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, the heart's natural pacemaker. It can occur due to various reasons such as medication side effects, cardiac disorders, or physiological adaptations. When a client presents with sinus bradycardia in an emergency department, measuring their blood pressure is crucial for several reasons.
Firstly, blood pressure measurement provides valuable information about the client's cardiovascular function. A low blood pressure reading can indicate poor perfusion to vital organs and tissues, suggesting inadequate cardiac output. Conversely, a high blood pressure reading may indicate compensatory mechanisms or underlying conditions that need further evaluation and management.
Secondly, assessing blood pressure helps identify potential complications associated with sinus bradycardia. For instance, severe bradycardia can lead to decreased blood flow to the brain, resulting in dizziness, syncope, or even cerebral ischemia. Monitoring blood pressure can assist in recognizing and managing these complications promptly.
By measuring the client's blood pressure, the nurse can evaluate the adequacy of their cardiac output, assess for potential complications, and determine the need for further interventions or consultations with the healthcare team. It allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the client's cardiovascular status and aids in providing appropriate and timely care to optimize their well-being.
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The registered nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be
assigned to the pregnant nurse?
a. The client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia.
b. The client with radium implant for cervical cancer.
c. The client who is admitted for severe shingles.
d. The client who has been restrained due to confusion and combative
behavior.
The client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia should be assigned to the pregnant nurse. So, the correct answer is (A).
What is Anemia?
In anemia, the body is unable to make enough red blood cells (RBCs). RBCs provide oxygen to the cells or tissues of the body. Low hemoglobin is related to having anemia which leads to feeling tired and weak. The most common cause of anemia is not having enough iron.
There are many forms of anemia which have their own causes. It can be temporary or long term which can range from mild to severe.
Signs and symptoms of anemia include
Tiredness, weakness, pale skin, irregular heartbeat,shortness of breath, etc.Anemia is caused due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Anemia due to folate (folic acid) deficiency.
Thus, the client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia should be assigned to the pregnant nurse. So, the correct answer is (A).
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why are most people allergic to pollen????????????????????????? and why do we sneeze and etc.
Answer:
Our body system thinks it's dangerous and it thinks it's a foreign invader. So when we sneeze it release antibodies to get rid of the pollon. most of us are allergic to pollen create a chemical called histamine, which causes the sneezing and stuff.
Hope this helps and PLEASE give brainlist!
Some people are allergic to pollen because pollen reacts with our nose cells and forces us to sneeze. This may also cause rashes near our nose.
A 45-year-old female (weight 70 kg, height 168 cm) requires erythromycin IV for severe community-acquired pneumonia. Her recent serum creatinine is 130 micromol/L, stable. The dose is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. Erythromcycin powder for injection is dissolved 1 g in 20 mL water for injection, then diluted to a concentration of 1 to 5 mg/mL for intermittent infusion in sodium chloride 0.9% over 20–60 minutes.
Which of the following statements are true?
More than one answer is correct. You need to select all correct answers to pass this question.
A.Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg
B.Using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min
C.Correct dose could be stated as 3000 mg in 24 hours, divided into 4 doses
D.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 750 mL
E.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL
The true options are Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg, using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min. The correct options are A, B, C, and E.
What is infusion?Infusion is basically the method of putting fluids, including drugs, into the bloodstream.
Ideal body weight (IBW) for this patient can be calculated using the following formula:
IBW (kg) = 45.5 + 2.3 (height in inches - 60) = 45.5 + 2.3 (66.1 - 60) = 58.1 kg
Estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) using the Cockcroft and Gault formula can be calculated as follows:
CrCl (mL/min) = [(140 - age) x weight (kg)] / (72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL))
CrCl = [(140 - 45) x 70] / (72 x 130/88.4) = 44 mL/min
The correct dose of erythromycin is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. For a 70 kg patient, the total daily dose would be:
12.5 mg/kg x 70 kg = 875 mg every 6 hours
Total daily dose = 875 mg x 4 = 3500 mg
To adjust for renal impairment, the dose should be decreased. In this case, no adjustment is necessary since the serum creatinine is stable.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 875 mL, not 750 mL.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL, which is correct.
Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and E.
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Albuterol is a selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist. The intended beta-2 adrenergic effect is ____________. The undesirable effect of beta-1 adrenergic stimulation is ____________.
Answer:
1. vasodilation
2. vasoconstriction
Explanation:
The intended beta-2 adrenergic effect is bronchodilation. The undesirable effect of beta-1 adrenergic stimulation is rapid heart rate.
What is an adrenergic agonist?An adrenergic agonist is a specific medication that mimics the normal state of the sympathetic nervous system.
Albuterol is a drug used as an adrenergic agonist that stimulates certain receptors.In conclusion, the intended beta-2 adrenergic effect is bronchodilation. The undesirable effect of beta-1 adrenergic stimulation is rapid heart rate.
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fill in the blank. the primary payer for home health services and hospice is _____
medicare
The primary payer for home health services and hospice is Medicare.
Medicare is a federal health insurance program primarily for people aged 65 and above and for those with certain disabilities or chronic conditions. Medicare covers a wide range of health services, including home health and hospice care.
Home health services refer to skilled nursing care, physical therapy, speech-language pathology, occupational therapy, and medical social services provided in a patient's home. Hospice care, on the other hand, is end-of-life care provided to terminally ill patients and their families, focusing on managing symptoms and providing comfort. Medicare covers these services if certain criteria are met, such as a doctor's order for care and the patient being homebound or terminally ill.
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Prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at-risk for developing mental health problems are called __________ interventions.
a. tertiary
b. selective
c. universal
d. indicated
Explain the difference between a genotype and phenotype.
Question 2 of 20 :
Select the best answer for the question
2. A respiratory abnormality in which the alveoli increase in size, leading to their destruction and resulting in difficulty in breathing, is
O A. influenza
O B. pleuritis
O C. emphysema.
O D. asthma
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
A respiratory abnormality in which the alveoli increase in size, leading to their destruction and resulting in difficulty in breathing, is Emphysema
Option (C) is correct.
Emphysema is a respiratory abnormality characterized by the enlargement and destruction of the alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs responsible for oxygen exchange. This condition is typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke or air pollution.
As the alveoli become damaged and lose their elasticity, they lose their ability to effectively expand and contract during breathing. This results in difficulty in breathing, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen exchange.
Influenza (A) is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory system and can cause symptoms such as fever, cough, and sore throat. Pleuritis (B), also known as pleurisy, refers to inflammation of the lining around the lungs and is often associated with sharp chest pain.
Asthma (D) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, resulting in wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
Therefore, among the given options, emphysema (C) best describes the respiratory abnormality involving enlarged alveoli and difficulty in breathing.
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Compare the effects of moderate and heavy alcohol consumption
Answer:
The effects of moderate alcohol consumption include the reduction of mortality. Secondly, it reduces the risk of heart disease and is known to help with digestion and blood flow. Heavy alcohol consumption juxtaposed with liver failure and early death. It affects the brain, kidneys, liver and lungs. Alcohol poisoning occurs and can kill the individual. Liver failure, cancer or car accidents are other leading causes of heavy alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily. what course of action should the nurse take in order to prevent legal complications
To prevent legal complications when a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily, the nurse should:
Familiarize themselves with relevant laws and regulations.
Ensure proper documentation.
Follow proper procedures.
Respect the client's rights.
Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team.
Continuous monitoring and reassessment.
In order to prevent legal complications when a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily, the nurse should take the following course of action:
Familiarize themselves with relevant laws and regulations: The nurse should have a thorough understanding of the legal framework governing involuntary admissions and mental health treatment in their jurisdiction. This includes being knowledgeable about applicable mental health acts, policies, and procedures.Ensure proper documentation: Accurate and detailed documentation is crucial in the mental health setting. The nurse should meticulously document the client's condition, reasons for the involuntary admission, assessments, interventions, and any significant changes in the client's status. This documentation should be timely, objective, and reflect the client's best interests.Follow proper procedures: The nurse should strictly adhere to the established procedures and protocols for involuntary admissions. This involves obtaining necessary legal authorizations and completing required forms or documentation as per institutional guidelines.Respect the client's rights: Even though the client is admitted involuntarily, they still have rights that must be respected. The nurse should ensure that the client's rights to confidentiality, dignity, privacy, and autonomy are protected. Any interventions or treatments should be conducted with the client's informed consent, or in accordance with legal provisions for involuntary treatment.Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team: Mental health care involves a multidisciplinary approach. The nurse should collaborate with the client's treatment team, including psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers, and legal professionals, to ensure that all aspects of the client's care align with legal requirements and ethical standards.Continuous monitoring and reassessment: Regular monitoring and reassessment of the client's condition are essential. The nurse should promptly identify and report any changes or concerns to the appropriate healthcare professionals, ensuring timely interventions and treatment modifications.By following these actions, the nurse can help prevent legal complications and ensure that the client's rights and legal requirements are upheld during their involuntary admission in the mental health unit.
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George is a chemist in Raleigh-Durham's Research Triangle. In his free time he loves commune with nature and this is a great place to do it. He enjoys hiking and hunting in Appalachia. He and his buddies have been looking forward to spending a week in the mountains on a fall hunting trip that has been planned for three months. Even though he did not bag the ‘big one,' he does return with something else. A few days after arriving back home, he thinks he is coming down with the flu. He is nauseated and vomiting, wracked with severe body aches and a blinding headache. His fever is 103.5. He heads to the ER when the rash appears on his hands. He is admitted into the ICU.
Answer:
The explanation of the given question is summarized below.
Explanation:
The person is sick with dengue fever as well as virus, which is a highly contagious illness.
Die rashes of dengue disease resemble maculopapular as well as segmental cells were cultured rashes, respectively.Inflammation can trigger an adaptive immunity complex response that increases capillaries susceptibility as well as liquid contamination or a loss.1)Amount of unsupported enamel at margins can be prompted by:
A. Shoulder Finish Line
Chamfer Finish Line
C
Sloped Shoulder Finish Line
D. All of the above
Which of the following is NOT within the LPN's job description:
Record vital signs including blood pressure and oxygen rate
Change bandaging as directed by a registered nurse
Give an enema
Increase a patient's dose of prescription medication and order additional injections
Answer:
give enema
Explanation:
thats is doctors work
Dr. Elizabeth Brennan does not contract with the ABC PFFS plan but accepts the plan’s terms and conditions for payment. Mary Rodgers sees Dr. Brennan for treatment. How much may Dr. Brennan charge?
Answer:
Dr Brennan can charge Mary Rogers no more than the cost-sharing specified in the PFFS plan's terms and condition of payment which may include balance billing up to 15 per cent of the Medicare rate.
Explanation:
Note that the terms PFFS (Private-Fee-for-Service) refers to Medicare advantages one stands to gain when under an insurance cover.
Thus, according to the terms of the Medicare Private-Fee-for-Service (PFFS), Dr Brennan is restricted to charge Mary Rogers no more than the cost-sharing specified in the PFFS plan's terms and condition of payment which may include balance billing up to 15 per cent of the Medicare rate.
Dr. Brennan will charge Mary Rogers nothing less than the cost sharing that has been specified in the PFFS plan's terms and condition of payment that also include balance billing up to 15 percent of the Medicare rate.
What is a PFFS plan?A PFFS plan is known to be a kind of plan that is often offered by a private insurance company.
Here, the plan contracts is often done with Medicare to give one healthcare coverage. These PFFS plans are known to often pay for things such as one's doctor's appointments, hospital stays, and other medical benefits stated in the plan.
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During the atrial systole phase of the cardiac cycle approx what percentage of blood is moved from the atrium to the ventricle ?
A. 100%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 50%
On what does the World Health Organization base its standards?
research
first–hand observations
what other organizations are doing
solutions that make the most money
Answer:
Its research
Explanation:
I got it right in edge