Limestone formations in caves are considered what kind of weathering?
a.) chemical
b.) biological
c.) hydraulic
d.) mechanical

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a

Explanation:

bc its a yessssss queeeeeen

Answer 2

Answer:

A. Chemical

Explanation:

I took the test and it's correct :)


Related Questions

Which of these organisms has an internal structure made of bone and cartilage?
A. Organism I
B. Organism Il
C. Organism Ill
D. Organism V

Which of these organisms has an internal structure made of bone and cartilage?A. Organism IB. Organism

Answers

Answer:

im pretty sure its c

Explanation:

Organism Ill has an internal structure made of bone and cartilage.

What is Internal structure?

The internal structures of an animal are essential to its survival. For example, inside their bodies, a lot of animals (including you!) have a heart. The heart works as a pump to move blood through the animal's blood vessels.

Blood vessels are like highways that travel to every inch of your body. The blood inside the vessels contains important chemicals that your body uses to grow and work, like nutrients, and hormones.

The stomach is an important internal structure because it's where an animal gets nutrients. First, the animal eats food, and then the stomach breaks that food down, sending the good nutrients to the blood and getting rid of everything else.

Therefore, Organism Ill has an internal structure made of bone and cartilage.

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Plssss help 50pts and brainliest for whoever answers first and actually gets it right

Plssss help 50pts and brainliest for whoever answers first and actually gets it right

Answers

Punnett squares are used to determine the offspring and parental genotypes and phenotypes. Assuming the simulation showed both phenotypes among the progeny, Flower C must be heterozygous Hh for the trait, expressing the dominant phenotype.

What is a Punnett square?

The Punnett square is a graphic representation that shows the different types of gamete combinations according to the alleles involved in a cross.

Punnett square shows the probabilities of getting offspring with different genotypes and their consequent phenotypes.

In the exposed example, we need to cross flower A (hh) with flower C. We have two options for flower C: HH or Hh.

Cross 1:

Parentals) hh   x   HH

Gametes) h   h    H    H

Punnett square)    h     h

                      H    Hh   Hh

                      H    Hh   Hh

F1) 100% of the progeny is expected to be heterozygous for the trait and express the dominant phenotype.

Cross 2:

Parentals) hh   x   Hh

Gametes) h   h    H    h

Punnett square)    h     h

                      H    Hh   Hh

                      h     hh   hh

F1) 50% of the progeny is expected to be heterozygous for the trait and express the dominant phenotype.

     50% of the progeny is expected to be homozygous recessive for the trait and express the recessive phenotype.

     

Let us assume in the simulation we observed the following numbers from the cross AxC (first generation)

20 individuals expressing the dominant trait (H-)10 individuals expressing the recessive trait (hh)

The two phenotypes were produced from this cross.

Knowing that parental A is homozygous recessive, hh (recessive phenotype) and parental C expresses the dominant phenotype (at least one dominant allele, H-), these results suggests that parental C must be heterozygous for the trait.

If this is the case, then parental C had 50% chances of transmitting a dominant allele H to the progeny and 50% chances of transmitting a recessive allele h.

The progeny had 50% chances of being homozygous recessive (hh) and 50% chances of being heterozygous (Hh). This is why both phenotypes appear among the offspring.

If parental C was homozygous dominant, then the whole progeny should be heterozygous and only express the dominant phenotype.

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do you think you found most of the species in habitat? what evidence supports your conclusion

Answers

In general, it is unlikely that all the species in a habitat have been found or discovered.

The total number of species on the planet is not known, and new species are still being discovered, particularly in remote or inaccessible areas.

Moreover, the discovery of new species requires extensive and continuous exploration, observation, and documentation, which can be a challenging and time-consuming process.

Many species may remain undiscovered, particularly those that are small, elusive, or have restricted ranges.

In conclusion, it is unlikely that all the species in a habitat have been found or discovered. Continued exploration, research, and observation are required to uncover the biodiversity of a habitat fully.

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the evolution of the house fly body plan was the result of several evolutionary events, which may have included organisms with the following characteristics given here in no particular order: organism 1 - 3 body segments, with a head organism 2 - 3 body segments, with a head, and wings organism 3 - many body segments, with a head organism 4 - no body segmentation, no head organism 5 - no body segmentation, with a head question: who would you consider to be the outgroup if you made a clade with organisms having these characteristics?

Answers

In considering the characteristics given, organism 4 - no body segmentation, no head - would be the most basal or outgroup.

This is because it lacks the defining characteristics of the other organisms, namely body segmentation and/or a head. In evolutionary terms, the presence of body segmentation and a distinct head are considered more advanced or derived characteristics that have evolved from simpler body plans. Organism 5 - no body segmentation, with a head - could be considered more derived than organism 4, but it still lacks body segmentation, which is a more fundamental characteristic. Organisms 1, 2, and 3 all have body segmentation and a head, but differ in the number of body segments and the presence of wings. They could be considered part of a clade that has evolved from the more basal organism 4. Overall, the evolution of the house fly body plan was likely the result of a complex series of evolutionary events involving multiple organisms and adaptations.

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Genetic cause of Type 1 Diabetes described

Answers

Although a number of risk factors have been discovered, the exact origins of type 1 diabetes are unknown. A number of HLA-DQA1, HLA-DQB1, and HLA-DRB1 gene polymorphisms enhance the risk of type 1 diabetes.

What hereditary factors contribute to diabetes?

Monogenic diabetes is brought on by alterations, or mutations, in just one gene. The majority of the time, these alterations are passed down through families, but occasionally a gene mutation occurs randomly. By reducing the pancreas' capacity to produce insulin, the majority of these gene abnormalities lead to diabetes.

Is diabetes caused by a genetic mutation?

Monogenic diabetes is a rare disease brought on by alterations (mutations) in just one gene. diabetes , the most prevalent forms of diabetes, type 1 and type 2, are brought on by a number of genes

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Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is caused by a single blow to the head.

Answers

It can be multiple hits to the head over time.

what would happen if the moon took twice as long to rotate around the earth?​

Answers

the Moon would cause weather and change of the ocean tides. this would mean much higher tides. if that makes any sense

Answer:

The tides would be messed up and throughout it's orbit the moon will look smaller and bigger.

Explanation:

cody is 4 months old and is given a dtap injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. what type of immunity will develop as a result of this

Answers

The type of immunity that will develop as a result of Cody receiving a DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) injection is active artificial immunity.

Active immunity refers to the immune response generated by the individual's own immune system, either through natural exposure to an infectious agent or through vaccination. In this case, Cody receives a DTaP injection, which contains weakened or inactivated forms of the diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis bacteria or their components.

By introducing these specific antigens into Cody's body, his immune system recognizes them as foreign and mounts an immune response. This response involves the production of antibodies and the activation of immune cells to eliminate the antigens. The immune system "learns" to recognize and respond to these particular pathogens, providing long-term protection against future infections.

Since the DTaP injection is administered by his pediatrician and not acquired through natural exposure, it is considered artificial immunity. This form of immunity is crucial for protecting infants like Cody, as it helps them develop resistance to potentially harmful diseases before they come into contact with the actual pathogens in their environment.

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in humans, having a hitchhikers thumb is a recessive trait

Answers

Answer:

yes, a person must inherit two copies of the gene for it to be expressed.

Explanation:

Having a hitchhiker's thumb is a genetic trait that is passed down from parents to their children. An individual must inherit two copies of the gene for it to be expressed.

This means that if one parent has a hitchhiker's thumb and the other parent does not, their children will not necessarily have the trait, but may inherit one copy of the gene for the trait. If both parents have a hitchhiker's thumb, their children are more likely to have the trait.

Find the solution of the given initial value problem: (a) y

−y=2xe
2x
,y(0)=1 (b) y

+(cotx)y=2cscx,y(π/2)=1

Answers

(A) The answer to the initial value problem is given by \(\(y = (x^2 + 1)e^x\)\), where \(\(y' - y = 2xe^{2x}\)\) and \(\(y(0) = 1\)\).

(B) The resolution to the initial value problem can be expressed as \(\(y = \frac{2x - (\pi - 1)}{\sin(x)}\)\), where \(\(y' + \cot(x)y = 2\csc(x)\)\) and \(\(y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 1\)\).

(A) To solve the initial value problem:

\(\[y' - y = 2xe^{2x}, \quad y(0) = 1\]\)

We can use an integrating factor method. To begin, let us express the equation in its standard form:

\(\[y' - y - 2xe^{2x} = 0\]\)

The integrating factor \(\(I(x)\)\) is given by \(\(I(x) = e^{\int -1 \, dx} = e^{-x}\)\).

To obtain the solution, apply the integrating factor to both sides of the equation and perform the multiplication.

\(\[e^{-x}(y' - y) - 2xe^{2x}e^{-x} = 0\]\)

This simplifies to:

\(\[e^{-x}y' - e^{-x}y - 2x = 0\]\)

Now, observe that the expression on the left-hand side represents the derivative of \(\((e^{-x}y)\)\) with respect to \(\(x\)\).

Using this observation, we can rewrite the equation as:

\(\[\frac{d}{dx}(e^{-x}y) - 2x = 0\]\)

Integrating both sides with respect to \(\(x\)\), we get:

\(\[e^{-x}y - \int 2x \, dx = C\]\)

where \(\(C\)\) is the constant of integration.

Integrating \(\(\int 2x \, dx\)\), we have:

\(\[e^{-x}y - x^2 + C = 0\]\)

To find the constant \(\(C\)\), we use the initial condition \(\(y(0) = 1\)\).

Substituting \(\(x = 0\)\) and \(\(y = 1\)\) into the equation, we get:

\(\[e^{0} \cdot 1 - 0^2 + C = 0\]\)

\(\[1 + C = 0\]\)

\(\[C = -1\]\)

Substituting \(\(C = -1\)\) back into the equation, we have:

\(\[e^{-x}y - x^2 - 1 = 0\]\)

Finally, we can solve for \(\(y\)\) by isolating it:

\(\[e^{-x}y = x^2 + 1\]\)

\(\[y = (x^2 + 1)e^x\]\)

(B) To solve the initial value problem:

\(\[y' + \cot(x)y = 2\csc(x), \quad y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 1\]\)

We can use an integrating factor method. To begin, we will rewrite the equation in standard form:

\(\[y' + \cot(x)y - 2\csc(x) = 0\]\)

The integrating factor \(\(I(x)\)\) is given by:

\(\(I(x) = e^{\int \cot(x) \, dx} = e^{\ln(\sin(x))} = \sin(x)\).\)

Apply the integrating factor to both sides of the equation and perform the multiplication.

\(\[\sin(x)(y' + \cot(x)y) - 2\csc(x)\sin(x) = 0\]\)

This simplifies to:

\(\[\sin(x)y' + \cos(x)y - 2 = 0\]\)

Now, observe that the expression on the left-hand side represents the derivative of \(\((\sin(x)y)\)\) with respect to \(\(x\)\). Using this observation, we can rewrite the equation as:

\(\[\frac{d}{dx}(\sin(x)y) - 2 = 0\]\)

Integrating both sides with respect to \(\(x\)\), we get:

\(\[\sin(x)y -\)\(\int 2 \, dx = C\]\)

where \(\(C\)\) is the constant of integration. Integrating \(\(\int 2 \, dx\)\), we have:

\(\[\sin(x)y - 2x + C = 0\]\)

To find the constant \(\(C\)\), we use the initial condition \(\(y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 1\).\)

Substituting \(\(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\)\) and \(\(y = 1\)\) into the equation, we get:

\(\[\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \cdot 1 - 2\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) + C = 0\]\)

\(\[1 - \pi + C = 0\]\)

\(\[C = \pi - 1\]\)

Substituting \(\(C = \pi - 1\)\) back into the equation, we have:

\(\[\sin(x)y - 2x + (\pi - 1) = 0\]\)

Finally, we can solve for \(\(y\)\) by isolating it:

\(\[\sin(x)y = 2x - (\pi - 1)\]\)

\(\[y = \frac{2x - (\pi - 1)}{\sin(x)}\]\)

\(\(y = \frac{2x - (\pi - 1)}{\sin(x)}\).\)

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The complete question is:

Find The Solution Of The Given Initial Value Problem:

(A) \(\(y' - y = 2xe^{2x}\)\), and \(\(y(0) = 1\)\)

(B) \(\(y' + \cot(x)y = 2\csc(x)\)\), and \(\(y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 1\)\)

in the bicarbonate system in the body, bicarbonate acts as a(n) _____________, while hydrogen is a(n) _____________.

Answers

In the bicarbonate system in the body, bicarbonate acts as a(n) base, while hydrogen is a(n) acid.

What is the bicarbonate buffer system?

The bicarbonate buffer system is a physiological buffering mechanism that maintains the pH of the body's fluids within a regular range. The bicarbonate buffer system, also known as the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system, comprises a combination of carbonic acid (H2CO3) and bicarbonate (HCO3-).

Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is formed when carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) are combined. This compound decomposes to form bicarbonate (HCO3-) and hydrogen (H+) ions. The bicarbonate acts as a base, accepting hydrogen ions from the blood, while the hydrogen ions act as an acid, donating them to the blood.

A bicarbonate buffer system maintains pH by reacting to pH shifts within the bloodstream. If there are excess hydrogen ions in the bloodstream, bicarbonate ions combine with them to form carbonic acid. The carbonic acid quickly breaks down to produce water and carbon dioxide, which are then expelled through the lungs.

If there is an insufficient quantity of hydrogen ions in the bloodstream, the bicarbonate ions will stay unreacted, which helps to maintain pH.

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Which is a strong synthetic polymer that can be used to make toys and bottles? polystyrene foam polyethylene nylon vulcanized rubber

Answers

Answer:

i think its the second one im doing the test right now hopes this helps have a good rest of your day

Explanation:

Answer:

B=polyethylene should be the right answer

Explanation:

1. How is the shape of a cow's pupil different from the shape of a human's pupil? 2. Preservatives make the cow's lens hard and opaque, but in living organisms the lens is clear and flexible. Why is it important that the lens of a living organism be both clear and flexible? 3. Nicole is taking photos at a friend's birthday party. In one photo, her friend appears to have red glowing eyes. Why do human eyes sometimes glow red in photos? 4. Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions where affected individuals experience vision loss that can be progressive and irreversible. Based on what you have learned about the retina and the optic nerve, explain what causes this loss of vision.

Answers

1. Because cows have a wider field of vision horizontally and a narrower field of vision vertically.

2. Because the lens is responsible for focusing light onto the retina.

3. Because of the reflection of the camera flash off the retina.

4. Glaucoma causes vision loss because it damages the optic nerve.

1. The shape of a cow's pupil is different from the shape of a human's pupil because it is horizontal, whereas the human pupil is circular. This is because cows have a wider field of vision horizontally and a narrower field of vision vertically. The horizontal pupil allows them to see a wider area from side to side, which is useful for detecting predators or threats.

2. It is important that the lens of a living organism be both clear and flexible because the lens is responsible for focusing light onto the retina, which then sends signals to the brain for interpretation. If the lens is hard and opaque, as it can become with preservatives, it cannot properly focus the light, leading to blurry vision or even blindness. Additionally, if the lens is not flexible, it cannot adjust its shape to focus on objects at different distances, which is essential for clear vision.

3. Human eyes sometimes glow red in photos because of the reflection of the camera flash off the retina. The retina contains blood vessels that reflect the light back, causing the red-eye effect. This is more likely to occur in low light conditions, when the pupils are dilated and the camera flash is more likely to reflect off the retina.

4. Glaucoma causes vision loss because it damages the optic nerve, which is responsible for transmitting visual signals from the retina to the brain. The pressure inside the eye can increase, leading to compression of the blood vessels that supply the optic nerve with oxygen and nutrients. This can damage the nerve fibers, leading to vision loss. Additionally, glaucoma can cause damage to the retina itself, further exacerbating the loss of vision. If left untreated, glaucoma can lead to permanent vision loss.

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icd-10 code for aftercare following surgery of digestive system

Answers

The appropriate ICD-10 code for aftercare following surgery of the digestive system is Z48.81. The ICD-10 is a system of classification and coding used by medical practitioners to document and code patient diagnoses and medical procedures in healthcare settings.

ICD-10 stands for International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, which is a medical classification system used by healthcare providers all over the world. It aids healthcare providers in recording, managing, and processing healthcare data and information. ICD-10 code for aftercare following surgery of digestive systemICD-10 code Z48.81 is the code for aftercare following surgery of digestive system, which indicates that the patient is undergoing aftercare following a digestive system operation, such as gastric bypass or appendectomy. The ICD-10 code Z48.81 is classified under Chapter 21 of ICD-10. It is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes, such as physician billing claims.

The full code for Z48.81 is as follows: Z48.81 Aftercare following digestive system surgery Z48.810 Aftercare following partial resection of large intestine Z48.811 Aftercare following total resection of large intestine Z48.812 Aftercare following partial resection of small intestine Z48.818 Aftercare following other digestive system surgery, including intestinal anastomosis and gastric bypass.

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explain how the selective medium pseudomonas isolation agar works.

Answers

Pseudomonas isolation agar is a selective medium used to isolate Pseudomonas bacteria. The medium contains compounds that inhibit the growth of other bacteria and promote the growth of Pseudomonas species.

The most commonly used inhibitor is cetrimide, which prevents the growth of most Gram-positive bacteria. Pseudomonas bacteria are able to use cetrimide as a sole source of carbon and energy, allowing them to grow on the medium. Other components of the medium, such as iron, magnesium, and potassium, provide essential nutrients for the growth of Pseudomonas. Colonies of Pseudomonas on the selective medium are typically greenish-blue and have a distinctive fruity odor. Overall, the selective medium pseudomonas isolation agar is an effective tool for the isolation and identification of Pseudomonas species from complex microbial communities.

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The change in leaf color on these trees is one way the trees maintain what

Answers

photosynthesis
The process is called photosynthesis. When chlorophyll breaks down, yellow pigments in leaves become visible. As days get shorter and colder in the autumn, chlorophyll molecules break down.

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All living organisms, including plants, animals, and microorganisms, carry out some form of cellular respiration in order to release energy to perform their daily activities. In which of the following Earth cycles do the products of cellular respiration play a major role?

All living organisms, including plants, animals, and microorganisms, carry out some form of cellular

Answers

Answer:

Carbon Cycle

Explanation:

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are connected through an important relationship. This relationship enables life to survive as we know it.

Cellular Respiration: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

Photosynthesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

While photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, cellular respiration requires oxygen and releases carbon dioxide. It is the released oxygen that is used by us and most other organisms for cellular respiration. We breathe in that oxygen, which is carried through our blood to all our cells. In our cells, oxygen allows cellular respiration to proceed. Cellular respiration works best in the presence of oxygen. Without oxygen, much less ATP would be produced.

Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are important parts of the carbon cycle. The carbon cycle is the pathways through which carbon is recycled in the biosphere.

indicate the events that occur with inspiration, in the correct order. multiple choice diaphragm contracts; thoracic cavity expands; intra-alveolar pressure drops; air flows into lungs. diaphragm contracts; thoracic cavity recoils; intra-alveolar pressure increases; air flows into lungs. diaphragm relaxes; thoracic cavity expands; intra-alveolar pressure increases; air flows into lungs. diaphragm relaxes; thoracic cavity recoils; intra-alveolar pressure drops; air flows into lungs.

Answers

Air enters the lungs in the proper sequence as inspiration occurs. The thoracic cavity widens as the diaphragm relaxes.

Which sequence of events during inhaling is correct?

Either either the nose or the mouth, air is inhaled. Following is the order in which the air moves during inhalation: Nostrils→ pharynx→ larynx→ trachea→ alveoli.

What is the correct arrangement of the respiratory system?

During inspiration, the respiratory system sequentially passes the following amounts of ambient air through it: Right or left bronchi of the lung, trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchioles, and alveoli of the lung are the order of progression from the nose or mouth. Our nostrils allow air to enter our bodies as we breathe it in. After that, it travels through the pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity before entering the windpipe.

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. What is the difference between carbon dioxide Fire extinguisher and foam type fire extinguisher? ​

Answers

Unlike a foam fire extinguisher, carbon dioxide fire extinguishers do not leave any residue; you can use them on things such as flammable liquids, petrol, and oils, as well as electrical apparatus such as laptops and phone chargers. On the other hand, foam extinguishers can also extinguish flammable liquids, petrol, and oils, as well as wood, paper, plastics, and soft furnishings.

What will happen to levels of ATP in a muscle cell of an individual that stops consuming carbohydrates and other sources of sugar in his diet? Select ALL that apply 1. ATP production levels drop to 0 and the cell will die 2. ATP production will rise b/c the cell will use fat to make ATP. Fat has a lot more energy than carbohydrates. 3. ATP production levels will drop dramatically. Cell will have to import glucose from other cells. 4. ATP production will likely remain the same as the cell can use other compounds that feed into glycolysis and citric acid cycle. 5. ATP production will stay the same over a short time until all glycogen storage granules are depleted and then ATP production will stop.

Answers

Answer:

2

Explanation:

Fats are the slowest source of energy but the most energy-efficient form of food. Each gram of fat supplies the body with about 9 calories, more than twice that supplied by proteins or carbohydrates.

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If the consumption of carbohydrates lowers, then ATP production will likely remain the same as the cell can use other compounds that feed into the glycolysis and citric acid cycles. Option 4 is the correct answer.

How is ATP produced from food?

The dietary carbohydrates, protein, and fat are broken down to produce energy. The body generally uses glucose, as it is the simplest source of energy. Less energy is used to break down the glucose for energy.

From lipids and proteins, energy can be derived too. Lipids such as saturated lipids need more energy to break down the covalent bond. To generate energy from the lipid, the body must expend more energy. A lipid molecule generally produces 9 kcal of energy, while a carbohydrate molecule produces 6 kcal.

If the carbohydrate level decreases, the body will use the lipids to produce ATP. ATP production will not stop in the absence of carbohydrate until the body has lipid as a reserve material.

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer as ATP will produce from other source.

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Phosphorylation of a protein can change its behavior in all of these ways EXCEPT: it can increase or decrease protein-protein interactions. it can move from one cell compartment to another. it can initiate protein degradation. it can initiate protein synthesis. it can activate or inactivate an enzyme.

Answers

Phosphorylation of a protein can change its behavior in all of these ways EXCEPT it can initiate protein synthesis.

Phosphorylation is a common post-translational modification that involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein, usually on a serine, threonine, or tyrosine residue. This modification can alter the protein's activity, localization, stability, and interaction with other proteins. Phosphorylation can activate or inactivate an enzyme, change the conformation of a protein, and signal for the protein's degradation. It can also facilitate the protein's movement from one cell compartment to another by exposing a signal sequence or changing its affinity for a membrane or scaffold protein. However, phosphorylation does not initiate protein synthesis, which is the process of translating mRNA into a polypeptide chain on a ribosome.

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The hindbrain is mainly responsible for:
A. communication between all parts of the brain.
B. logical thought and language.
C. processing sensory input.
D. basic life functions and muscular coordination.

Answers

Answer:

basic life functions and muscular coordination.

Explanation:

MULTHI.E CHOICI. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statenaent or answers the questien. 1) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(v)? 1) A) vagus B) glossopharyngeal and vagus C) facial D) hypoglossal E) glossopharyngeal 2) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phill loses his vision. The blow probably caused 2) damage to the A) occipital lobe. B) postcentral gyrus. C) limbic system. D) temporal lobe. E) frontal lobe. 3) Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation? 3) A) norepinephrine B) dopamine C) nitric oxide D) serotonin E) acetylcholine 4) Which of the following associations is incorrect? 4) A) 5 sacral spinal nerves B) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve C) 8 cervical spinal nerves D) 5 lumbar spinal nerves E) 11 thoracic spinal nerves 5) The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the 5) A) dura mater. B) pia mater. C) coccygeal ligament. D) arachnoid mater. E) periosteum. 6) The nervous system stimulates the arrector pili muscles and gives you "goosebumps." A) somatic B) sympathetic C) parasympathetic D) afferent E) dorsal

Answers

The multiple-choice questions cover topics related to cranial nerves, brain regions, neurotransmitters, spinal nerves, and the autonomic nervous system.

The given questions are multiple-choice questions that cover various aspects of the nervous system. The first question addresses difficulty in swallowing, which could indicate damage to the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X). The second question relates to vision loss after a head blow, suggesting possible damage to the occipital lobe.

The third question asks about the sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation, with the correct answer being nitric oxide. The fourth question tests knowledge of the number of spinal nerves associated with each region, and the fifth question focuses on the outer covering of the spinal cord, which is the dura mater.

The final question asks about the stimulation of arrector pili muscles, which is accomplished by the sympathetic nervous system.

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True a False/ a theory is a scientific idea that has been proven to be true.

Answers

Answer:

No,it has to be proven true its not already true

Explanation:

It has to be proven true,it can't be true becuase someone said it was without any proof.

Why is it better to hunt in groups

Answers

So it will be easier to catch your prey

Cooperative hunting enables predators to prey on larger animals, have greater endurance, or are faster than would otherwise be possible.

Group foraging has been demonstrated in several species to reduce the risk of the foragers falling prey to other animals.

For example:

Say you're going to hunt two bears, and they get the jump on you if you had a group you would have a higher chance of survival.

How many chromosomes do humans have in total in each body cell

Answers

Their are 46 chromosomes is a human body
Human has 23 pairs of chromosomes which makes a total of 46

will an enzyme that breaks down starch work on an enzyme that breaks down protein? why or why not?

Answers

No, specific enzymes break down specific materials as the active site is only complementary to one substrate. Amylase breaks down starch and Protease breaks down proteins.

Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between bond length, electronegativity, and potential energy in chemical bonds? Select only ONE answer choice.
Group of answer choices
The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the longer the bond length, the greater the potential energy in chemical bonds
The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the shorter the bond length, the greater the potential energy in chemical bonds
The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the shorter the bond length, the lower the potential energy in chemical bonds
The lower the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the lower the bond length, the lower the potential energy in chemical bonds
None of the above

Answers

The relationship between bond length, electronegativity, and potential energy in chemical bonds: The greater the electronegativity difference between the two bonded atoms, the shorter the bond length, and the greater the potential energy in a chemical bond

Basically, the higher the electronegativity of an atom, the more likely it is to attract pairs of electrons toward itself to form bonds. If the electronegativity difference increases, the bond length will decrease.

High energy is required to break bonds with shorter bond lengths. So, bonds with short lengths have high potential energy.

So, the correct answer is the second option.

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recall the basic structure of blood vessels in the placenta: how does it contribute to the fetus' problem of getting sufficient o2?

Answers

The organs in the lower half of the embryonic body receive oxygen-poor blood via the ductus arteriosus. This permits the blood that is deficient in oxygen to leave the foetus and return to the placenta, where it can pick up oxygen.

An organ that grows in the uterus during pregnancy is the placenta. A developing newborn receives oxygen and nutrients from this structure. It also cleans the baby's blood of waste materials. The baby's umbilical cord grows from the placenta, which is attached to the uterus' wall throughout pregnancy. The placenta of the mother and the newborn are connected through the umbilical chord. The umbilical cord serves as the baby's lifeline during foetal growth in the womb by delivering nutrients. The cord is pinched and cut after delivery. The cord will eventually become dry and fall off naturally after 1 to 3 weeks.

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What are the three principles of exercise and why are they important?

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Overload, progression, and specificity are the three training principles that should be followed when developing your fitness program. They are crucial because increasing the number of repetitions, weight, or duration of an exercise that you are accustomed to results in overload.

What are exercise principles?

Because it adheres to the concepts of specificity, progression, overload, adaptation, and reversibility, regular and consistent training is essential if you want to improve your performance. There is no way to actually make up missed sessions within the framework of a single season. They are missed opportunities to improve.

According to the given question:

Trainers who are familiar with the fundamentals of exercise are better able to monitor the strain—or exercise load—imposed on their clients, ensuring that the training is safe and effective and assisting the client in achieving their goals.

A comprehensive fitness and exercise plan should include endurance (aerobic), flexibility, and strength. There are specific rules that govern how well each of these components works.

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