Activities for the clients' families that promote health are scheduled. Every decision-making partnership includes the clients and their families.
The nurse should be aware of one of the most often reported maternal medical risk factors when caring for a pregnant lady.The nurse should be aware that diabetes mellitus is one of the most often reported maternal medical risk factors when caring for a pregnant woman.
What are the main objectives of nursing care during pregnancy?The main objectives of prenatal nursing care are to ensure a woman and child have a safe delivery, to promote their health and well-being, and to ensure that the mother and family are satisfied with the birthing process.
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The ovum is the _______ cell in the female body.
Answer:
The ovum is the largest cell in the female body.
Explanation:
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Which of the following is (are) an example(s) of a medical report
Examples of a medical report are the documents issued by the doctor that contain it.
Exam resultsDiagnosticsPrognosesTherapeutic conductsPossible sequelaePhysical limitationsHealth consequences.What is the difference between a medical report and a medical report?while the report is declaratory in nature and seeks to report the medical care, clinical history and current health conditions of the patient, the report describes the conclusions obtained from medical examinations and expertise and the patient's diagnosis.
With this information, we can conclude that examples of a medical report are the documents issued by the doctor that contain it.
Exam resultsDiagnosticsPrognosesTherapeutic conductsPossible sequelaePhysical limitationsHealth consequences.Which of the following is (are) an example(s) of a medical report
a. All of the above
b. Progress notes
c. Laboratory reports
d. Results of the physical examination
e. Health history report
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What are some safeguards you would use if you had to prepare medications for a patient?
what is the purpose of a medicare carve-out or supplements
Medicare carve-out refers to the method by which some employers opt out of the Medicare part A program and instead offer their employees the option of receiving the equivalent benefits of health care through a private insurance plan.
The purpose of a Medicare carve-out is to help employers reduce their costs, provide employees with the medical benefits they require, and offer them greater control over their healthcare spending. Carve-out supplements are designed to cover the healthcare expenses that are not covered by Medicare or that exceed Medicare's cost-sharing amounts. Medicare carve-out supplements are intended to assist individuals in covering their out-of-pocket expenses. In summary, the purpose of a Medicare carve-out or supplement is to provide additional insurance protection to people who require healthcare services beyond what is provided by traditional Medicare.
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Which are duties of a pharmacy technician in a hospital? Select all that apply.
compounding and performing sterile work
filing medical orders
dispensing patient medications
delivering patient medications to nurses
working the drive-thru window
working with nuclear medicine
stocking crash carts
explaining medicine interactions to patients
during assessment, the nurse notes the client has a decreased pain sensation in his low extremities. the nurse should ask the client about a history of what disease?
During assessment, the nurse notes the client has a decreased pain sensation in his low extremities. The nurse should ask the client about a history of peripheral neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is a type of damage to the peripheral nervous system, which is the network of nerves that transmits information from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. Symptoms of peripheral neuropathy can include decreased sensation, pain, numbness, and tingling in the extremities. Common causes of peripheral neuropathy can include diabetes, trauma, vitamin deficiencies, autoimmune diseases, infections, toxins, and inherited conditions.
In order to further assess the client’s condition, the nurse should ask the client about his medical history, any past conditions he may have had, family history of neurological disorders, recent changes in sensation, any medications he is taking, and any other symptoms he may be experiencing. The nurse should also conduct a physical exam of the patient to assess for areas of diminished sensation, strength, reflexes, or muscle coordination. Depending on the findings of the assessment, the nurse may order diagnostic tests, such as a nerve conduction study, electromyography, or MRI to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment for peripheral neuropathy may involve lifestyle modifications, medications, physical therapy, and/or surgery.
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A person taking exogenous thyroid hormone in an illegal diet pill would have ________ T3 and T4 and ________ TSH levels while taking the diet pill.
Answer:
A person taking exogenous thyroid hormone in an illegal diet pill would have more than normal T3 and T4 and less than normal TSH levels while taking the diet pill.
Explanation:
If a person is taking exogenous thyroid hormone in an illegal diet pill, the T3 and T4 would be higher than usual since the body is receiving the thyroid hormone when it does not need it because it can produce it by itself. The TSH is the Thyroid Stimulating Hormone. This hormone stimulates the production of T3 and T4 in the thyroid gland. As the body receives an external dose of the thyroid hormone, the TSH levels are lower to try and balance the excess of T3and T4.
Do you think tissue engineering is ethical or unethical? Why?
Answer:Tissue engineering (TE) is a promising new field of medical technology.
Explanation:However, like other new technologies, it is not free of ethical challenges. Identifying these ethical questions at an early stage is not only part of science's responsibility toward society, but also in the interest of the field itself.
when assisting a person with their medication, which of the following statements are true. select 2 answers.
When assisting a person with their medication, the following statements are true: Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do and Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication. Therefore option A and B are correct.
A. Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do: It is important to communicate clearly and inform the person or their family member about the process of administering medication.
This helps establish trust and ensures everyone is aware of the actions being taken.
B. Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication: Confirming with the person that you have the correct medication is essential to avoid any errors or misunderstandings.
Their confirmation helps verify that the medication being administered is indeed the intended one.
Therefore options A and B are correct.
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Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was.
when assisting a person with their medication, which of the following statements are true. select 2 answers.
A. Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do.
B. Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication.
C. Wait for emergency medical services so they can administer the medication.
D. You may assist with an over the counter (otc) medication, but you may not assist with a prescription medication.
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
9. Explain the purpose of Phase IV clinical studies after regulatory (i.e., FDA) approval. Discuss the important information that can be gained from
Phase IV (postmarketing surveillance) of clinical drug testing and explain the roles and responsibilities of the nurse, nurse practitioner, and physicianin gathering and reporting new data.
Phase IV studies help to ensure that new drugs and treatments are safe and effective for the patients who use them.
Phase IV clinical studies, also known as post-marketing surveillance, are conducted after regulatory approval (such as FDA approval) of a new drug or treatment. The purpose of these studies is to monitor the safety and effectiveness of the drug in a larger population over an extended period of time and to identify any adverse effects or drug interactions that may have been missed during earlier stages of clinical testing.
Phase IV studies can provide important information on the long-term effects of a drug, as well as its effectiveness in different patient populations or when used in combination with other medications. This information can be used to update labeling information and improve patient safety.
Nurses, nurse practitioners, and physicians all have important roles to play in gathering and reporting new data during Phase IV studies. They may be responsible for monitoring patients for adverse events, collecting data on patient outcomes, and reporting any new safety concerns to regulatory authorities. They also play a key role in educating patients about the importance of reporting any adverse effects or changes in their health status during and after treatment.
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Suzanne was diagnosed with lymphocytopenia. Lymphocytes are white blood cells, so which best describes Suzanne’s condition?
swelling of white blood cells
abnormally large white blood cells
low levels of white blood cells
ruptured white blood cells
Answer:
C. Low levels of white blood cells
the statement, "traumatic foot amputation at the left ankle," the main term to reference in the ICD-10-CM Index to Diseases and Injuries would be
The main term to reference in the ICD-10-CM Index to Diseases and Injuries would be amputation.
What is ICD-10-CM?ICD-10-CM may be defined as the International Classification of Diseases -10th Version-Clinical Modification which is formulated and designed for classifying and reporting diseases in all healthcare settings.
In the statement, "traumatic foot amputation at the left ankle", the term amputation gives you the correct reference to this particular injury and authorized treatment in the ICD-10-CM.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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what type of more advanced career can be pursued after becoming established in nursing career?
Answer:
Acute Care Nurse.
Burn Unit Nurse.
Camp Nurse.
Certified Nurse Assistant.
Community Nurse.
Critical Care Nurse.
Cruise Ship Nurse.
Dermatology Nurse Practitioner.
One of the tools used to limit the misuse of these drugs is
, which creates different classifications of drugs
One of the tools used to limit the misuse of drugs is drug scheduling or drug classification. Drug scheduling involves categorizing drugs into different classes or schedules based on their potential for abuse, medical use, and safety profile.
The specific schedules and criteria used for classification may vary between countries or regions. In the United States, for example, drugs are classified into five schedules under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), with Schedule I being the most strictly regulated and Schedule V being the least regulated. The scheduling criteria take into account factors such as the drug's potential for abuse, its accepted medical use, and the degree of safety and dependence associated with its use. Schedule I drugs are considered to have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use, such as heroin and LSD. Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but may have accepted medical uses with severe restrictions, such as opioids like fentanyl and oxycodone. The schedules continue down to Schedule V, which includes drugs with lower abuse potential and accepted medical uses, such as cough syrups containing codeine in limited quantities.
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What are the consequences of losing neuroglial cell function
Answer:
A dense network of blood vessels transports oxygen and nutrients to and from the brain, which consumes 10 times more oxygen and nutrients than any other organ.
Explanation:
The unit manager is exploring the adoption of an electronic health records (EHRs). She is developing an evaluation tool for an objective assessment of each product. What is most important for the manager to include for assessing the functionality of each product?
a. Survey other health care organizations using EHRs to determine which one to select.
b. The ability to integrate patient information from multiple sources for more effective clinical decision-making.
c. List the products being considered and have the staff vote to adopt one product.
d. Arrange for the unit staff to review a promotional video for each product and have the staff decide on what to select.
In an objective evaluation of each EHRs product, the manager must evaluate the functionality of each product against its ability to integrate patient information from multiple sources for more effective clinical decision making.
What are Electronic Health Records?Corresponds to a real-time, instant and digital version of the patient record system. It is a system capable of providing data beyond just the clinical data collected, but providing a more comprehensive view for more effective care.
Therefore, to be effective, an EHRs must contain the patient's medical history, diagnosis, medications, dates, images, results, and other histories that aid in better decision making for the patient.
So, the correct answer is:
B. The ability to integrate patient information from multiple sources for more effective clinical decision-making.
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How do I answer questions on Brainly.
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Could my cell phone kill me?
hmm... i think yes hahaha
Answer: No
Explanation:
A cellphone can be used to kill you but the phone itself cant
Dr.Jasen and Dale, a veterinary assistant from Ashton Oak Equine Center are on a farm call to examine a Thoroughbred named “Roscoe”. The horse has been lethargic, weak after exercise, and had a decreased appetite for several days. The vet completes a PE and determines the horse has pale mucous membranes, a decreased HR and RR, is 5-10% dehydrated, appears weak and have lost some weight since the last exam. The vet is suspicious of parasites or an auto immune disease, since some of the signs appear to be anemia. Dr. Jansen explains to the owner that Jaimie causes a low blood cell count causing less oxygen to be transported to the tissues. Thus, the body is not producing enough blood cells. Upon completing the exam, Mark assists the vet in obtaining some blood samples and a fecal sample for further diagnosis. What are some possible causes for the anemia? What are some factors that could prevent the horse from having anemia? What treatment options might Dr.Jansen discuss with the owner?
Answer:
"Nonregenerative anemias include anemias caused by nutritional deficiencies in vitamins or minerals (such as iron), long-term disease, kidney disease"
"Supportive treatments, such as blood transfusions, may be indicated for severe cases to resolve equine anemia is supplementing with vitamins and minerals that are important to the process of red blood cell production."
How much nitroprusside (25 mg/mL) would you add to 1000 mL of 5% dextrose to deliver 2 mcg/kg/min of nitroprusside at a delivery rate of 12 mL/h to a 3.8 kg dog?
Why is clonal selection and expansion so important to the immune response? A) It facilitates the secretion of cytokines. B) It enables certain cells to kill target cells. C) It is critical to the increase in the numbers of specific cells. D) It facilitates interleukin secretion which in turn directs cell differentiation.
Answer:
C) It is critical to the increase in the numbers of specific cells
Explanation:
Clonal selection and expansion is the mechanism by which the immune system selects specific cells capable of both recognizing antigens and increasing the number of these useful cells that fight against pathogenic microorganisms and viruses. During this mechanism, B cells (also known as B lymphocytes) that have specific transmembrane receptors capable of recognizing specific antigens, are multiplied. The process of expansion involves the hypermutation of the clones in order to modify the shape and structure of these receptors, which increases the affinity of the clones for specific antigens.
Answer:
C) It is critical to the increase in the numbers of specific cells.
Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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6. Which one of the following statements about the responsibilities of medical
billers and coders is correct?
A. They play a minor role in health care reimbursement.
B. They should not examine patient records.
C. They create documentation required for reimbursement from only third-party
payers.
O D. They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.
Answer:
Last option is the correct choice.
Explanation:
The following statement about the responsibilities of medical billers and coders is correct: They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.
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WHATS LOW CONTEXT COMMUNICATION
Answer: Low context communication refers to a style of communication in which most of the information is conveyed explicitly through words, rather than relying on nonverbal cues, shared understanding, or implicit references.
Explanation:
Low context communication refers to a style of communication in which most of the information is conveyed explicitly through words, rather than relying on nonverbal cues, shared understanding, or implicit references.
In low-context communication, speakers tend to be more direct and specific, providing detailed explanations and relying less on context and background knowledge. The meaning of the message is largely contained in the words themselves, rather than in the larger social or cultural context in which the communication takes place.
Low-context communication is commonly used in many Western cultures, where individualism, clarity, and explicitness are valued. Examples of low-context communication include emails, legal contracts, technical manuals, and scientific reports.
A pharmacy technician might help with MTM by?
Technicians can provide support or management roles in MTM functions, such as the following: Medical and pharmacy record gathering, organization, and assessment. Medication reconciliation (developing a Personal Medication List) Correspondence with patients, physicians, other health care providers.
Can you WorkOut if you are having a tooth/gum ache??
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
because it doesn't affect any other body part besides your jaw
it is possible, buti dont think you can workout peacefully while having a toothache,
since the pain of the toothache is so painful, you must take care of your toothache first by rinsing with warm salty water , after your toothache is relieved then you can exercise without disturbance.
Which of the following amalgam types tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact? A. Admix B. Spherical C. Lathe-cut D. All of the aboveTerm
The amalgam type which tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut.
What is amalgam?Amalgam is a dental filling material that has been used for over 150 years to restore decayed teeth. It is made up of a mixture of metals, including silver, tin, copper, and mercury. When these metals are mixed together, they form a soft, pliable material that can be packed into a cavity in a tooth. Over time, the amalgam hardens and becomes a strong, durable filling material.Amalgam restorations are one of the most common types of restorations used to repair cavities.
They are durable, long-lasting, and relatively inexpensive. However, there are some disadvantages to using amalgam as a filling material. One of these is that it can be difficult to get a good proximal contact with the adjacent tooth, especially in class II restorations.
The type of amalgam that tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut. Lathe-cut amalgam is made by grinding a mixture of metals into a powder. This powder is then compressed into a solid block and sliced into pieces. Lathe-cut amalgam tends to be more brittle than other types of amalgam, which makes it less likely to deform and displace the matrix band.
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Timothy just finished an exercise where he straightened his arms and brought them together in front of his body. he then bent his arms up at the elbows and then opened them outward, pressing them toward his back. what kind of exercises did timothy complete?
Timothy completed a combination of exercises that targeted different muscle groups. The first part of the exercise where he straightened his arms and brought them together in front of his body is called a chest fly.
This exercise primarily targets the chest muscles (pectoralis major).
The second part where he bent his arms up at the elbows and then opened them outward, pressing them toward his back is called a reverse fly or rear delt fly.
This exercise primarily targets the posterior deltoids, which are the muscles located at the back of the shoulders.
Overall, Timothy completed a chest fly and a reverse fly exercise.
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A LOT OF POINTS!! i nead a 15 to 20 slides on hiv and it should include most of these qoustans
What is the definition of a pandemic?
How does a pandemic differ from an endemic or epidemic?
What is the life cycle of the HIV virus once it enters the body? How does the genetic code of the virus change?
How does HIV affect the body?
How do people become infected with HIV?
How does AIDS develop from an HIV infection?
What are the current infection rates of HIV across the globe?
Where is HIV/AIDS most prevalent?
What treatments are currently available for HIV/AIDS?
Do some regions of the world have better access to treatments than others?
What is the average life expectancy for someone with HIV? Does life expectancy differ around the globe?
Answer:
hm i can get a friend who can help
Explanation: