The quarterly quality-control cost allocated to the Dragon product line under Whitman's traditional-costing system can be calculated as 40% of the direct labor cost, which is $876,000 x 40% = $350,400.
The quarterly quality-control cost allocated to the Dragon product line if activity-based costing is used can be calculated as follows:
- Incoming material inspection cost: 21.6 parts x $8.60 per part = $185.76
- In-process inspection cost: 29,600 units x $0.28 per unit = $8,288
- Final product certification cost: 106 orders x $131.00 per order = $13,886
Total quality-control cost = $185.76 + $8,288 + $13,886 = $22,359.76
The traditional approach under costs the product line because it only considers the direct labor cost as the cost driver for quality-control costs. The activity-based costing approach considers more cost drivers and is, therefore, more accurate. The amount by which the traditional approach under costs the product line can be calculated as the difference between the quality-control cost allocated under the two approaches, which is $22,359.76 - $350,400 = -$328,040.24.
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What are the safety risks associated with using the Internet? Check all that apply.
encountering inappropriate content
finding incorrect information
getting a computer virus
having your identity stolen
talking privately with your friends
Answer:
A) Encountering inappropriate content.
C) Getting a computer virus.
D) Having your identity stolen.
The safety risks associated with using the Internet are encountering inappropriate content, getting a computer virus, and having your identity stolen.
With its limitless access to information, the Internet is both a useful tool and a potential threat to safety and security. It's crucial to keep an eye on what a youngster sees, hears, shares, or could be exposed to.
Privacy settings can restrict who can view your child's personal information, such as their name, age, and residence. However, if your child adds someone as a "friend," that person will have access to your child's private information, including, in the case of some devices, their GPS position.
Therefore, the following statements are:
Encountering inappropriate content.Getting a computer virus.Having your identity stolen.To know more about the safety risks, visit:
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16. Pass Journal entries to rectify the following errors:
(i) Credit sale to Ram 170 credited to his account as 710.
(ii) Credit purchase from Shyam 229 recorded as 292.
(iii) Sales Book was undercast by 200.
(iv) A credit purchase of goods of 2,100 from Sohan posted as 1,200.
(V) Returns Inward Day Book had been cast 100 short.
Answer:
1. Dr Ram Account 540
Cr Suspense Account 540
2. Dr Shyam Account 63
Cr Purchase Account 63
3. Dr Suspense Account 200
Cr Sales Account 200
4. Dr Purchase Account 900
Cr Suspense Account 900
5. Dr Returns Inward Account 100
Cr Suspense Account 100
Explanation:
Preparation of the Journal entries to rectify the following errors:
(i) Credit sale to Ram 170 credited to his account as 710.
Dr Ram Account 540
Cr Suspense Account 540
(710-160)
(Being to record the credit sale to Ram 170 credited to his account as 710 now rectified)
(ii) Credit purchase from Shyam 229 recorded as 292.
Dr Shyam Account 63
Cr Purchase Account 63
(292-229)
(Being to record Credit purchase from Shyam 229 recorded as 292 now rectified)
(iii) Sales Book was undercast by 200
Dr Suspense Account 200
Cr Sales Account 200
(Being to record Sales Book undercast by 200 now rectified)
(iv) A credit purchase of goods of 2,100 from Sohan posted as 1,200.
Dr Purchase Account 900
Cr Suspense Account 900
(2,100-1,200)
(Being to record credit purchase of goods of 2,100 from Sohan posted as 1,200 now rectified)
(V) Returns Inward Day Book had been cast 100 short.
Dr Returns Inward Account 100
Cr Suspense Account 100
(Being to record Returns Inward Day Book that had been cast 100 short now rectified)
1. Ram Account 540 (710 - 170)
To Suspense Account 540
2. Shyam Account 63 (292 -229)
To Purchase Account 63
3. Suspense Account 200
To Sales Account 200
4. Purchase Account 900 (2,100 - 1,200)
To Suspense Account 900
5. Returns Inward Account 100
To Suspense Account 100
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According to a 2018 article in Esquire magazine, approximately 70% of males over age will develop cancerous cells in their prostate. Prostate cancer is second only to skin cancer as the most common form of cancer for males in the United States. One of the most common tests for the detection of prostate cancer is the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test. However, this test is known to have a high false-positive rate (tests that come back positive for cancer when no cancer is present). Suppose there is a 0.02 probability that a male patient has prostate cancer before testing. The probability of a false-positive test is 0.75, and the probability of a false-negative (no indication of cancer when cancer is actually present) is 0.20.
Let C = event male patient has prostate cancer
+ = positive PSA test for prostate cancer
- = negative PSA test for prostate cancer
a. What is the probability that the male patient has prostate cancer if the PSA test comes back positive (to 4 decimals)?
0.0214 [I did this part correctly but I had trouble finding the other parts, they kept marking them incorrectly]
b. What is the probability that the male patient has prostate cancer if the PSA test comes back negative (to 4 decimals)?
c. For older men, the prior probability of having cancer increases. Suppose that the prior probability of the male patient is 0.3 rather than 0.02. What is the probability that the male patient has prostate cancer if the PSA test comes back positive (to 4 decimals)?
d. What is the probability that the male patient has prostate cancer if the PSA test comes back negative (to 4 decimals)?
Answer:
a) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+) = 0.0213
b) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-) = 0.0161
c) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+) = 0.3137
d) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-) = 0.2553
Explanation:
Probability male patient has prostate cancer, P(C) = 0.02
Probability male patient does not have prostrate cancer P(C') = 1 - 0.02 = 0.98
Probability of a positive test given there is no cancer, i.e. P(false positive) = P(+|C') = 0.75
P(negative test given there is cancer) = P(false negative) = P(-|C) = 0.2
P(negative test given there is no cancer) is the complement of P(+|C') = P(-|C') = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25
Probability of positive test given there is prostrate cancer, P(+|C) is the complement of P(-|C), = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.
a) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+)
According to Baye's theorem, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)
For P(+), we use the Law Of Total Probability: P(+) = P(+|C)P(C) + P(+|C')P(C')
P(+) = (0.8 * 0.02) + (0.75 * 0.98) = 0.751
Therefore, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)
P(C|+) = (0.8 * 0.02)/0.751 = 0.0213
b) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-)
According to Baye's theorem, P(C|-) = P(-|C)P(C)/P(-)
P(-) = P(-|C)P(C) + P(-|C')P(C')
P(-) = (0.2 * 0.02) + (0.25 * 0.98) = 0.249
Therefore, P(C|-) = (0.2 * 0.02)/0.249
P(C|-) = 0.0161
Part 2: Given the following;
Probability male patient has prostate cancer, P(C) = 0.3
Probability male patient does not have prostrate cancer P(C') = 1 - 0.3 = 0.70
Probability of a positive test given there is no cancer, i.e. P(false positive) = P(+|C') = = 0.75
P(negative test given there is cancer) = P(false negative) = P(-|C) = 0.2
P(negative test given there is no cancer) is the complement of P(+|C') = P(-|C') = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25
Probability of positive test given there is prostrate cancer, P(+|C) is the complement of P(-|C), = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.
c) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+)
According to Baye's theorem, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)
For P(+), we use the Law Of Total Probability: P(+) = P(+|C)P(C) + P(+|C')P(C')
P(+) = (0.8 * 0.3) + (0.75 * 0.7) = 0.751
Therefore, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)
P(C|+) = (0.8 * 0.3)/0.765 = 0.3137
d) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-)
According to Baye's theorem, P(C|-) = P(-|C)P(C)/P(-)
P(-) = P(-|C)P(C) + P(-|C')P(C')
P(-) = (0.2 * 0.3) + (0.25 * 0.7) = 0.235
Therefore, P(C|-) = (0.2 * 0.3)/0.235
P(C|-) = 0.2553
Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that can be detected by the PSA test. The probability of prostate cancer given a positive test is 0.0213 and 0.3137.
What is PSA?Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is a diagnostic test that screens for prostate cancer and is a blood test.
Given,
Probability of prostate cancer P(C) = 0.02
Probability of absence of prostate cancer P(C') = 0.98
Probability of false positive P(+|C') = 0.75
Probability of false negative P(-|C) = 0.2
Probability of absence of cancer in negative test = 0.25
Probability of presence of cancer in positive test = 0.8
The probability of the male patient suffering from prostate cancer in case of a PSA reading of 0.0214 is,
By Baye's theorem:
\(\begin{aligned} \rm P(C|+) &= \rm \dfrac{ P(+|C)P(C)}{P(+)}\\\\\rm P(+) &= (0.8 \times 0.02) + (0.75 \times 0.98)\\\\&= \dfrac{(0.8 \times 0.02)}{0.751} \\\\&= 0.0213\end{aligned}\)
The probability of cancer given a negative test P(C|-) is calculated as:
\(\begin{aligned} \rm P(-) &= \rm P(-|C)P(C) + P(-|C')P(C')\\\\\rm P(C|-) &= \dfrac{(0.2 \times 0.02)}{0.249}\\\\&= 0.0161\end{aligned}\)
For the next part, the probability of prostate cancer given a positive test P(C|+) is calculated as:
\(\begin{aligned} \rm P(C|+) &= \rm \dfrac{P(+|C)P(C)}{P(+)}\\\\\rm P(C|+) &= \dfrac{(0.8 \times 0.3)}{0.765} \\\\&= 0.3137\end{aligned}\)
The probability of cancer given a negative test P(C|-) is calculated as:
\(\begin{aligned} \rm P(-) &= \rm P(-|C)P(C) + P(-|C')P(C')\\\\\rm P(C|-) &= \dfrac{(0.2 \times 0.3)}{0.235}\\\\& = 0.2553\end{aligned}\)
Therefore, the probability of prostate cancer with a positive test is 0.0213.
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An office that dispenses automotive license plates has divided its customers into categories to level the office workload. Customers arrival can be modelled as 3 independent arrival streams using exponential interarrival distribution with mean 10 minutes each stream.eaxh customer accept payment with separate queue for each. The service time is UNIF (8,10) minutes for all customer types. After completion of this step the clerk serves all 3 customer types who merge into single first come first serve queue for this clerk. Suppose we need to use decide module for branching the parts according to their type before being disposed after the second customer 2:34 PM A. 3 way by chance with 33.33% with first true line connected to customer type 1 Dispose, second true line connected to customer type 2 Dispose B. 3 way by condition based on entity type match where customer 1 is connected from first true line to customer type 1 Dispose C. 3 way by chance with 40% with first true line connected to customer type 1 Dispose second true line connected to customer type 2 Dispose D. 2 way by condition if arrival time is equal to arrival time to the system
The exact details of the condition and disposal processes would need to be defined based on the specific requirements and characteristics of the system being modeled.
Based on the information provided, the appropriate decision module for branching the parts according to their type before being disposed after the second customer at 2:34 PM would be:
B. 3 way by condition based on entity type match where customer 1 is connected from the first true line to customer type 1 Dispose.
In this scenario, the decision module is based on the condition of the entity type match. Each customer type is assigned a specific condition, and the decision is made based on which condition is true for the respective customer.
Here's how the decision module would be implemented:
The first true line will be connected to the condition for customer type 1. If the entity type of the first customer matches customer type 1, this condition will be true.
The second true line will be connected to the condition for customer type 2. If the entity type of the first customer matches customer type 2, this condition will be true.
The third true line will be connected to the condition for customer type 3. If the entity type of the first customer matches customer type 3, this condition will be true.
Based on the condition that is true, the respective customer type will be directed to the corresponding disposal process.
It is important to note that the specific conditions for each customer type and the corresponding disposal processes are not provided in the given information. Therefore, the exact details of the condition and disposal processes would need to be defined based on the specific requirements and characteristics of the system being modeled.
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what is the difference between internal and external growth? Please explain?
Which of the following functions would be implied authority for an apartment manager?
selling the apartment complex
selling the apartments' appliances
collecting rent from the tenants
All of the above would be included in implied authority.
The functions would be Implied authority for an apartment manager is collecting rent from the tenants.
According to the Implied authority, it is an authority that is not express or written into a contract, but it is authority an agent is assumed to have in order to transact the business for a principal.
Each partner in a business has the Implied authority to act in the name of the company. The implied authority of a partner to bind the firm conferred by this section.
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Suppose an economy employs labour and capital to produce output. Assume that an exogenous shock increases the price of labour in the economy, other thing being constant. a. (8 points) Use the aggregate demand and supply model to illustrate and examine the impact of the labour-market shock on output and the price level in both the short run and the long run.
b. (8 points) If the central bank cares about keeping output at their natural-rate levels, what is the policy response of the central bank? What is the impact of policy response on the price level? Use the aggregate demand and supply model to explain your answer.
Please illustrate your answers using figures with aggregate demand and supply curves. Please also briefly explain the answers in words
a. An exogenous shock that increases the price of labor in the economy would shift the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to the left, leading to a decrease in output and an increase in the price level. In the long run, wages and prices adjust to the new equilibrium, and the economy returns to its potential output level. However, the price level remains higher than before the shock.
b. To keep output at its natural rate level, the central bank would need to increase aggregate demand by lowering interest rates, which shifts the AD curve to the right. This policy response can bring output back to its potential level, but it would also lead to a further increase in the price level in the short run due to the initial shock. In the long run, the impact on the price level is uncertain, as it depends on the degree to which the central bank's policy affects inflation expectations.
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3. Briefly explain the business significance of:
3.1 Market size growing by volume but staying static by value.
3.2 Rapid growth within one segment of a static market.
3.3 Becoming market leader, i.e. the brand with the largest market share.
Answer:
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read this and tell me if u understood it lol
The demand for cattle and an increase in railroad construction across the u. S. Contributed most directly to –.
The amount of land available for ranching in West Texas decreased due to the demand for cattle and a rise in railroad development across the United States.
What exactly do you mean by "Texas ranching"?Texas has 248,800 farms and ranches totaling 130.2 million acres, making it the state with the highest production of beef cattle in the nation. Cattle ranching contributes to Texas's culture as well as its economy.
What type of ranching is the most successful?The most profitable and straightforward animal to raise for profit is typically cattle. Simply having adequate pasture, extra hay during the winter, fresh water, immunizations, and lots of space to wander are all that beef cattle need.
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seedbed preparation
activities
1.cleared the area
Morning light does not enter the swamp. Even the sunrise is dark. Still, time progresses, night into day
A picture of bayou country is deceiving Slow streams converge under mud to make the appearance of land that is actually water. One net of moss hangs from one hundred trees. Lightning strikes the
same stump many times.
People pass the swamp's fringes in trains, on tracks that cling to the last solid ground. Out of their windows are landscapes that take the earth's colors to every periphery, Bright orange sunsets
surround people like sky on an airplane. On gray foggy mornings they ride through a dream that has no beginning or end. But time has its limits, these people know. They are expected places--Memphis
by midnight, New Orleans by dawn
Deep in the swamp, animals keep the only appointments Birds gather at high places in trees. Raccoons make their last noisy passes for food across someone's back porch before he awakes. Fish all
around splash up, although they cannot see the morning coming to clean the picture of day like clothes bleaching in a galvanized tub from dark gray to light gray
Joan looked out from the porch to the swamp she had known all her life. Ahead of her in the veiled light were the outlines of many trees. Below and around her were the crisp sounds of nature
awakening Cupped in both hands, perched on her knees was a warm mug of coffee.
Which of the following can the reader infer from the passage above?
O Travelers sleep throughout the journey.
O The ride is for airplane passengers to see the sky.
O Travelers lose their sense of the outside world.
Answer:
Travelers lose their sense of the outside world.
Explanation:
Study Island
What is the danger of having a lot of debt?
(brainlyest)
Answer:
probably not paying it off in time or something
Explanation:
what does income summary mean when closing entries?
Answer: The income summary is a temporary account used to make closing entries. All temporary accounts must be reset to zero at the end of the accounting period. The income summary account then transfers the net balance of all the temporary accounts to retained earnings, which is a permanent account on the balance sheet.
All of these are true for parasympathetic neurons, except a. part of the autonomic nervous system b. usually cause excitation of an organ c. found entirely outside of CNS d. part of peripheral nervous system
The statement that is not true for parasympathetic neurons is: b. usually cause excitation of an organ. So, the correct option is b.
Parasympathetic neurons are indeed part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) (option a). They are responsible for regulating the body's involuntary functions and work in conjunction with the sympathetic neurons to maintain homeostasis. The ANS controls various physiological processes such as heart rate, digestion, and glandular secretions.
However, the statement that parasympathetic neurons usually cause excitation of an organ (option b) is incorrect. Parasympathetic neurons generally have an inhibitory effect on organs rather than causing excitation. When parasympathetic neurons are activated, they tend to decrease heart rate, constrict blood vessels, and promote rest and digestion.
Regarding option c, parasympathetic neurons are not found entirely outside the central nervous system (CNS). While the cell bodies of parasympathetic neurons are located outside the CNS, in ganglia close to the target organs, their axons extend from the CNS to these ganglia and then innervate the organs.
Lastly, parasympathetic neurons are indeed part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) (option d). The PNS consists of nerves and ganglia located outside the CNS, and both parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons are components of the PNS.
In summary, the statement that is not true for parasympathetic neurons is option b, as they usually cause inhibition rather than excitation of an organ.
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what is the correct order of the top 3 factors venture capitalists look at when evaluating a candidate for investment?
The correct order of the top 3 factors venture capitalists look at when evaluating a candidate for investment is the following:
Market size and growth potential , Product and market fit , Team and leadership In the process of evaluating a candidate for investment, venture capitalists usually look at a variety of factors to determine whether the opportunity is worth investing in.
However, there are some factors that are considered more important than others.The top 3 factors venture capitalists look at when evaluating a candidate for investment are the following:
1. Market size and growth potential: This is the most important factor that venture capitalists consider when evaluating a candidate for investment. They look for companies that have a large market size and a high potential for growth. This means that the company should be targeting a large and growing market with a product or service that has a significant competitive advantage.
2. Product and market fit : The second factor that venture capitalists consider is whether the company has a product or service that meets the needs of the market. They look for companies that have a strong product-market fit, which means that the product or service is in high demand and there is a clear need for it in the market.
3. Team and leadership:The third factor that venture capitalists consider is the team and leadership of the company. They look for companies that have a strong and experienced team with a track record of success. The team should have the ability to execute on the company's vision and strategy, and should be able to navigate the challenges of building a successful business.
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Market size, team and product or service are the factors venture capitalists look at when evaluating a candidate for investment.
When evaluating a candidate for investment, venture capitalists look at several factors. The order of importance may vary depending on the individual VC and the nature of the investment.
Here are the top 3 factors venture capitalists look at when evaluating a candidate for investment:
Market size is the first factor venture capitalists look at when evaluating a candidate for investment. They want to know that there is a large enough market for the product or service the company is offering. If the market is too small, the chances of the company being successful are greatly reduced. The VC wants to know that there is a large enough addressable market to make the investment worth it.
The second factor is the team. Venture capitalists want to know that they are investing in a team that can execute on their vision. The team should have a track record of success, relevant industry experience, and complementary skills. The VC wants to know that the team is capable of building and scaling the company.
Lastly, venture capitalists look at the product or service itself. They want to see that the product or service is innovative and has a competitive advantage in the market. They want to know that the product or service is solving a real problem for customers and that customers are willing to pay for it. The VC will also look at the stage of the company and the traction it has achieved so far.
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Suppose that investment (I) and consumption (C) in the goods market is not responsive to the interest rate. Then
A.• The IS curve is a horizontal line and monetary policy is effective in raising output.
B.• The IS curve is a vertical line and monetary policy is effective in raising output.
•C/ The IS curve is a horizontal line and monetary policy does not affect output in the IS-LM model.
• D. The IS curve is a vertical line and monetary policy does not affect output in the IS-LM model.
If both investment (I) and consumption (C) in the goods market are not responsive to the interest rate, then the IS curve would be a horizontal line. In this case, monetary policy would be effective in raising output, as shown in option A. However, it is important to note that this scenario is not very realistic, as most investment and consumption decisions are influenced by interest rates.
If the IS curve were a vertical line, as in option B, it would mean that investment and consumption are completely responsive to interest rates, and monetary policy would not be effective in raising output. This scenario is also unlikely, as investment and consumption decisions are affected by various other factors besides interest rates.
Option C and D are incorrect because they suggest that the IS curve is either horizontal or vertical, but they differ in their assessment of whether monetary policy is effective. However, in reality, the slope of the IS curve depends on the responsiveness of investment and consumption to interest rates, and this determines whether monetary policy is effective or not.
D. The IS curve is a vertical line and monetary policy does not affect output in the IS-LM model.
When investment (I) and consumption (C) are not responsive to the interest rate, it means changes in the interest rate do not affect the overall demand for goods. In this situation, the IS curve, which represents equilibrium in the goods market, becomes a vertical line. This is because the output level stays the same regardless of the interest rate. Since the IS curve is vertical, changes in monetary policy, such as adjusting interest rates, will not have an impact on the output level in the IS-LM model.
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Which of the following statements can correctly be made about illness?
there is no option can you tell option so I can help
In the mpc process, determination of the end-item (finished product) production schedule (mps) is most likely to occur in which time horizon?
Determining the final product production schedule (MPS) in the MPC process is most likely to happen in the short to medium term.
The determination of the finished product (MPS) schedule in the MPC (Manufacturing Planning and Control) process is more likely to happen in the short to medium term.
MPS typically covers a period of weeks to months, depending on the nature of the industry and specific production requirements. It serves as the intermediary step between the master production plan and the detailed plan of individual work orders or jobs.
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the table contains the supply and demand schedule for bluefin tuna. suppose all countries agree to limit tuna fishing to a total of 15,000 tons per year through a strictly enforced licensing program for fishermen. price per pound quantity demanded (tons) quantity supplied(tons) $11.80 12,000 27,000 $11.35 15,000 24,000 $10.90 18,000 21,000 $10.45 21,000 18,000 $10.00 24,000 15,000 $9.55 27,000 12,000 at the new fishing quota, what is the quota rent per pound of bluefin tuna? $ suppose the average fisherman can catch 200,000 pounds of bluefin tuna every year ( 100 tons). what is the value of a bluefin tuna fishing license? $
We must first establish the demand equilibrium price under the new quota in order to calculate the rent per pound of bluefin tuna. Thus, a bluefin tuna fishing license is worth $90,000.
According to the table, the quantity given at a price of $10.00 per pound is equivalent to the quantity sought at a total fishing limit of 15,000 tons. As a result, under the new quota, the equilibrium price is $10.00 per pound.
In order to provide the fish, we must discover the difference between the equilibrium price and the minimal supply price. In this instance, 27,000 tons of tuna may be provided for the minimum supply price of $9.55 per pound. Thus, the price of the quota per pound of bluefin tuna is:
Quota Rent = Equilibrium Price - Minimum Supply Price
Quota Rent = $10.00 - $9.55
Quota Rent = $0.45 per pound
Value of Fishing License = Quota Rent per Pound x Amount of Tuna per License
Value of Fishing License = $0.45 x 200,000
Value of Fishing License = $90,000
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Correct Question:
The table contains the supply and demand schedule for bluefin tuna. suppose all countries agree to limit tuna fishing to a total of 15,000 tons per year through a strictly enforced licensing program for fishermen. price per pound quantity demanded (tons) quantity supplied(tons) $11.80 12,000 27,000 $11.35 15,000 24,000 $10.90 18,000 21,000 $10.45 21,000 18,000 $10.00 24,000 15,000 $9.55 27,000 12,000 at the new fishing quota, what is the quota rent per pound of bluefin tuna? $ suppose the average fisherman can catch 200,000 pounds of bluefin tuna every year ( 100 tons). what is the value of a bluefin tuna fishing license? $
Which of the following choices incur speculative risk?
a.stocks
b.fire insurance on a house
c.options
d.life insurance
e.high interest savings account
Answer: correct option is A.
Explanation: A speculative risk can be defined as risk that is taken willingly either it results in profit or loss and the stocks involve in probability of gain and loss making it a speculative risk.
Stocks incur speculative risk. Therefore option A is correct.
What are Stocks?A stock usually referred to as equity, is a type of investment that denotes ownership in a portion of the issuing company. Shares, also known as units of stock, entitle their owners to a share of the company's assets and income in proportion to the number of shares they possess.
Common stock and preferred stock are the two primary categories of stocks.
Owners of common stock are entitled to dividends and the right to vote at shareholder meetings.
Common stockholders often do not have voting rights, while preferred stockholders typically get dividend payments ahead of time and are given preference over common investors in the event of a firm bankruptcy and asset liquidation.
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which of the following is used by organizations to measure customer response by allowing them to express their degree of opinion?
Direct Criticism and Consumer loyalty. Using a survey to find out how satisfied your customers are the simplest way to provide them with the assistance they need. When it comes to gathering information about the aforementioned customer satisfaction metrics, surveys are a useful tool.
What does customer satisfaction entail?
A measure of how satisfied customers are with a business's products, services, and capabilities is known as customer satisfaction. A company can use information about customer satisfaction, such as ratings and surveys, to figure out how to make its products and services better or change them.
Why is customer satisfaction so significant?
Consumer loyalty (CSAT) is a proportion of how well an organization's items, administrations, and by and large client experience meet client assumptions.By demonstrating how well your products or services resonate with customers, it demonstrates the health of your business.
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B. Reviewing Key Terms
Complete each sentence by writing the correct term in the blank.
15. When a bank borrows money from another bank, the interest rate it pays is called the
16. Ownership of more than one bank constitutes a
17. When a bank customer writes a check, the check will go through the process of
M
18. A bank's total assets minus its total liabilities make up its
19. Banks repay loans from the Federal Reserve at a rate of interest called the
The correct terms for the sentences in question are as follows:
15. When a bank borrows money from another bank, the interest rate it pays is called the Overnight rate.
16. Ownership of more than one bank constitutes a Bank Holding company.
17. When a bank customer writes a check, the check will go through the process of check clearing.
18. A bank's total assets minus its total liabilities make up its net worth.
19. Banks repay loans from the Federal Reserve at a rate of interest called the Federal`s funds rate.
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The personal needs, the culture, and the family of an individual influence his or her ethical choices.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Ethical choices of an individua are an outcome of the social, cultural and regional exposure of the individual. Some part of the behavior and thoughts of an individual are sharped according of the ethnicity and culture. The values are enhanced and they are formed as a result of the choices made by the individual and the community. The result of the behavior, attitudes, choices and preferences of the individua are the outcome of the values formed by the person. Ethical choices are made upon the level of ethnic intensity.
An in-store computer used to apply for a job is called:
an online application.
a paper application.
an automated interviewer.
a hiring kiosk.
Answer:
a hiring kiosk.
Who watches Riverdale ? if you do can we be friends(pLEASE DON'T DELETE) and also who is your fav character from Riverdale
Answer:veronica
Explanation:
sure
Answer:
yes i love riverdale my fav character is cheryl or betty
Explanation:
Selling shares of stock to anyone allows a _________ to raise more money to grow.
Selling shares of stock to anyone allows companies to raise more money to grow. Investors that trade funds for these units to reflect equity ownership in companies or financial asset are owners of shares. Owners of corporation have option of issuing preferred shares or common stock to investors.
In exchange for funds required to expand and run business, companies issue equity shares to investors. From LLCs to large international companies, almost all the businesses issue shares of some type. A company's shares are referred to as being publicly traded once they are listed on a stock exchange following an IPO.
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identify ten entrepreneur and classify them under the types of entrepreneur
Answer: There are only five types of entrepenuer...
1. Skeptical entreprenuer: Sees the success of others and questions it.
2. Copycat entreprenuer: Sees the success of others and copys them exactly.
3. Research entrepreneur: They research every possible scenario and outcome for strategies to start or grow a business...
4. The determined entrepreneur: - hasn't made it yet- but will.
5. The accolmplished entrepreneur: Has gone through all types of entrepreneur and has built success from it.
Explanation: Hope this helps!
What are some factors that would influence supply? Explain
Answer:
6 Factors Affecting the Supply of a Commodity (Individual Supply) |
Price of the given Commodity: ADVERTISEMENTS: ...
Prices of Other Goods: ...
Prices of Factors of Production (inputs): ...
State of Technology: ...
Government Policy (Taxation Policy): ...
Goals / Objectives of the firm:
Explanation:
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debit balance with binod rs.50000
Answer:
what?
Explanation:
Which of the following are basic assumptions that justify an analysis of the costs of quality?
A. Failures are caused
B. Prevention is more expensive
C. Performance can be learned
D. Rules of thumb don't always work
E. Appraisal costs are less than prevention costs
The basic assumption that justifies an analysis of the costs of quality is that prevention is more expensive than correction. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
This means that investing in quality control measures and processes can help to prevent defects and errors, which is more cost-effective than correcting these issues after they have occurred.
By investing in quality control, businesses can avoid the costs associated with waste, rework, and customer dissatisfaction, which can be significant. The other assumptions listed are not necessarily related to the analysis of the costs of quality.
Failures may be caused by a variety of factors, and identifying these causes is important for implementing effective quality control measures. Performance can be learned, but this is not directly related to the costs of quality.
Rules of thumb may be helpful in certain situations, but a more detailed analysis of the costs and benefits of different quality control measures is needed for effective decision-making. Finally, appraisal costs may be less than prevention costs, but the key assumption is that prevention is more expensive than correction.
In summary, the basic assumption that justifies an analysis of the costs of quality is that prevention is more expensive than correction. This means that investing in quality control measures and processes can help to prevent defects and errors, which is more cost-effective than correcting these issues after they have occurred. Thus, option B is correct.
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