Answers
Elimination of responses to non-life-threatening emergency calls is not a benefit provided by either enhanced 911 or enhanced cad systems that utilize mobile digital terminals (mdts)
While there are a few exceptional circumstances in which mitigation may not be possible and organizations may only be able to provide palliative care after an emergency, most emergencies necessitate urgent response to prevent a deterioration of the condition.
Many less severe situations necessitate a determination of whether they qualify as an emergency by the observer (or affected party). This is not always the case, even when certain emergencies are obvious (like a natural disaster that poses a serious threat to many people). Depending on the jurisdiction, the government, whose agencies (emergency services) are in charge of emergency planning and management, typically sets the specific definition of an emergency, the agencies engaged, and the procedures utilized.
The complete question is:
Enhanced 911 or enhanced CAD utilizes mobile digital terminals (MDTs). Which of the following is not a benefit provided by these systems?
a. direct interface between the patrol unit and local, county, state, and federal criminal justice information system computers
b. dramatic increase in response time
c. elimination of responses to non-life-threatening emergency calls
d. better coordination of all emergency agencies, since their movements can be monitored visually by both officers at the scene and dispatchers
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Related Questions
Which of the following statements is true?
It was the Greek philosopher Aristotle who first defined psychology as the “scientific study of behavior and mental processes.”
In contemporary psychology, the nature–nurture issue explores the influence of hereditary versus environmental factors on behavior.
The mind-body issue has now been settled and psychologists no longer explore the relationship between mental activity and the brain.
The principle of interactive dualism was formulated by Aristotle more than 2,000 years ago.Which of the following statements is true?
Answers
Answer:
It was the Greek philosopher Aristotle who first defined psychology as the “scientific study of behavior and mental processes.”
A hospital determines that a large number of slips
Answers
Answer:
B: lighting hallways and patient rooms better
Explanation:
EDGE
Vitamin-_______ derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling cell growth and DNA synthesis.
A.) C
b.) K
c.) B
d.) D
Answers
Answer: c. B
Explanation:
Vitamin B derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling DNA synthesis.
Answer:
C)B
Explanation:
Vitamin-___B____ derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling cell growth and DNA synthesis.
A pregnant woman visits her obstetrician for a 32 week check-up. The doctor notes a uterus that is measuring greater than 32 weeks gestation and believes that she has an excessive amount of amniotic fluid. You would expect to see which of the following diagnoses in her medical record?
A. Kernicterus
B. Eclampsia
C. Hyperemesis
D. Polyhydramnios
E. Oligohydraminos
Answers
The women with excessive amount of amniotic fluid is diagnosed with polyhydramnios. The correct option to this question is D.
In cases of polyhydramnios, the amniotic sac around the foetus is overfilled. Your unborn child's womb is filled with amniotic fluid. A checkup in the later stages of pregnancy usually reveals an excessive amount of amniotic fluid.
In one to two percent of pregnancies, polyhydramnios develops. Since amniotic fluid gradually accumulates throughout the second half of pregnancy, the majority of polyhydramnios cases are moderate. Breathlessness, premature labour, as well as other signs and symptoms of severe polyhydramnios, may occur.
The risk of polyhydramnios increases if the infant does not consume and absorb the amniotic fluid in the recommended levels. When a newborn has certain medical conditions, such as: Diaphragmatic hernia, gastroschisis, and other gastrointestinal problems such duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia
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Selection of assessment tools is largely determined by the patient’s symptoms, age, and medical status. One other factor may be the.
Answers
Selection of assessment tools is largely determined by the patient’s symptoms, age, and medical status. One other factor may be the therapist's theoretical perspective.
Therapist's theoretical perspective- In counseling, theoretical orientation fundamentally refers to the ideas or viewpoints a mental health practitioner employs to evaluate, comprehend, and treat clients. Theoretical orientation refers to any theory that what a mental health professional utilizes to direct their practice.
Symptoms- A doctor can't see a patient's symptoms, which are their subjective perceptions of a potential health problem. Examples include pains in the stomach after consuming undercooked meat, a pounding headache caused by stress, or an excruciating sense of exhaustion.
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Health promotion differs from health education in that it: is systemic and planned is a scientific approach. encourages voluntary behavior change. forces behavior change.
Answers
Health promotion differs from health education in that it encourages voluntary behavior change.
Health promotion is an approach aimed at improving the overall health of the population. Health promotion focuses on more than just disease prevention and treatment; it includes all activities and practices that promote good health, prevent illness and injury, and enhance the overall quality of life. Health promotion strategies and interventions are designed to help people make positive changes in their lives that will lead to better health. Examples include education on healthy lifestyle behaviors, such as eating a balanced diet, getting regular exercise, and reducing stress. It may also include campaigns to promote healthy behaviors, like smoking cessation, seat belt use, and vaccination.
Health education is defined as the process of providing individuals, communities, and populations with information on health-related topics, including disease prevention, health promotion, and disease management. Health education programs are designed to provide people with the knowledge, skills, and resources they need to make informed decisions about their health and well-being. Examples include classes on healthy eating habits, seminars on stress reduction techniques, and workshops on effective communication strategies.
Health promotion differs from health education in that it encourages voluntary behavior change. Health promotion aims to empower people to take charge of their health and make positive changes in their lives. It recognizes that people are more likely to adopt healthy behaviors when they feel motivated and supported. Health education, on the other hand, is more focused on providing information about healthy behaviors. While health education can be a part of health promotion, it is not the same thing. Health promotion is a broader concept that includes a range of activities and strategies designed to improve health at the population level.
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1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.
Answers
1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
They do not necessarily have to be physicians, but they must have the expertise to assess subject safety.
2. FALSE. Any communication with study participants, including postcards, must be reviewed by the IRB to ensure it is ethical and does not coerce or unduly influence participants.
3. TRUE. A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB to avoid potential conflicts of interest.
4. TRUE. An expedited review can be conducted by a distinct member of the IRB if the proposed change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
5. The regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but more frequent reviews may be required depending on the level of risk involved in the study.
It is the responsibility of the IRB to determine the appropriate frequency of review based on the risks and benefits of the study.
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The nurse is to administer 1 g of cefazolin (ancef) in normal saline 50 ml over 45 minutes. At what rate should the nurse set the intravenous infusion pump if it runs in milliliters per hour?
Answers
The rate at which the nurse set the intravenous infusion pump if it runs in milliliters per hour is 150 ml/ 0.75 hour that is 150ml per 45 mins.
How is the infusion rate determined?The following equation can be used to determine how many hours the IV will need to finish before it runs out:
Volume (mL) Drip Rate (mL/hour) = Time (hours). The IV pump is set to 62 mL/hour and the fluid volume is 1000 mL.
How come the infusion rate effects?Ordered dose=1 gram in 50 ml
Time taken= 45 min so minutes to hour's = 45 hours = 0.75 hour that is divided by 60
so the infusion rate = total volume/time taken
infusion rate = 150 ml/ o.75
= 200ml/hr is the infusion rate to administer the medication.
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i need 4 characteristics of blood as a connective tissue
Answers
Which equation represents a line that is parallel to the line whose equation is 3x − 2y = 7? *
Answers
Answer:
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x - 5\)
Explanation:
Given
\(3x - 2y = 7\)
Required
Select the equation of a line, parallel to this
First, we make y the subject:
\(3x - 2y = 7\)
Subtract 3x from both sides
\(3x-3x - 2y = -3x+7\)
\(- 2y = -3x+7\)
Divide through by -2
\(\frac{- 2y}{-2} = \frac{-3x}{-2}+\frac{7}{-2}\)
\(y = \frac{-3x}{-2}+\frac{7}{-2}\)
\(y = \frac{3x}{2}-\frac{7}{2}\)
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x-\frac{7}{2}\)
The general form of an equation is:
\(y = mx + b\)
Where:
\(m = slope\)
So, we have:
\(m = \frac{3}{2}\)
For an equation to be parallel, the slope must also be:
\(m = \frac{3}{2}\)
From the list of given options (see attachment), only
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x - 5\)
has the same slope.
Hence:
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x - 5\) is parallel
Order: ABC 750 mg po. Stock: ABC 1500 mg po scored tablets. You would need to give 0.5 of a tablet.
● True
● False
Answers
Assuming they were both released in the same method (i.e. one wasn’t XR or IR).
Selecting Answerable Questions
What questions can be answered by looking in drug information resources? Check all that apply.
a. What is the best way to compound drugs?
b. What side effects can this drug cause?
c. What is this drug normally used for?
d. What dosage should be used for this drug?
e. Who should dispense the drug?
f. What other ingredients are in this drug?
Answers
Answer:
B. What side effects can this drug cause?
C. What is this drug normally used for?
D. What dosage should be used for this drug?
F. What other ingredients are in this drug?
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
which of the following is the least preferable way to refuse when someone offers you drugs at a patty?
Answers
Answer:
B."What? Drugs are illegal and you know it. If you ask me to try it again, I'll call the police."
Explanation:
Umm b/c u sound like a snitch if u say dis
A pharmacy technician would tell a patient about a contraindication if the patient is taking
nitroglycerin for angina.
warfarin along with aspirin.
a laxative to manage constipation.
an analgesic and anesthetic for acute pain.
Answers
Answer:
pharmacy
analgesic and aneSTHETIC
1. immediately after a patient has been intubated, the nurse assisting with the intubation auscultates over the epigastric area, noting air movement and gurgling. what are the most appropriate interventions?
Answers
The most appropriate interventions after hearing air movement and gurgling over the epigastric area immediately after a patient has been intubated include repositioning the endotracheal tube and suctioning.
The presence of air movement and gurgling over the epigastric area indicates that the endotracheal tube is not properly placed and may be in the esophagus instead of the trachea.
This can lead to inadequate ventilation and oxygenation, and can also cause aspiration of gastric contents. To address this, the nurse should first reposition the endotracheal tube by withdrawing it and advancing it while monitoring for proper placement using end-tidal CO2 monitoring or chest auscultation.
The nurse should also suction the patient's airway to remove any secretions or gastric contents that may have been aspirated. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications and ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation.
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PLEASSEEEEE HELPPP
Which of the following lists ALL the information required in the health care
facility's record when a biohazard bag leaves the building?
A. Landfill to which it's going, type of container, and staff signature
B. Type of container and number of containers
C. Date of disposal, landfill to which it's going, type of container, and
the number of containers
D. Date of disposal and staff signature
SUBNA
Answers
The lists ALL the information required in the health care facility's record when a biohazard bag leaves the building are Date of disposal, landfill to which it's going, type of container, and the number of containers.
So, the correct option is C.
What is a biohazard bag used for?The biohazard bag is used to disposal of solid or liquid items contaminated with blood or other infectious materials.
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Question 1
2 pts
You are allowed into the classroom only if you have antibodies for the virus. Choose all statements that are logically equivalent to the above statement. [More than one of the choices may qualify.]
✔You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom.
Having antibodies for the virus is a necessary but not necessarily sufficient condition for being allowed into the classroom.
✔If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus.
The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus.
Next ▸
Answers
The statement is logically equivalent to the following statements:
1. You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom.
2. If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus.
3. The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus.
The main answer consists of three statements that are logically equivalent to the given statement. Let's break down each statement to understand their logical equivalence.
Statement 1: "You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom."
This statement reflects the same condition as the original statement. It states that if a person does not have antibodies for the virus, they will not be allowed into the classroom. It directly correlates with the given condition, making it a logically equivalent statement.
Statement 2: "If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus."
This statement reverses the condition of the original statement. It asserts that if a person is allowed into the classroom, it implies that they must have antibodies for the virus. This reversal still maintains the logical equivalence because it establishes a direct relationship between being allowed into the classroom and having antibodies.
Statement 3: "The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus."
This statement employs negation to establish logical equivalence. It states that the combination of being allowed into the classroom and not having antibodies for the virus is false. In other words, if a person is allowed into the classroom, it means they must have antibodies for the virus. This negation aligns with the original statement and represents the same condition.
In summary, all three statements are logically equivalent to the given statement because they express the same condition in different forms, either directly or through negation.
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While making a family health visit, an older relative who is visiting has been drinking and becomes verbally abusive and increasingly loud. Which action by the community health nurse would be best?
A) Continue the visit with caution
B) Suggest the relative go in another room and take a nap
C) Ask the sober family members to take the visitor home
D) Terminate the visit, making plans for another visit
Answers
The best action for the community health nurse in this situation would be to ask the sober family members to take the verbally abusive and loud visitor home.
When dealing with a situation where an older relative becomes verbally abusive and disruptive due to alcohol consumption, it is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of everyone involved. Continuing the visit with caution may put the nurse and other family members at risk of verbal or physical harm. Suggesting the relative go to another room and take a nap might not address the underlying issue of the visitor's intoxication and inappropriate behavior. Terminating the visit and making plans for another visit allows for a resolution but does not necessarily address the immediate safety concerns.
By asking the sober family members to take the visitor home, the nurse ensures that the disruptive behavior is removed from the current environment. This action prioritizes the safety and comfort of the family members and allows for a calmer and more conducive visit. Once the situation is diffused, the nurse can discuss the incident with the family and offer appropriate resources or support to address any underlying concerns related to the relative's behavior and alcohol consumption.
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Grady has an inflamed knee from doing a lot of physical exercise the day before. He stops by the pharmacy to find a drug to relieve the inflammation and asks the pharmacist to recommend a drug. The pharmacist asks Grady if he has a history of peptic ulcers. Which best describes why the pharmacist needs to know this?
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-drug interaction by taking aspirin, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking aspirin, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-drug interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
Answers
Answer: So the pharmacist can prescribe him something that won't upset the stomach acids in his stomach the causes the ulcers
Explanation:
Answer: A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication
Explanation: I have a peptic ulcer
Signs and symptoms common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following except: Group of answer choices polyphagia. weight loss. polydipsia. polyuria.
Answers
This question is hard cause they are all both in type 1 and 2 .
when using anderson and mcfarlane's model to complete a community health assessment, a nurse would collect which information about the the community?
Answers
Anderson and McFarlane's model for community health assessment includes four components: community structure, population characteristics, health status, and health care resources. By collecting this information, a nurse can identify the health needs and concerns of the community and develop strategies to address them.
Community structure includes the size and location of the community, as well as its physical and social environment. Population characteristics focus on demographic data, such as age, gender, race/ethnicity, and socioeconomic status. Health status includes information on the incidence and prevalence of diseases, injuries, and health behaviors in the community. Health care resources include an assessment of the availability, accessibility, and quality of health care services in the community.
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Is it true that if a patient is injured through no fault of yours, you could still be sued for negligence?
Answers
Answer:
No
Explanation:
you cannot be sued if the patient is injured for no fault of yours. The only person who has not followed standard procedure can be sued
How many steps will be required to complete the application of these supplemental materials?
Answers
Answer:3
Explanation:
There are ten procedures for the liner and ten procedures for the varnish. The desensitizer has eight procedural phases are required for supplemental material.
What is supplementary material?Supplementary material is defined as anything important to your research or article but not mentioned in the paper itself.
This material can also be defined as peer-reviewed material directly related to a paper's conclusion but not included in the printed version.
Supplementary material is often defined as relevant content that is not included in the primary article and may include extra data.
There are seven types of supplementary material which we can use.
Skill development materialGrammarVocabularyPhonology practice materialCollection of communicative activitiesTeachers resourcesWeb materialsSupplemental materials can help teachers address apparent gaps in the mandated educational materials and offer educators new ways to encourage students.
Thus, there are ten procedures for the liner and ten procedures for the varnish. The desensitizer has eight procedural phases are required for supplemental material.
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In examining risk factors for developmental disabilities, genetic influences, chromosomal aberrations, and prenatal/perinatal problems that lead to brain changes are examples of:__________
Answers
In examining risk factors for developmental disabilities, genetic influences, chromosomal aberrations, and prenatal/perinatal problems that lead to brain changes are examples of biological risk factors.
Risk factors are the aspects of life that can increase the probability of a person having a disability. The factors might be environmental, genetic, or biological. Biological risk factors are due to the various problems that occur during fetal development or other genetic conditions. These factors might include:
Genetic influences: Genetic influences can play a part in developmental disabilities. For example, an abnormality or mutation in the DNA might lead to developmental disorders.
Chromosomal aberrations: The presence of extra chromosomes or missing chromosomes can cause developmental disabilities. For example, trisomy 21 causes Down syndrome.
Prenatal/ perinatal problems that lead to brain changes: Environmental factors such as poor nutrition, exposure to toxins, drug use, or lack of oxygen during birth can cause brain damage and developmental disabilities.
Other examples of biological risk factors that can cause developmental disabilities include maternal infections or health problems during pregnancy, premature birth, or low birth weight.
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Carafate 1 g p.o.
Identify the component missing in the order.
Answers
Answer: Frequency
Explanation:
Without frequency ex once daily; every 4 hrs, etc. You don't know when to give the med
while receiving nutrition through a gastric tube, the client complains of feeling full and nauseated. what should the nurse do at this point?
Answers
If a client receiving nutrition through a gastric tube complains of feeling full and nauseated, the nurse should take the following actions: Stop the feeding, Check the placement of the tube, Assess the client, Elevate the head of the bed, Administer medications as ordered and Notify the healthcare provider.
The following steps should be taken by the nurse if a client receiving nutrients through a gastric tube complains of feeling full and queasy:
Cease the feeding: In order to avoid more discomfort and aspiration, the nurse should cease the feeding right away.Make sure the tube is in the stomach and not the lungs, as this could lead to aspiration. The nurse should check the positioning of the tube.The nurse should evaluate the client's vital signs, level of consciousness, and other distressing signs and symptoms, such as stomach distention, vomiting, and diarrhoea.Elevate the head of the bed: To encourage stomach emptying and lower the risk of aspiration, the nurse should raise the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.In order to ease nausea and vomiting, the nurse may give patients antiemetic drugs as directed by a medical professional.For such more question on medications:
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The doctor orders 300mls of a drug to be given through a tube (intra-venous), over a period of 1 hour. The drug flows in drops. If 6 drops equal 1 ml, How many drops per minute per minute would be required to finish the drug in
exactly 1 hour?
A -10 drops
B -60 drops
C -30 drops
D -6 drops
Answers
30 drops would be required to finish the drug in exactly 1 hour.
What is Intra venous Tube?A medical procedure known as intravenous therapy, or IV therapy, involves injecting fluids, drugs, and nutrients straight into a patient's vein.
For persons who cannot or do not want to eat food or water orally for other reasons, such as diminished mental capacity, the intravenous route of administration is frequently utilized to rehydrate them or to feed them with nutrients.
Although attempts to deliver intravenous therapy have been documented as early as the 1400s, the practice did not catch on until the 1900s, when methods for its safe, efficient usage were developed.
Therefore, 30 drops would be required to finish the drug in exactly 1 hour.
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what is the common name for Proctalgia Fugax?
Answers
mr. williams like to fill his ace inhibitor medication. which one of these medications should you refill?
Answers
mr. williams like to fill his ace inhibitor medication enalapril is one of these medications should you refill.
What are medications used for?Medicines are chemicals or compounds used to cure, halt, or prevent disease; ease symptoms; or help in the diagnosis of illnesses. Advances in medicines have enabled doctors to cure many diseases and save lives.
Does drug mean medication?In pharmacology, a drug is a chemical substance, typically of known structure, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a biological effect. A pharmaceutical drug, also called a medication or medicine, is a chemical substance used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease or to promote well-being.
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what are the five stages of change as applied to exercise? provide examples of factors fitness professionals must consider in working with clients in each stage.
Answers
The five stages of change as applied to exercise are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.
1. Precontemplation: In this stage, the individual has no intention of exercising and may not be aware of the benefits of exercise. Fitness professionals must consider the client's lack of awareness and motivation and help them understand the importance of exercise. For example, the fitness professional may provide educational materials or engage the client in discussions about the benefits of exercise.
2. Contemplation: In this stage, the individual is aware of the benefits of exercise but is unsure about whether to start. Fitness professionals must consider the client's ambivalence and help them explore their reasons for wanting to exercise. For example, the fitness professional may ask the client to write down their reasons for wanting to exercise or provide examples of how exercise has helped others.
3. Preparation: In this stage, the individual is ready to start exercising and is making plans to do so. Fitness professionals must consider the client's readiness to change and help them set realistic goals. For example, the fitness professional may help the client create a workout plan or schedule.
4. Action: In this stage, the individual has started exercising and is making changes to their lifestyle. Fitness professionals must consider the client's progress and help them overcome obstacles. For example, the fitness professional may provide support and encouragement or help the client modify their workout routine to fit their schedule.
5. Maintenance: In this stage, the individual has made exercise a part of their regular routine and is committed to maintaining their progress. Fitness professionals must consider the client's long-term goals and help them stay motivated. For example, the fitness professional may provide ongoing support or help the client set new goals to continue their progress.
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