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The interventions that promote adherence to medication therapy in pediatric clients are
Suggesting that the parent mix oral drugs with juice, Taking extra time with parents to ensure skilled participation, Providing the parents with a calibrated spoon to measure liquid formulationsSelecting the most convent dosage form and dosing scheduleDrugs are delivered in lower but more frequent dosages to paediatric patients. Weight-based dosing in milligrammes, micrograms, or milliequivalents per kilogramme provides for significantly safer medication delivery. As part of your evaluation, ascertain your patient's weight.
Combine the drug with a little amount of juice or sweetened water (1 to 2 tablespoons). Give it to your youngster with a spoon or let him or her consume it. If your youngster does not drink much, do not put medicine in a full cup. Follow your child's doctor's, health care provider's, or pharmacist's recommendations. The purpose of MTM is to optimise a patient's therapeutic results while also detecting and preventing expensive medication-related side effects.
The complete question is:
Which intervention may promote adherence to drug therapy in pediatric clients? Select all that apply.
1. Multiple dosing2. Suggesting that the parent mix oral drugs with juice3. Taking extra time with parents to ensure skilled participation4. Providing the parents with a calibrated spoon to measure liquid formulations5. Selecting the most convenient dosage form and dosing scheduleTo learn more about medication therapy in pediatrics, here
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Related Questions
for the file 27 drugs and values find out which drug is the best drug. submit a pdf report with a detailed explanation of why you think so. this is a individual assignment.
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Mushroom is the safest and best drug in comparison to others in the list of the survey of Drug and Social Values, But Penicillin is the most used drug.
Just 0.2% of the over 12,000 users of psilocybin hallucinogenic mushrooms in 2016 reported needing emergency medical attention; this is a rate that is at least five times lower than that of MDMA, LSD, and cocaine. a consulting addiction psychiatrist and the creator of the Global Drug Survey pointing out that choosing the incorrect mushrooms and eating them posed a greater risk. While magic mushrooms are generally safe to use, there are some risks associated with their use, including accidental injury, panic attacks, short-lived confusion, disorientation, and fears of going crazy. These risks are increased when using magic mushrooms in combination with alcohol or in risky or unfamiliar environments. Flashbacks and panic attacks are both possible for some people.
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Sue has Type 1 diabetes, meaning she does not produce any insulin. Her parents give her 1 unit of insulin for every 15 grams of carbohydrate they feed her. Just before her afternoon snack of Cereal, Granola, Prepared (0.25 cups), how many units of insulin should they prepare to inject
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Answer:
1 unit.
Explanation:
According to nutrition information provided by the USDA, 0.25 cups of Granola contain roughly 14 grams of carbohydrates. Since Sue needs to take 1 unit of insulin for every 15 grams of carbohydrates, her parents should prepare to inject her with 1 whole unit for her afternoon snack.
You will get down vote if you copy the answer from other
questions or get it wrong
Which of the following codes is used for submitting claims for services provided by Hospitals billing Medicare? A. CPT B. ICD-CM OC. UMLS D. DRG
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The code that is used for submitting claims for services provided by hospitals billing Medicare is D. DRG.
DRG stands for Diagnosis-related group. This is a statistical system of classifying any inpatient stay into groups for payment purposes in the US.
The correct option is D. DRG
The system of Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) is used by Medicare as a way to pay for hospital stays. It is a method of categorizing patients who are similar in regards to diagnosis, treatment, and length of stay. The DRG is a two-digit number assigned to each hospital admission, indicating the patient's clinical status and resource consumption.
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Which patient is the most unstable? Unresponsive patient with hypotension Patient responsive to painful stimuli only Patient who only responds to verbal stimuli Unresponsive patient with tachycardia
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Answer:
Unresponsive patient with hypotension
Explanation:
Unresponsive patients are unstable but the hypotension is more unstable than tachycardia.
The most unstable patient is the unresponsive patient with tachycardia. Tachycardia is a condition in which there is an abnormally rapid heartbeat, characterized by a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute.
It can be caused by a variety of conditions, ranging from abnormal electrical activity in the heart itself to a reaction to an underlying medical condition or medication. In the case of an unresponsive patient, tachycardia can be a sign of a serious underlying condition, such as a heart attack, stroke, or a severe infection. It can also be a sign of a life-threatening arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation, which can cause the heart to stop beating altogether.
With an unresponsive patient, it can be difficult to determine the cause of the tachycardia and the patient is usually considered to be the most unstable of all the categories mentioned. It is important to act quickly in order to stabilize the patient and to determine the cause of their condition.
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In what ways was the development of the EMR disruptive to, yet an adaptation of, traditional clinical practice in hospitals?
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The development of the EMR, or Electronic Medical Record, has both disrupted and adapted traditional clinical practice in hospitals. The EMR has disrupted traditional practice by replacing paper-based medical records with electronic ones. This has resulted in a more efficient and streamlined approach to record-keeping. Additionally, the EMR allows for easier access and sharing of patient information among healthcare providers, which has improved coordination and collaboration.
However, the EMR has also required healthcare professionals to adapt to new ways of documenting and accessing patient information. This transition from paper records to electronic systems has required training and adjustment for clinicians. The use of EMRs has also raised concerns about data security and privacy, requiring hospitals to implement measures to protect patient information.
In summary, the development of the EMR has disrupted traditional clinical practice by replacing paper records with electronic ones. At the same time, it has adapted clinical practice by improving efficiency, coordination, and collaboration among healthcare providers.
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4. A running joke among viewers of the medical drama House was that "it's never lupus."
even though it frequently came up as a possible diagnosis tclthe patient-of-the-week's
symptoms. Why is lupus sometimes a difficult disease to diagnose but would often
come up as doctors discuss a patient's symptoms? What is the treatment regimen for
Lupus?
Answers
Answer: It has many symptoms that are often mistaken for symptoms of other diseases. The treatment for lupus is Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Sometimes lupus is hard to diagnose because it has many symptoms of other diseases and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are given to treat lupus.
What is lupus?An ongoing autoimmune condition called lupus causes the immune system to assault healthy tissue. It might result in a wide variety of bodily symptoms. It can be controlled with medical care and natural therapies.
In autoimmune diseases like lupus, the immune system is unable to distinguish between foreign chemicals, or antigens, and healthy tissue. The body mistakenly perceives itself as foreign.
The immune system then targets antibodies against both the antigens and the healthy tissue. As a result, there is tissue damage, discomfort, and edema. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are given to treat lupus.
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which of the following aspects of nursing would be most likely defined by legislation at a state level? question 7 options: the criteria that a nurse must consider when delegating tasks to unlicensed care providers. the differences in the scope of practice between registered nurses (rns) and licensed practical nurses (lpns). the criteria that clients must meet in order to qualify for medicare or medicaid. the process that nurses must follow when handling and administering medications.
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Registered nurses (RNs) and licensed practical nurses (LPNs) have different areas of practice (LPNs).
Aspects of Nursing The boundaries of a nurse's practice are defined by state law, most frequently in the form of a nurse practice act, and are known as the scope of practice.A state board of nursing deals with the requirements and legal procedures for delegation in the clinical setting.Federal law establishes eligibility requirements for programs like Medicare and Medicaid, and state boards of nursing define and oversee the safe and appropriate pharmaceutical administration process.Which element of nursing is most likely to be regulated by state law?The boundaries of a nurse's practice are defined by state law, most frequently in the form of a nurse practice act, and are known as the scope of practice.
What does "delegation" mean in the context of nursing?Delegation typically entails giving responsibility for the outcome while assigning non-licensed assistant people to execute activities or tasks linked to patient care. Making nursing decisions is a responsibility that can only be assigned by a qualified nurse.learn more about nursing here
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the information system that assigns an icd-10-cm code is called a(n):
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The information system that assigns an ICD-10-CM code is called a Computer-Assisted Coding (CAC) system.
The CAC system uses Natural Language Processing (NLP) and algorithms to analyze medical documentation and assign the appropriate ICD-10-CM codes to diagnoses and procedures. It helps medical coders to identify the correct code for each diagnosis, procedure, and service provided by healthcare providers. These coding software systems are essential for accurate medical coding and billing, as well as for tracking patient outcomes and analyzing healthcare data.
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Which nursing’s actions are appropriate to the roles/responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?
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Answer:
Uses active listening techniques when in- teracting with a depressed patient 2. Reports changes in vital signs to the health care provider in a timely fashion 3. Takes initiative to create a comprehensive care plan for a newly admitted patient 4. Ensures that the correct medication is giv- en to the correct patient at the correct time 5. Collects data from the patient, the family, and previous medical records
what is the primary purpose for completing a dysphagia screening for an inpatient who had a right cva several days ago?
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To evaluate whether further testing is necessary after observing the patient's oral motor control. A screening enables the OTR to rapidly identify the presence of a deficit and decide whether a more thorough evaluation is required; it is not used for diagnosis or treatment planning.
What is oral motor control?The term "oral motor skills" describes how the muscles in the mouth, jaw, tongue, lips, and cheeks move. These oral structures' strength, coordination, and control serve as the basis for feeding-related activities like sucking, biting, crunching, licking, and chewing. They are crucial for face expression and vocal articulation as well. When assessing a person's ability to eat, additional sensory-related functions are taken into consideration in addition to the development of oral motor skills. Tolerating various tastes, scents, and textures as well as maintaining a functioning level of alertness and attention throughout the day need effective sensory modulation, or the capacity to keep one's nervous system in a stable and comfortable condition.To feel and move food efficiently in the mouth, one needs accurate discrimination of touch and muscle/joint information, as well as the development of motor planning skills.The following are signs of oral motor and sensory functioning limitations:Limited dietary preferencesExcessive droolingDifficulty sucking, chewing and swallowingpoor articulationMessy eating habitsTo learn more about oral motor control, refer to
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How many litters of blood are there in your body?
Answers
Answer:
5 - 6 liters
Explanation:
Our blood makes 7- 8% of our human body weight. But the liters of blood differ from women and men, but it is 5 - 6 liters.
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What are indicators that put students at risk for drug abuse?
Answers
Answer:
Aggresive behavior, lack of self-cotrol, or difficult temperament. As the kid gets older interactions with family, school, or the community can effect that childs risk to later drug abuse.
Carbohydrates of biological importance to elderly and children
Answers
Answer:
They provide energy to the bodies of the elderly and children through particularly glucose
Answer:
Add energy in adults
glucose in children
Explanation:
If urine is chemically (-ve for blood), what may be a possible cause?
Answers
Answer:
There are a variety of factors that can cause red or white blood cells to be present in the urine. Many are not cause for concern. Small amounts of blood in the urine may be due to certain medicines, intense exercise, sexual activity, or menstruation. If larger amounts of blood are found, your health care provider may request further testing.
Increased red blood cells in urine may indicate:
A viral infection
Inflammation of the kidney or bladder
A blood disorder
Bladder or kidney cancer
Increased white blood cells in urine may indicate:
A bacterial urinary tract infection. This is the most common cause of a high white blood cell count in urine.
Inflammation of the urinary tract or kidneys
Explanation:
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What is the first step you should take if a person is showing symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Answers
Answer:
If a person is showing symptoms of anaphylaxis, the first step that should be taken is to administer emergency epinephrine (adrenaline) if it is available. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. The symptoms include difficulty breathing, hives, swelling of the face, and rapid pulse. If left untreated, anaphylaxis can lead to shock, cardiac arrest, and death. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. This can be done by injecting an epinephrine auto-injector into the muscle of the thigh. If the person does not have an epinephrine auto-injector, emergency medical services should be called immediately.
nursing responsibilities while taking hot application
Fast
Answers
If someone faints, you should do all of the following except __________.
tighten the person's clothing.
leave the person lying down and check the airway to make sure it is clear.
call for help if he or she does not regain consciousness in about a minute.
raise the person's legs above the level of his or her head.
Answers
Answer:
look down
Explanation:
leave the person lying down and check the airway to make it is clear
Hat modifier is used for medically-directed crna services?
Answers
This is because no is the correct explanation of no.
Which of these factors is the largest contributor to the burden of disease in the US?
Genetics
Access to health care
Social circumstances
Health behaviors
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According to the Global Burden of Disease (GBD) study, health behaviors are the largest contributor to the burden of disease in the US. Hence option D is correct.
In 2016, health behaviors accounted for 43.5% of the total burden of disease in the US. This means that health behaviors were responsible for more years of life lost (YLLs) and disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) than any other factor.
The top four health behaviors that contribute to the burden of disease in the US are Tobacco use, Diet, Physical inactivity, and Alcohol use.
These health behaviors can lead to a variety of chronic diseases, including heart disease, stroke, cancer, and diabetes. They can also lead to injuries and premature death.
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True/false. Animal handlers should be screened and medically cleared by the Employee Health Office or designated medical health official before working with animals.
TRUE
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patients who should be cautious about using decongestants for an upper respiratory infection (uri) include:
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Patients who should be cautious about using decongestants for an upper respiratory infection (URI) include: individuals with high blood pressure, glaucoma, and enlarged prostate glands.
Pregnant women and people with a history of heart disease or irregular heart rhythms should also exercise caution while taking decongestants.
Decongestants are medications that are used to relieve nasal congestion. These medicines work by narrowing the blood vessels that line the nasal passages, resulting in reduced swelling of the tissues and decreased mucus production. This action makes breathing easier for people who are having trouble breathing due to a cold or allergies.
While decongestants are generally safe, some people should be cautious about using them. These groups include:
Pregnant women: Decongestants may be harmful to the developing fetus in pregnant women. As a result, doctors advise pregnant women to avoid using these drugs.High blood pressure patients: Decongestants may raise blood pressure levels in some individuals, making this medication a poor choice for people who already have high blood pressure.Glaucoma patients: Decongestants may worsen symptoms of glaucoma, making it a poor choice for people who have been diagnosed with this condition.Enlarged prostate gland patients: Decongestants may cause urine retention in individuals with an enlarged prostate gland. Because of this, men with this condition should avoid using decongestants as well.Patients with heart disease: Decongestants may cause an irregular heartbeat, which can be dangerous for people with heart disease or a history of irregular heart rhythms. As a result, doctors advise people with heart disease to avoid taking this medication.In conclusion, patients who should be cautious about using decongestants for an upper respiratory infection (URI) include individuals with high blood pressure, glaucoma, enlarged prostate glands, pregnant women, and people with a history of heart disease or irregular heart rhythms.
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Why do you need to know how to write a persuasive paper ?
Answers
Answer:
So someone can know what going and what happening
Explanation:
Describe bone hypertrophy
Answers
Process by which drugs enter the body?
Answers
Explanation:
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
Can neomycin and polymyxin B sulfates and hydrocortisone be used in eyes?
Answers
Neomycin and polymyxin B sulfate and hydrocortisone can be used in the eye because of their function to treat irritated eyes.
What is the function of neomycin in the eye?Neomycin belongs to the class of aminoglycoside antibiotics, which work by stopping the growth of bacteria that cause infection. This drug is available in the form of eye drops, ear drops, ointments, creams, or gel.
Neomycin should only be used according to a doctor's prescription. Neomycin is often found in combination with other antibiotics, such as polymyxin.
Hydrocortisone is a corticosteroid drug that is used as an anti-inflammatory. This drug functions to treat eye inflammation accompanied by infections such as iritis, conjunctivitis, keratitis, dacryocystitis, and other eye infections that are sensitive to Chloramphenicol.
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Do you think the us pharmaceutical industry is working efficiently? (efficient means producing medications we need at the lowest costs)
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No according to the recent research it has been found that US pharmaceutical industry is not working efficiently.
It is because the United States does not actively regulate or bargain over prescription prices, pharmaceuticals that have no competitors may be more expensive in the United States than in other nations.
When generics or biosimilars are made accessible, patients and payers may be able to choose less expensive treatment options. This explains why we can observe that it functions effectively while producing pharmaceuticals at a cheaper cost.
From the site of manufacturing to the drug wholesalers and, in certain cases, directly to hospital chains, chain pharmacies, specialty pharmacies, and some health plans, drug distribution is managed by U.S. pharmaceutical manufacturers.
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Answers
thanks for the compliment
Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.
-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.
-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.
A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.
-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.
-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.
-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.
-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.
-
Middle layer of the meninges.
-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body
Answers
The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
What is the blood brain barrier?This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.
Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
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a nurse is planning to conduct a nursing research study and is seeking federal funding. which institution would be most helpful for the nurse to contact regarding acquiring funding?
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National Institute of nursing research is the institution which would be most helpful for the nurse to contact regarding acquiring funding.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional which takes care of the sick or infirmed and adequate recovery of the patient is achieved.
The National Institute of nursing research is involved in ensuring that individuals have improved health due to the presence of various tools and techniques. They also offer in financing research studies and also when funding is required by the nurse which is done by the federal government thereby making it the correct choice.
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Graph the function
g(x) = 8x2 – 24x +9
Answers
Answer:
x = 25/24
Explanation: