When assessing a client diagnosed with third spacing, a nurse should expect to assess the manifestation of decreased blood pressure.
What is decreased blood pressure?Decreased blood pressure occurs when the brain doesn’t get enough blood and can cause fainting or dizziness in a person. They are not only because of any underlying disease, it can also happen because of a family history of low blood pressure or some side effects of any medications. It can be due to low body temperature, high body temperature, Sepsis( a severe blood infection), or it can be a reaction to alcohol. A person has blurred vision, and confusion. If a person has low BP, he/she should use more salt, drink more water and try medications that might help to fight the situation.
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Delivery of blood to body cells for gas, nutrients and waste exchange is: ___________(9 letters)
Answer:
Perfusion
Explanation:
Delivery of blood to body cells for gas, nutrients and waste exchange is: Perfusion
When reading and analyzing a research study, what is the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome?
The sample was large with no exclusion criteria
Threats to validity suggest alternate causes of the outcome
Randomization controlled researcher bias
The literature review included ten relevant, current articles
When reading and analyzing a research study, the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is the randomization controlled researcher bias and is denoted as option C.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery of the patient is achieved.
In a research, random selections are done so as to prevent any bias from being present. However, not all randomization are unbiased especially in a research which is used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment.
The nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is randomization controlled researcher bias because it questions the effectiveness which is therefore the reason why option C was chosen.
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if a person takes 100 mg of Aspirin, he or she will
Answer:
to 100 milligrams, which is equal to three adult-strength aspirins, a safe dose for most people.
Explanation:
ADA The baby is born at 32 weeks' gestation. The baby is having difficulty breading the nurse activates which nursing diagnosis for this baby 1. Ineffective breathing pattern related to lack of adequate surfactant 2. Delayed growth and development related to immature lungs 3. Ineffective gas exchange related to excessive fluid buildup in lungs 4. Excess fluid volume related to pulmonary edema because of surfactant levels
Based on the information provided, the nursing diagnosis for the baby would be "Ineffective breathing pattern related to lack of adequate surfactant."
This is because surfactant is a substance in the lungs that helps keep the air sacs open and facilitates breathing. Babies born prematurely, such as at 32 weeks' gestation, may not have fully developed surfactant levels, which can lead to difficulty breathing. The nurse would need to activate interventions to support the baby's breathing and help manage this nursing diagnosis. Ineffective breathing pattern related to lack of adequate surfactant. This is because premature babies often have underdeveloped lungs with insufficient surfactant, which is essential for proper lung function and effective gas exchange.
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What happens to each of these parameters as a result of excess fluid in the alveoli? 1. compliance ____________ 2. airway resistance ___________ 3. dead space ____________ 4. gas exchange ___________
Excess fluid in the alveoli can lead to decreased compliance, increased airway resistance, increased dead space, and impaired gas exchange. Compliance refers to the ability of the lungs to stretch and expand during inhalation.
And excess fluid in the alveoli can make it more difficult for the lungs to do so. Airway resistance refers to the amount of effort required to move air through the respiratory system, and excess fluid can narrow the airways and increase resistance.
Dead space refers to the areas of the lungs that do not participate in gas exchange, and excess fluid can increase dead space by filling these areas with non-functional fluid. Gas exchange is the process of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between the lungs and bloodstream, and excess fluid can impair this process by reducing the surface area available for gas exchange and interfering with the diffusion of gases across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
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What law prohibits the giving of payment for referrals of federally funded business
Answer:
the AKS
(please give brainliest)
A patient from the fire has suffered serious burns
that cover much of her body. The hospital is not
equipped to treat this patient. What will the
patient's physician do?
O send the patient home
research ways to treat burns
send the patient to the closest burn center
Oorder supplies needed to treat patients with
serious burns
Answre C
Answer: Send the patient to the closest burn center.
Explanation: Burns can get worse if not treated in a timely manner and depending on the degree, may become infected. In the instance the hospital is unable to provide for this patient, they would be able to send them to a nearby location with ample supplies and staff available.
idk how to do this g:(((
Answer:
Body's health is normal if the vital signs comes in the range.
Explanation:
If my vital sign data comes between in the range, so we can conclude that my body's health is good and is able to perform normal functions. If the pulse rate, respiration rate, temperature and blood pressure readings go lower from the minimum range and goes higher from the maximum range so it means that there is something not right in my body which disturbs the homeostasis of my body.
Which method of collecting a dietary history is the most time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete
Questions
Which of the following methods of collecting a dietary history is the most
time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete?
A) food record
B) food frequency questionnaire
C) direct observation
D) 24-hour food recall
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Food Record.
Explanation:
The diet history refers to the historical assessment of an individuals food or dietary intake. It may detail the foods eaten over a 24 hour period, a month or a year.
Dietary History are important as they help to ascertain
whether or not the subject is pre-disposed to malnutrition, determine if there are habits which may lead to obesity, anda dietary combination which will help prevent diseasesCheers!
Can someone give me some positive vibes?
Explanation:
Keep your face to the sunshine and you cannot see a shadow.
. Yesterday is not ours to recover, but tomorrow is ours to win or lose.”
Describe how and why destin sealers are used in the restoration process
The devastation of a fire can wreak havoc on a building and significant work will be required to restore it.
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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The results from research have been known to produce harms to members of the sampled population who do not actually participate in the research study. An example of the type of research that could result in group harms is
The results of research have been known to cause harm to members of the sampled population who do not involve themselves in the study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
What are the genetic studies?The genetics research shows the relationships between the genes of the current population and the genes of the ancestral population, such as here, where DNA samples from central Asia and DNA samples from a west coast tribe are compared, and in the study, any kind of irresponsibility may lead to any disease spread.
Hence, the results of research have been known to cause harm to members of the sampled population who do not involve themselves in the study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
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The question is incomplete and the complete question is the follow
The results from research have been known to produce harms to members of the sampled population who do not actually participate in the research study. An example of the type of research that could result in group harms is
(a) A study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
(b) Phase 3 clinical trial of a new anticancer agent in middle-aged women diagnosed with breast cancer
(c Treat the patient with the drug based on physician's best medical judgment)
(d) None of the above
What does a major medical insurance plan do?
A patient tells the nurse that his stool was colored yellow. The nurse assesses for which of the following?a) Recent foods ingestedb) Occult bloodc) Ingestion of bismuthd) Pilonidal cyst
The nurse should assess for recent foods ingested as the most likely cause of yellow stool.
Certain foods, such as carrots, sweet potatoes, and yellow food coloring, can cause stool to become yellow. Ingestion of bismuth can also cause black stools, but not necessarily yellow stools. Occult blood in the stool may cause black or tarry stools, but not yellow. A pilonidal cyst, which is a cyst that develops at the base of the tailbone, is not likely to cause yellow stools.
However, if the yellow stools persist or are accompanied by other symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, or fever, further evaluation may be needed to rule out other possible causes such as liver or gallbladder problems.
Yellow stool can be caused by consuming foods high in beta-carotene, such as carrots or sweet potatoes, or by consuming artificial food coloring. Ingestion of bismuth can also cause black or dark stool, but this would not be the cause of yellow stool. Occult blood in the stool would typically cause the stool to appear black and tarry. A pilonidal cyst would not typically cause a change in stool color.
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Knowledge of (blank) helps identify drugs that act in a similar fashion and can be used to treat a similar condition.
1) analgesics
2) drug classes
3) anesthesia
4) antibiotics
Answer:
DRUG CLASSES
Explanation:
Knowledge of drug classes helps in identifying drugs that act in a similar fashion and can be used to treat a similar condition. Thus, the correct option is 2.
What are drug classes?A drug class is a set of medications and compounds which have a similar chemical structures and the same mechanism of action, with a related mode of action, and are widely used to treat the same kind of disease.
In several dominant drug classification systems, four types of classifications form a hierarchy of drugs. The knowledge of these drug classes helps in identifying the drugs that act in a similar fashion and can be used to treat conditions.
Therefore, the correct option is 2.
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A nurse evaluates whether a middle-age client with chronic back pain has been performing the different exercises and physiotherapy procedures recommended by the physician. What would the nurse most likely use to evaluate the client
A nurse evaluates whether a middle-age client with chronic back pain has been performing the recommended things by the physician, so she would use return demonstration to evaluate the client.
Return demonstration is an essential element of the nursing practice that paves way for pupil nursers to gain knowledge of the nursing procedures. It enables them to grasp ideas of what nursers do in the hospitals or communities when they take care of cases and of how they do these procedures to them.
Physiotherapy ( PT) is a healthcare profession, which encompasses colorful treatment modalities similar as massages, heat remedy, exercises, electrotherapy, patient education, and advice for treating an injury, disease, or disfigurement.
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Due to the effects of exercise, athletes will typically have all of the following except ___________ compared to individuals with a more sedentary lifestyle.
Answer:
La OMS define la actividad física como cualquier movimiento corporal producido por los músculos esqueléticos, con el consiguiente consumo de energía. La actividad física hace referencia a todo movimiento, incluso durante el tiempo de ocio, para desplazarse a determinados lugares y desde ellos, o como parte del trabajo de una persona. La actividad física, tanto moderada como intensa, mejora la salud.
Explanation:
ahi esta
Due to the effects of exercise, athletes will typically have all of the following except higher resting heart rates compared to individuals with a more sedentary lifestyle.
What do you mean by a Sedentary Lifestyle?A sedentary lifestyle may be defined as a lifestyle with a lot of sitting and lying down, with very little to no exercise.
Resting heart rate depends on the physical activity of the individual. It is defined as the number of times the heartbeats per minute during a person is at rest.
Therefore, due to the effects of exercise, athletes will typically have all of the following except higher resting heart rates compared to individuals with a more sedentary lifestyle.
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which of these interventionns does a nurse manager, reviewing infection control
When a nurse manager is reviewing infection control, their primary responsibility is to ensure the implementation of effective measures to prevent and control infections which involves promoting adherence to infection control protocols, monitoring compliance, and providing guidance to staff members.
Here are some interventions a nurse manager may undertake:
1. Policy Development: The nurse manager may review and update infection control policies and procedures based on current guidelines and evidence-based practices.
This includes creating protocols for hand hygiene, isolation precautions, personal protective equipment (PPE) use, and environmental cleaning.
2. Staff Education and Training: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in providing education and training to healthcare staff regarding infection control practices.
This may involve conducting regular in-service sessions, workshops, or online training modules to ensure that all staff members are knowledgeable about infection control protocols and procedures.
3. Monitoring and Auditing: The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring compliance with infection control practices.
This can involve conducting regular audits, observations, and inspections to identify areas of improvement or non-compliance. They may use checklists, visual assessments, and documentation reviews to assess adherence to infection control standards.
4. Outbreak Management: In the event of an infectious disease outbreak or cluster of cases, the nurse manager collaborates with the infection control team to implement appropriate control measures.
This includes identifying the source of the outbreak, implementing isolation precautions, facilitating testing and contact tracing, and coordinating communication with relevant stakeholders.
5. Collaboration and Communication: The nurse manager works closely with other healthcare professionals, such as infection control practitioners, physicians, and department heads, to ensure a multidisciplinary approach to infection control. They foster open communication channels, facilitate regular meetings, and promote a culture of safety and collaboration within the healthcare facility.
By undertaking these interventions, the nurse manager plays a vital role in promoting a safe and infection-free environment for patients, healthcare staff, and visitors.
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Components of Provision 7
Which part of Provision 7 encourages professional collaboration to promote change?
Contributions through nursing and health policy development
Contributions through research and scholarly inquiry
This action is not addressed in Provision 7
Contributions through developing, maintaining, and implementing professional practice standards
This action of professional collaboration to promote change is not addressed in Provision 7.
What is the Nursing Code of Ethics?The Nursing Code of Ethics is described as a statement of the ethical values, responsibilities and professional accountabilities of nurses and nursing students that defines and guides ethical nursing practice within the different roles nurses assume.
The Provision 7 of the Nursing Code of Ethics summarizes that the nurse, in all roles and settings, advances the profession through research and scholarly inquiry, professional standards development, and the generation of both nursing and health policy.
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Imagine you have a patient who has come to you and is exhibiting symptoms such as fatigue and increased thirst and urination. What would you check for to determine whether the patient has cushing’s, type l diabetes or type ll diabetes?
Answer:
weight gain.
1) thin arms and legs.
2) a round face.
3) increased fat around the base of the neck.
4) a fatty hump between the shoulders.
Explanation:
वजन वृद्धि। पातलो हात र खुट्टा। गोलो अनुहार। घाँटीको आधार वरिपरि बढेको बोसो। काँधहरू बीचको फ्याटी हम्प।
EHR systems are becoming extremely popular due to their benefits and advantages. These advantages include better quality of care, more accurate patient info, interoperability, increased efficiency, increased revenue, scalability, accessibility, customization, security, and support.
Based on the above advantages I noted; can you elaborate on one and why you think it is a good advantage for patient care?
EHR systems' accessibility to precise patient data significantly improves patient treatment. It improves decision making for healthcare professionals, lowers medical errors, and facilitates fast and effective therapeutic actions.
Advantages of EHR systems to patientsThe accessibility of more precise patient data is one benefit of electronic health record (EHR) systems that considerably enhances patient care.
All patient data is kept in one place and made available to authorized healthcare practitioners using EHR systems. This implies that when making treatment decisions for a patient, doctors, nurses, and experts involved in their care can quickly and simply obtain the most current and comprehensive information. They have real time access to test findings, imaging reports, prescription histories, and other important information.
EHR systems frequently come with clinical reminders and decision support tools that can assist healthcare professionals in adhering to evidence-based recommendations and best practices.
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The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. The child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered to the child for each dose? Round the answer to the hundredth place
Answer:
Each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
Explanation:
Given that the doctor prescribed 3 mg / kg twice daily for 5 days, the child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg / mL, to determine how many mL should be administered to the child for each dose, the following should be done calculation:
1 pound = 0.453592 kilos
35 pounds = 0.453592 x 35 = 15.8757 kilos
15.8757 x 3 = 47.6271
Thus, each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
1 kg = 2.205 pound
Since the child weigh 35 pounds, hence:
35 pounds = 35 pounds * 1 kg per 2.205 pound = 15.88 kg
The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. For each dose, the mg needed is:
mg = 3 mg/kg * 15.88 kg = 47.64 mg
Since the medication is available as 50 mg/mL, hence:
ml = 47.64 ml / 50 mg/mL = 0.95 ml
0.95 ml should be administered to the child for each dose
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are younger employees more likely to be bullied by older employees?
Answer:
Yes and No
Explanation:
Cause older employees can be rude like at school small students get picked on it's kind of like that.
a small incision was made over the left proximal tibia and a traction pin was inserted through the bone to the opposite side. weights were then affixed to the pins to stabilize the closed tibial fracture temporarily until fracture repair could be performed. assign codes for physicians service.
A small incision was made over the left proximal tibia and a traction pin was inserted through the bone to the opposite side and weights were then affixed to the pins to stabilize the closed tibial fracture temporarily until fracture repair could be performed therefore the codes for physicians service will be 20650-LT, 823.00.
What is Medical coding?
This is referred to as the process in which medical diagnosis, treatment etc are translated into numeric and alpha-numeric characters in other to prevent ambiguity.
The medical code 20650 means that there is a general introduction or removal procedures on the musculoskeletal system such as the tibia etc as denoted in the example given above while the diagnosis code 823.00 describes a closed fracture of the tibia, unspecified part which is therefore the reason why 20650-LT, 823.00 was chosen as the correct choice.
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which is not legally required on a nutrition facts label? group of answer choices kcalories per serving grams of protein kcalories from fiber kcalories from fat
Kcalories from fiber is not legally required on a nutrition facts label. Hence, Option C is the correct answer.
What are some of the important nutrition facts?It includes a list of important nutrients that have an impact on your health. Look for foods that have more of the nutrients you want and less of the nutrients you want to avoid. You can use the label to support your specific dietary requirements. Limit your consumption of sodium, added sugars, and saturated fat. The six basic nutrients are vitamins, minerals, protein, fats, water, and carbohydrates. People must consume these nutrients from dietary sources in order for their bodies to function properly. Essential nutrients are required for a person's growth, health, and ability to reproduce. Asparagus is high in B-complex vitamins, potassium, zinc, and vitamins A, C, and E. A banana contains half the potassium of an avocado.
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Which of the following athletes is known for his serve? Andy Roddick Rafael Nadal Roger Federer None of the above
Answer:
The correct answer is Andy
Explanation:
Which of the following is not one of the major forces impacting the delivery of healthcare while reducing cost and increasing access: A shift in managed care reimbursement to outpatient settings and a focus on cost containment Technological advances, such as telemedicine and the electronic medical record Globalization of the workforce. Medical innovation - medicine has progressed to the point that comficated procedures that once'required several night's stay can now be treated with a simple procedure or solely with medication
Medical innovation - medicine has progressed to the point that complicated procedures that once required several nights' stay can now be treated with a simple procedure or solely with medication is not the major forces impacting the delivery of healthcare while reducing cost and increasing access.
Option (D) is correct.
The statement "Medical innovation - medicine has progressed to the point that complicated procedures that once required several nights' stay can now be treated with a simple procedure or solely with medication" is incorrect as it contradicts the major forces impacting the delivery of healthcare while reducing cost and increasing access.
The major forces impacting healthcare delivery include:
A shift in managed care reimbursement to outpatient settings and a focus on cost containment: With the goal of reducing healthcare costs, there has been a shift towards providing care in outpatient settings rather than expensive hospital stays. This includes the promotion of preventive care, early intervention, and cost-effective treatments.
Technological advances, such as telemedicine and the electronic medical record: Technology has revolutionized healthcare by enabling remote consultations through telemedicine, improving access to care. Electronic medical records enhance communication and coordination among healthcare providers, leading to more efficient and effective care.
Globalization of the workforce: The healthcare industry has become increasingly globalized, with healthcare professionals from different countries working in various healthcare settings. This helps address healthcare workforce shortages and allows for knowledge sharing and collaboration on a global scale.
These forces aim to make healthcare more accessible, cost-effective, and efficient.
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The complete question:
Which of the following is not one of the major forces impacting the delivery of healthcare while reducing cost and increasing access?
A. A shift in managed care reimbursement to outpatient settings and a focus on cost containment.
B. Technological advances, such as telemedicine and the electronic medical record.
C. Globalization of the workforce.
D. Medical innovation - medicine has progressed to the point that complicated procedures that once required several night's stay can now be treated with a simple procedure or solely with medication.
the nurse identifies 12 mm of induration at the site of a client's tuberculin purified protein derivative (ppd) test. which rational would the nurse use to explain this test?
The Tuberculin Purified Protein outgrowth( PPD) test measures the body’s vulnerable response to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.
This test is generally used to diagnose an active infection of tuberculosis( TB). During the test, the skin is fitted with the PPD antigen and the area is also checked for a response. The size of the induration( or swelling) is measured 48 to 72 hours latterly.
A result of 12 mm or further indicates a positive response, and farther testing may be necessary to confirm a opinion of active TB. It's important to note that a positive result doesn't inescapably mean that the person has active TB, as the body may have been exposed to TB in the history and the vulnerable system has been touched off in response to the antigen. thus, a positive result should be followed up with farther testing.
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Name resources that can be used to learn more about medications
Answer:
Resources for reliable drug information : Nursing2021Explanation: