The use of third parties by Airbus had several impacts, both positive and negative:
1. Increased Production Capacity: By utilizing third-party suppliers and manufacturers, Airbus was able to expand its production capacity. This allowed them to meet the growing demand for their aircraft and increase their market share.
2. Cost Reduction: Outsourcing certain components and services to third parties often leads to cost savings for Airbus. It allows them to take advantage of specialized expertise and lower labor costs offered by these suppliers.
3. Focus on Core Competencies: Outsourcing non-core activities to third parties allowed Airbus to focus on its core competencies, such as aircraft design and assembly. This streamlined their operations and improved efficiency.
4. Global Supply Chain: Collaborating with third-party suppliers across the globe enabled Airbus to establish a global supply chain. This increased their sourcing options, minimized risks associated with single suppliers, and allowed them to tap into global talent and resources.
5. Innovation and Expertise: Partnering with third-party suppliers often brings in new ideas, technologies, and expertise to Airbus. These suppliers may have specialized knowledge and capabilities that contribute to innovation and product development.
6. Quality Control Challenges: Depending on the effectiveness of supplier management and quality control processes, outsourcing can introduce challenges in maintaining consistent quality across the supply chain. Ensuring that third-party suppliers meet Airbus' quality standards becomes crucial.
7. Coordination and Integration: Managing a complex network of third-party suppliers requires effective coordination and integration efforts. Airbus needs to ensure seamless communication, collaboration, and alignment among all parties involved to maintain efficiency and avoid bottlenecks.
8. Risk Management: Relying heavily on third-party suppliers can introduce risks related to supply chain disruptions, dependencies, and intellectual property protection. Airbus needs to actively manage these risks to ensure continuity of operations and safeguard its competitive advantage.
Overall, the use of third parties by Airbus allowed them to leverage external expertise, expand production capacity, and focus on core competencies. However, it also introduced challenges related to quality control, coordination, and risk management. The impact of using third parties ultimately depends on the effectiveness of supplier management and the ability to address associated challenges.
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What kind of location appears temporarily, and then disappears?
Answer:
pop up retail location
Explanation:
The EPA requires the use of precise forms called the
Answer:
The correct answer is The EPA requires the use of precise forms called? It is a requirement for those working with or owners of transporters and generators of waste materials deemed hazardous to acquire an EPA form 8700-22 called the uniform hazardous waste manifest.
Explanation:
i hope this helps 229 999 0523
what is professional education!
Answer:
Professional education is a formal specialized training about a particular profession in which learners are taught the central concepts, principles, and techniques, and how these are applied in real practice, and the learners also acquire the necessary competencies needed for proper practice and behaviour.
Professional education is a formalized approach to specialized training in a professional school through which participants acquire content knowledge and learn to apply techniques. Although content is what the participant is expected to learn by attending professional school, such an education also helps the participant acquire the competencies needed for proper practice and behavior.
Question 21 (2.17 points) True or False? Outcome evaluation documents how the program got started. 1) True 2) False Question 22 (2.17 points) True or False? Immediate outcomes for mass media might include changes in individual behavior and enactment of policies. 1) True 2) False Question 24 (2.17 points) Which of the following is not considered a potential audience for workplace wellness programs? 1) The "business case" from the perspective of business leaders 2) The employee 3) The "planners, implementers, and evaluators" of workplace programs 4) Local gyms Question 25 (2.17 points) True or False? The practice of "CulturalCare" seeks to assimilate patients into the culture of clinical care. 1) True 2) False
Question 22: 1) True
Question 24: 4) Local gyms
Question 25: 2) False
Question 22:True. Outcome evaluation does document how the program got started, as it focuses on the initial processes, inputs, and activities that contributed to the program's development.
Question 24:
The potential programs include: 1) The "business case" from the perspective of business leaders, 2) The employee, and 3) The "planners, implementers, and evaluators" of workplace programs. Local gyms, however, are not considered a potential audience for workplace wellness programs.
Question 25:False. The practice of "CulturalCare" does not seek to assimilate patients into the culture of clinical care. Instead, it aims to promote culturally competent healthcare by acknowledging and respecting the diverse cultural backgrounds and values of patients.
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Why is it so hard to find essentials during times of crisis?
Answer:
because they are in high demand because so many other people want them
low price/earnings ratios indicate limited or low investor confidence. True or False
Low price/earnings ratios indicate limited or low investor confidence which is false.
Low price/earnings (P/E) ratios do not necessarily indicate limited or low investor confidence. P/E ratios are calculated by dividing a company's stock price by its earnings per share (EPS). They provide a measure of how much investors are willing to pay for each unit of earnings generated by the company. A low P/E ratio can have multiple interpretations and does not solely indicate low investor confidence. It can reflect various factors, including undervaluation of the company's stock, expectations of future growth, market conditions, industry dynamics, or specific company circumstances.
A low P/E ratio may suggest that investors have relatively lower expectations for future earnings growth or perceive higher risk associated with the company. However, it can also present an opportunity for value investors who believe the stock is undervalued and has the potential for future appreciation.
Therefore, while low P/E ratios can be an indication of caution or skepticism among investors, they should not be solely interpreted as a measure of limited or low investor confidence. Multiple factors need to be considered when assessing the significance of P/E ratios in the context of a specific company and its industry.
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the economy of the nether has a natural (or potential) level of output of $400 million. real gross domestic product GDP in the nether is currently $425 million. what phase of the business cycle is nether most likely near?
The Nether is most likely in the Expansion phase of the business cycle. This is because the current Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of $425 million is higher than the natural or potential level of output of $400 million.
The business cycle is defined as the fluctuation of economic activity, such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP) or Gross National Product (GNP), about its long-term growth trend. It is a period of growth and recession that an economy experiences. The business cycle has four stages that are expansion, peak, contraction, and trough.
The expansion phase is the first phase of the business cycle. During the expansion phase, real GDP, income, and employment rise. The production of goods and services grows, as does consumer confidence, and the economy begins to prosper.
A country in the expansion phase is on the path to progress and has high economic growth. The economy is at full employment, and firms are producing at their capacity. As a result, inflation and the interest rate can also increase.
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A real estate broker's responsibility to keep the principal informed of all the facts that might affect a transaction is the? duty of care. disclosure. obediance. accounting.
The responsibility of a real estate broker to keep the principal (client) informed of all the facts that might affect a transaction is the duty of disclosure.
What is the duty of disclosure.In the realm of real estate, the duty of disclosure refers to the legal and ethical obligation of a real estate broker or agent to provide accurate and timely information to their clients (principals) regarding any material facts that may impact a transaction.
Real estate brokers have a fiduciary duty to act in the best interests of their clients. This includes a duty to disclose any known information that could significantly affect a client's decision-making process or the outcome of a real estate transaction.
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Robert receives a salary of $60,000 per year, or $2,500 semi-monthly. How
much does his employer pay for his unemployment tax for the entire year?
A. no limit
B. $0
C. $840
D. $420
Answer:
B. $0
Explanation:
Unemployment tax known as FUTA (The Federal Unemployment Tax act) is imposed on employers based on the wage and salaries they pay their employees. Employers who pay $1500 and above per calendar quarter are mandated to pay FUTA. Unlike other payroll-based taxes, employers are not required to deduct FUTA from employees. Therefore, nothing should be withheld from Robert's income as unemployment tax.
Las ventas a crédito originan siempre: (una única respuesta correcta) 10 -5 Un activo para el comprador y un pasivo para el vendedor. Un beneficio para el vendedor. Un gasto para el comprador. Un activo para el vendedor y un pasivo para el comprador.
Answer:
Un activo para el vendedor y un pasivo para el comprador.
Explanation:
Si registramos una venta a credito tenemos la siguiente transaction desde el punto de vista del vendedor:
D Cuentas por cobrar XY
C Ventas XY
Se genera un activo
Si registramos la transaction desde el punto de vista del comprador:
D Activo XY
C Cuentas por pagar XY
Aca generamos una pasivo
Insurance companies determine risk exposure by which of the following?
Law of large numbers and risk pooling. All forms of insurance determine exposure through risk pooling and the law of large numbers.
TermWhich of these are considered to be events or conditions that increase the chances of an insured's loss?
Hazards are events or conditions that increase the likelihood of an insured's loss.
People with higher loss exposure have the tendency to purchase insurance more often than those at average risk. Adverse selection is the tendency of persons with higher loss exposure to purchase insurance more often than those at average risk.
Which of these techniques will remove the risk of losing money in the stock market by never purchasing stocks?
Risk avoidance could eliminate the risk of losing money in the stock market by never investing in stocks.
How do insurers predict the increase of individual risks?
The law of large numbers helps insurance companies predict the increase of individual risks.
Diverse techniques are employed by insurers to forecast the rise in individual risks. When predicting future claims, some insurers may utilize models that take historical claim data into account, while others may use demographic or geographic information.
Any strategy an insurer uses to forecast the rise in particular risks will ultimately be subject to some degree of uncertainty. Numerous factors, like as the unpredictable nature of occurrences beyond the insurer's control (such natural catastrophes or terrorist attacks) and the inherent limits of mathematical models, might contribute to this uncertainty. As a result, there is always a possibility that a model used by an insurer will produce forecasts that are incorrect in some circumstances, even if the model is thought to be accurate within certain ranges.
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Question #4
Multiple Choice
What is one of the major skill sets reinforced in the Common Core State Standards initiative?
-Obedience and humility
-Memorization skills
-Communication skills
-Government and civics
Answer:
-Communication skills
Explanation:
One of the major skill sets reinforced in the Common Core State Standards initiative is "Communication skills."
This above statement is true in the sense that the Common Core State Standards put more priority on the significance of conversing and listening in expanding vocabulary up to grade 5 and on the magnitude of making the presentation of information in a manner that improves communication generally. It also involves assessing others' presentations in grades 6-12.
Hence, the correct answer, in this case, is "Communication skills."
Purchase of weapons for the military is part of this expenditures approach for calculating the GDP.
gross exports
gross imports
sum of government spending
sum of all the country's businesses spending on capital
consumer spending
c. The buying of weapons for the military is part of the sum of government spending, one of the four components of the technique for computing Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
By adding up all economic expenditures, including government spending, corporate investment, household consumption, and net exports, the expenditures technique produces GDP (exports minus imports). The total amount spent on goods and services by the federal, state, and local governments includes salaries for public employees, construction projects, and the purchase of products like military equipment. Since they are a component of overall economic spending, these costs are considered for determining GDP. As a result, the government spending component of the expenditures approach to determining GDP includes the purchase of weapons for the military.
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What is a tagline?
(Principles Of Business Management)
Answer:
Explanation:
A tagline is a short phrase used in marketing campaigns of a business to sum up the value of a brand or its products and create a positive brand impression.
How cost-benefit analysis helps government?
Cost-benefit analysis is similar to what market forces do for government ventures, this makes an effort to review and analyze the discounted streams of future benefits and costs associated with a proposed project in terms of money.
What is the cost-benefit analysis?Cost-benefit analysis can be used to assess the costs and benefits of interventions when both are expressed in monetary terms.
Concept symbol Cost-benefit analyses (CBA) and CEA consider health outcomes.
The net present value (NPV), economic rate of return (ERR), and benefit-cost ratio are three suggestive criteria that can be used in a cost-benefit analysis to determine the economic sustainability of a safer school IPF before the project is implemented.
Cost-benefit analysis has been employed as one technique.
This makes an attempt to evaluate and analyze the discounted streams of future benefits and future costs connected with a proposed project in terms of money, much like the forces of the market do for business initiatives.
Therefore, cost-benefit analysis is similar to what market forces do for government ventures, this makes an effort to review and analyze the discounted streams of future benefits and costs associated with a proposed project in terms of money.
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How can a company hide 2000$ of debts in a double entry journal accounting….. using debits and credits
Multiple Choice
Which of the following illustrates why corn was such a precious commodity to Native Americans?
The kernels were easy to transport.
It was easy to plant and grew quickly.
o One kernel could produce one to two ears.
It could be grown in any type of soil.
an offer that can only be accepted by an offere's performance creates a(n) __________________________ contract
Answer: unilateral contract
Explanation:
An unilateral contract is a contact that is formed when an individual offers to do a particular thing in return for either money or something else that was agreed on.
Once such individual does that thing, he or she has to be given what was agreed on in the contract. A typical example is the contact regarding an insurance policy.
Therefore, an offer that can only be accepted by an offere's performance will create a unilateral contact.
What is the total of the owner's equity if the balance sheet shows liabilities of $46,000 and assets of $83,000?
$8,000
$37,000
$9,000
$120,000
The total owner's equity can be calculated by subtracting the total liabilities from the total assets. In this case, with liabilities of $46,000 and assets of $83,000, the total owner's equity would be $37,000.
Owner's equity represents the residual interest in the assets of a business after deducting liabilities. It is calculated by subtracting total liabilities from total assets. In this case, the balance sheet shows liabilities of $46,000 and assets of $83,000.
Owner's Equity = Total Assets - Total Liabilities
Substituting the given values:
Owner's Equity = $83,000 - $46,000
Owner's Equity = $37,000
Therefore, the total owner's equity is $37,000. This represents the net value of the assets owned by the business that belong to the owner(s) after all liabilities are accounted for.
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for aws enterprise customers, any questions about billing and overall aws account can be directed to which aws support personnel?
Questions about invoicing for AWS Enterprise Accounts can be sent to the AWS Concierge.
They will respond to your questions about billing and accounts in a timely manner, and they will help with you to put best practices in place so you can concentrate on what really matters—running your business.
A designated Cloud Service Delivery Manager (CSDM), a Cloud Architect (CA), and access to the AMS security team are included as baseline operations.
Direct clients of AWS Managed Services who use AWS Enterprise Support can access AWS Incident Detection and Response in qualifying regions at no extra cost.
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the cost constraint suggests that, even when the cost of providing accounting information exceeds its benefit, the financial accounting information should always be provided. t or f
(T/F) According to the cost restriction, the financial accounting information should still be available even if it comes at a higher cost than it benefits.
Which definition of "information" is the most accurate?
A fact or incident about which knowledge has been shared or received; breaking news: information about a crime. His wealth of general knowledge is astonishing. knowledge acquired by study, communication, research, training, etc.
Avoiding research overlap is made easier by information. Users, especially researchers, are stimulated by information to think more deeply. Information aids scientists, engineers, academics, and other professionals in staying updated about recent developments in their fields.
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If you are interviewed by more than one person, you should send a thank-you note to _____.
each person in the interview
each person you see in the building
the first person you are introduced to
the person who is obviously leading the interview
Answer:
option A is correct.
i.e.
each person in the interview.
Explanation:
Because thank-you letter provides a simple but effective way to express gratitude to all the individuals you met with.
he said to me "no sir I did not quarrel with your servant yesterday"
change into indirect
Answer:
He denied that he quarreled with my servant the previous day
The purpose of time management is to ________. a. maximize productivity b. write all your tasks out c. allow for delegation d. none of the above please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
The purpose of time management is to maximize productivity.
What is time management?Time management is a tool used by an individual to plan how work will be arranged and done.
Time management helps take care of the following:
Creating a daily plan Determining productive timesMaximize productivityHence, the purpose of time management is to maximize productivity.
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Answer:
A
Explanation:
1) Fashion merchandise:
a. is relatively easy to forecast demand for.
b. does not require end-of-season sales.
c. requires merchandise planning systems that perform continuous replenishment.
d. refers to categories that are in continuous demand over an extended time period.
e. offers less flexibility in correcting forecasting errors.
Fashion merchandise requires merchandise planning systems that perform continuous replenishment, which is the c option supports the answer.
Fashion merchandise is characterised by its fast-moving nature and constant changes in style and trends. Therefore, it requires merchandise planning systems that can continuously monitor and replenish inventory to keep up with demand.
While forecasting is important in fashion, it can be challenging due to the unpredictability of consumer preferences. This requires a level of flexibility to quickly adapt to changes in demand and adjust inventory accordingly. End-of-season sales may still be necessary to clear out excess inventory, but with effective planning systems, these sales can be minimized. Overall, fashion merchandise requires a balance of forecasting, planning, and flexibility to succeed in the market.
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Fashion merchandise Option D. refers to categories that are in continuous demand over an extended time period.
Fashion merchandise includes basic items such as denim, T-shirts, and other essential clothing items that are not subject to changes in fashion trends or seasonal shifts.
Option A is incorrect because fashion merchandise is often subject to changes in demand due to shifts in fashion trends, meaning it is difficult to forecast demand for such products. Option b is also incorrect since end-of-season sales are a common tactic used to clear out excess inventory and make room for new merchandise. Option c is incorrect because while merchandise planning systems may be used, they are not specific to fashion merchandise and may not necessarily involve continuous replenishment.
Option e is also incorrect. Fashion merchandise actually offers more flexibility in correcting forecasting errors compared to seasonal or trend-driven merchandise since it can be sold over a longer period of time and is not tied to a specific season or trend. Retailers can adjust their inventory levels and pricing strategies to respond to changes in demand or market conditions.
In summary, fashion merchandise refers to items that are in continuous demand over an extended period, providing retailers with more flexibility in terms of inventory management and pricing strategies. Therefore, the correct option is D.
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quizlet one way that long-term equity anticipation securities (leaps) differ from standard options is that they
Long term equity anticipation securities (LEAPS) have max expirations of 39 months though max is 39, most trade w a 30 month life cycle.
What is long-term equity?Long-term Equity is intended for privately held, entrepreneurial businesses looking for joint investors to assist their long-term sustainable performance.
Any asset's equity is the ownership remaining after all liabilities related to it have been paid off. For instance, if you owe $10,000 on a car you own that is worth $25,000, you have $15,000 in equity in the asset. It is the worth of or interest in assets held by the most novice class of investors.
Many forms of equity
Equity held by shareholders. The amount of assets distributed to shareholders after liabilities have been subtracted is known as shareholders' equity or simply shareholders' equity.
ownership equity
Common shares.
favored stock.
further capital contributions.
Government stock
Retained income.
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1. janelle grows sweet corn on her farm and sells it to customers from a roadside stand. this is an example of a(n) . distribution center wholesale operation direct marketing channel indirect marketing channel 2. a marketing channel that does not have any intermediaries between the buyer and seller is known as a(n) marketing channel. direct indirect primary simplified 3. in a(n) marketing channel, one or more intermediaries work with manufacturers to provide goods and services to customers. vertical horizontal indirect direct 4. a local bike shop buys bicycles and accessories from various manufacturers and resells them to its customers. what type of marketing channel does this represent? secondary indirect primary direct
Marketing channels are the different paths that products take to reach consumers. They can include intermediaries like wholesalers, distributors, and retailers, or they can be direct from the manufacturer to the end consumer. Understanding marketing channels is important in business because it can impact pricing, distribution, and the overall customer experience.
1. Janelle grows sweet corn on her farm and sells it to customers from a roadside stand. This is an example of a direct marketing channel, as there are no intermediaries between the farmer and the customers. Direct marketing channels are typically used by small businesses, like Janelle's farm, who want to sell their products directly to consumers without using any middlemen. This approach can help businesses retain more control over their pricing and distribution, but it can also be more time-consuming and require more resources to manage.
2. A marketing channel that does not have any intermediaries between the buyer and seller is known as a direct marketing channel. Direct marketing channels are used when a business wants to sell products directly to customers without involving intermediaries. This approach can help businesses save on costs and maintain greater control over pricing and distribution.
3. In a vertical marketing channel, one or more intermediaries work with manufacturers to provide goods and services to customers. Vertical marketing channels are often used in industries where the manufacturing process is complex and requires specialized expertise to produce and distribute products. Intermediaries in a vertical marketing channel can include wholesalers, distributors, and retailers. These intermediaries can help manufacturers reach a wider range of customers and markets, but they can also increase costs and complexity.
4. A local bike shop that buys bicycles and accessories from various manufacturers and resells them to its customers represents an indirect marketing channel. Indirect marketing channels involve one or more intermediaries between the manufacturer and the end customer. In this case, the bike shop is an intermediary that purchases products from multiple manufacturers and sells them to customers through its retail store. Indirect marketing channels can be useful for manufacturers who want to reach a wider range of customers and markets without having to handle all the logistics of distribution and sales themselves. However, working with intermediaries can also add complexity and costs to the distribution process.
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When selecting a credit card or applying for a loan, THIS is very important to identity, which is the cost of borrowing money expressed as year
rate
A.ARM
B.APR
C.SSA
D. SEC
Answer:
B.APR
Explanation:
APR, or annual percentage rate, is a phrase associated with credit cards, mortgages, and other types of loans. It refers to the interest paid on a loan per year. APR is expressed as a percentage and represents the actual cost of borrowing money. For an investment, the APR represents the expected returns as a percentage of the invested amounts.
When comparing lenders or selecting a credit card provider, the APR rate tells the borrower the borrowing cost from each lender.
Which of the following statements
best describes retained earnings?
A Ownership shares possessed by owners
B. Profits not distributed to owners
C Dividends received by owners
Pandora allows users to
A. interact with other users.
B. run free background checks.
C. stream radio to mobile devices or computers.
D. protect themselves against identity theft.
Answer:
C
Explanation: