Select the 3 correct statements below regarding fixed vs variable kV technique charts.
a. mAs is variable when using a variable kV chart
b. the fixed kV chart is most commonly used
c. each body part has a specific kV when using a variable kV chart
d. kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart.
e. accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart.
f. mAs compensates for patient size and condition variation in a variable kV chart.

Answers

Answer 1

The three correct statements regarding fixed vs variable kV technique charts are:

b. The fixed kV chart is most commonly used.

c. Each body part has a specific kV when using a variable kV chart.

f. mAs compensates for patient size and condition variation in a variable kV chart.

- The fixed kV chart is widely used in radiography, where a specific kV value is assigned to each body part, regardless of patient size or condition (Statement b).

- In contrast, a variable kV chart considers patient size and condition, and specific kV values may vary based on these factors (Statement c).

- With variable kV charts, mAs (milliamperes per second) is adjusted to compensate for patient size and condition variations (Statement f).

Statements a, d, and e are incorrect:

- Statement a is incorrect because mAs is typically fixed when using a variable kV chart, as the kV value is adjusted based on patient factors (rather than mAs being variable).

- Statement d is incorrect because variable kV charts do not have a fixed increase in kV per centimeter increase in thickness.

- Statement e is incorrect because accurate caliper measurement is not specifically mentioned or required when using a variable kV chart.

It's important to note that imaging practices and techniques may vary, so it's always essential to refer to specific protocols and guidelines in a given clinical setting.

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Related Questions

A bag contains 2 striped cubes, 3 dotted cubes, 4 white cubes and 3 red cubes. What is the probability of drawing a white cube, not replacing it, and then drawing a dotted cube?

Answers

Answer:

I think that Dependent should be the answer to this...

which surgery do you think would have the most profound effect on digestion
-removal of the stomach (gastrectomy)
-removal of the pancreas (pancreatectomy)
-removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy)​

Answers

Answer:

Removal of the pancreas would have the most severe effects on absorption because most chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine. Absorption requires the action of pancreatic enzymes, making the pancreas the most important.

Hope this helps! :))

Explanation:

the cells found within the parathyroid gland that secrete parathyroid hormone are called _______.

Answers

The cells found within the parathyroid gland that secrete parathyroid hormone are called "chief cells" or "principal cells."

These specialized cells play a crucial role in maintaining the body's calcium homeostasis. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a key regulator of calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood, when blood calcium levels decrease, chief cells in the parathyroid gland detect this change and release PTH.  PTH acts on target organs such as the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. In the bones, PTH stimulates the release of calcium by activating osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue.

In the kidneys, it enhances calcium reabsorption while reducing phosphorus reabsorption. Furthermore, PTH stimulates the production of active vitamin D in the kidneys, which in turn increases intestinal calcium absorption. In summary, chief cells are the primary cells within the parathyroid gland responsible for secreting parathyroid hormone, this hormone plays a critical role in regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood, ensuring proper functioning of various physiological processes, including muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and bone health.

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Answer to the question in the picture

Answer to the question in the picture

Answers

Answer:

the last one is the answer.

Explanation:

good luck on quiz. :)

D, they can do it if the function of the purkinje fibers is impaired

which foods are contraindicated for a client taking tranylcypromine?

Answers

There are certain foods that should be avoided if you are taking tranylcypromine.

Tranylcypromine is a medication that is used to treat depression. It belongs to a class of drugs called MAO inhibitors, which work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help to regulate mood and emotions.There are certain foods that should be avoided if you are taking tranylcypromine, as they can interact with the medication and cause serious side effects.

These foods include:Cheese, Yogurt, Sour cream, Cheddar cheese, Parmesan cheese, and Blue cheese. Other foods that should be avoided include those that are high in tyramine, such as:Avocados, Bananas, Raisins, Soy sauce, Red wine, Beer, and Chocolate.These foods can cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure, which can lead to a stroke or other serious health problems. It is important to follow your doctor's instructions carefully when taking tranylcypromine and to avoid these foods in order to prevent any complications.

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Medical ethics involves rules that are __________, rather than __________.

Answers

I attach the answers on the picture
Medical ethics involves rules that are __________, rather than __________.

Explain the reason for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers

Answers

Answer:

CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) and HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) modifiers are used in medical billing to provide additional information about the service or procedure being billed for. The purpose of these modifiers is to help ensure that the correct reimbursement is provided for the services rendered, and to provide additional information about the services that may be important for the payer to know.

One of the main reasons for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers is to indicate that a procedure or service was performed multiple times, or that it was performed in a different way than the typical method. For example, if a patient receives two surgeries on the same day, a modifier would be used to indicate that both procedures were performed, and to indicate which procedure was the primary service and which was the secondary service. This allows the payer to bill for both procedures, rather than just one.

Another reason for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers is to indicate that a service was performed in a location that is different from the usual site of service. For example, if a patient receives physical therapy in their home, a modifier would be used to indicate that the service was performed in a different location than the usual site of service. This is important because it affects the reimbursement rate, and it allows the payer to understand the reason for the different location.

Modifiers also used to indicate when a service was provided by a different provider than the one who typically performs the service. This is known as split/shared services and it is used when multiple providers working together on a same service.

In addition, CPT/HCPCS modifiers can be used to indicate that a service was provided to a patient under exceptional or unusual circumstances. This could include a service that is provided to a patient in the emergency room, or a service that is provided to a patient who has a unique medical condition. In these cases, the modifier would be used to indicate that the service was provided in a different way than the typical method, and to indicate the unique circumstances that required the service.

In conclusion, CPT/HCPCS modifiers are used in medical billing to provide additional information about the service or procedure being billed for. They are used to indicate that a procedure or service was performed multiple times, in a different way, at a different location or by a different provider. This additional information is important to ensure that the correct reimbursement is provided and that the payer has a full understanding of the services that were rendered.

Explanation:

Type ________ diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.

Answers

Type two diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.


Hope this helps :)

Type 2 diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.

What is type 2 diabetes?

Diabetes type 2 is a condition that affects the way in which the body controls and uses sugar (also known as glucose) as a fuel. Because of this illness that lasts for a long time (chronic), there is an excessive amount of sugar circulating in the bloodstream. In the long run, having high blood sugar levels can cause problems with the circulatory system, the nervous system, and the immune system.

Diabetes type 2 is primarily caused by two issues that are interrelated. The cells that make up muscle, fat, and the liver all become resistant to the effects of insulin. Due to the abnormal interaction that these cells have with insulin, they are unable to take in the required amount of sugar.

Diet, exercise, and the possible use of oral hypoglycemic drugs are the three components of an ideal treatment plan for type two diabetes. These components work together to help keep blood sugar levels under control.

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i got the orbulon voice changer and it kinda blows but the kitten liked it and got upset about the balloons and stars flying away and dug at the 3ds and bit on the volume slider

Answers

Answer:

nice

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Well, just pull the cat away. A+

a nurse is teaching a client how to properly administer fosfomycin. the nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly points out they will administer the drug in which manner?

Answers

Changes in procedures are thus required as new knowledge becomes available. We advise the reader to always look up the most recent studies.

Whatever testing process should the nurse keep an eye on to gauge the efficacy of the treatment?

Therapeutic drug monitoring, often known as TDM, is a test that quantifies the concentration of specific drugs in your blood. To ensure that the dosage of medication users are getting is both secure and efficient, this is done.

Which gland had a problem would have an impact on aldosterone levels?

Just above the kidneys, there are the adrenal glands. They produce hormones that have an impact on practically all of the body's organs and tissues as a component of the endocrine system. Too little cortisol and, frequently, too little aldosterone are produced as a result of damage to these glands.

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The client has an HDL cholesterol value of 38 mg/dl. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this value

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The most appropriate interpretation of an HDL cholesterol value of 38 mg/dl would be that the value is below the normal range. Or simply, the value is considered to be low.

HDL cholesterol is often referred to as the "good" cholesterol, as it is associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Therefore, it is essential to maintain healthy HDL cholesterol levels to protect against heart disease.High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is a type of cholesterol that is found in the blood. It is often referred to as "good" cholesterol since it aids in the removal of cholesterol from the body, reducing the risk of heart disease. HDL cholesterol levels of more than 60 mg/dL are desirable, according to healthcare experts. Levels of less than 40 mg/dL in men and less than 50 mg/dL in women are considered low and are a risk factor for heart disease. Therefore, an HDL cholesterol value of 38 mg/dl is below the normal range and should be taken seriously.

precautions one should take with low HDL cholesterol levels:

Quit smoking if you smoke.Lose weight if you're overweight or obese.Engage in physical exercise on a regular basis.Eat a diet high in fiber and low in saturated fats.Avoid trans fats, which are commonly found in processed foods.Reduce the amount of alcohol you consume.

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Because the patient seems disoriented, should Theresa even trust what the patient is reporting?

Answers

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

if the patient is crazy and scared and you see it turthfully and its not a lie yes the doctor theresa trust it if the patient wasnt like why she came then for no use

Yes, Take down the the patients stating to you and continue observing her!

the nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit and notes the fundal height is at the umbilicus. the nurse will most likely interpret this finding to indicate which situation?

Answers

This finding will probably be interpreted by the nurse as multiple fetal pregnancy.

What is umbilicus?

The umbilical cord connects to the abdomen at the navel, also known as that of the umbilicus and belly button. The navel can be protruding, flat, or recessed. A navel is present in all placental mammals, though it is typically more noticeable in humans. The abdomen can be visibly divided into four quadrants using the umbilicus. The umbilicus is just a noticeable scar on the belly, and human beings generally have the same position for it. The tenth long thoracic nerve supplies the skin all around waist just at level of a umbilicus (T10 dermatome). The location of the umbilicus varies across individuals normally between the L3 or L5 vertebrae, which corresponds to the junction of the L3 & L4 vertebrae.

Is the umbilicus the belly button and write its fucntions?

Technically known as the umbilicus, your navel is also referred to as the "belly button." Every person has them. Other mammals also have them, but they are often flat or smooth, and frequently simply a thin line that is covered by fur.

The umbilical cord is regarded as the fetus's and mother's physical and psychological connection. This arrangement enables the exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the mother's blood into the fetal blood while also eliminating waste materials from the fetal blood for elimination by the mother.

Briefing:

At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is usually when at level of the umbilicus. The fundal height is therefore higher than anticipated, raising the possibility of multiple gestation, polyhydramnios, fetal abnormalities, or macrosomia. Smaller measures than anticipated could indicate intrauterine growth restriction or a possible lack of amniotic fluid. The uterus would be displaced by urinary retention.

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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom

Answers

Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.

What is adult safeguarding about?

There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.

In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.

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"The protozoan that causes human malaria, Plasmodium falciparum, completes part of its life cycle inside human mature red blood cells (RBCs)... P. falciparum cells contain the most PfSET10 when the intraerythrocyte parasites are in an actively dividing life cycle phase. PfSET10 purified from parasites using antibodies specific for PfSET10 modifies histone H3."Q. The information in the passage suggests that PfSET10 has which function in var gene localization or expression? PfSET10:A. allows active and silent var genes to colocalize in the nucleus.B. marks the chromatin of the active var promoter for reexpression after mitosis.C. marks the chromatin of a silent var promoter to be expressed after mitosis.D. marks the chromatin of multiple var promoters for simultaneous expression.

Answers

The information regarding Plasmodium falciparum in the passage suggests that the function of PfSET10 in var gene localization or expression is to (B) mark the chromatin of the active var promoter for re-expression after mitosis.

Plasmodium falciparum is a single-celled parasitic organism that is responsible for causing malaria. Malaria is a disease that affects humans and other animals, causing fever, fatigue, and other symptoms. The parasite is transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes and enters the human body through the bloodstream.

In the passage, it is mentioned that P. falciparum completes part of its life cycle inside mature human red blood cells (RBCs). During this process, the cells contain the most PfSET10 when the intra-erythrocyte parasites are in an actively dividing life-cycle phase. The PfSET10 protein modifies histone H3 after being purified from parasites using antibodies specific to PfSET10.

In other words, PfSET10 has the function of marking the chromatin of the active var promoter for re-expression after mitosis, in var gene localization or expression. Therefore, the correct option is (B).

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What is dr. Cheong's definition of psychiatry?

Answers

According to Dr. Cheong, psychiatry is a specialty of medicine that focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Psychiatry is a field of medicine that studies the human mind, and psychiatrists are trained medical professionals who specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.

Psychiatrists are trained medical professionals who specialize in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of mental illness and emotional disorders. In addition to this, psychiatry has several sub-specialties, including child and adolescent psychiatry, geriatric psychiatry, addiction psychiatry, forensic psychiatry, and others.

They are qualified to prescribe medications and use psychotherapy and other forms of therapy to help people overcome their mental health problems. They also work with patients to help them understand their symptoms and develop coping mechanisms to manage their symptoms effectively. Overall, the field of psychiatry is dedicated to helping individuals lead happy, healthy lives and overcome their mental health challenges.

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the impact of a noncredible source may correspondingly increase over time if people remember the message better than the reason for discounting it. this delayed persuasion, after people forget the source or its connection with the message, is called the effect.

Answers

The impact of a noncredible source can increase over time if people remember the message but forget the reason for discounting it. This phenomenon is known as the delayed persuasion effect.

When a noncredible source delivers a message, people may initially discount the information due to their awareness of the source's lack of credibility. However, if the message is memorable and sticks in people's minds, they may later recall the message but forget the source's lack of credibility.

For example, imagine a study claiming that eating a specific type of fruit can cure a common cold. If this study is conducted by a known fraud or a source with a history of spreading misinformation, people would likely discount the study's findings. However, if the study's findings are memorable and resonate with people, they may recall the idea of the fruit being a cure without remembering the source's lack of credibility.

As time passes, the memory of the source and its connection to the message may fade, leaving only the memorable message in people's minds. This can lead to the delayed persuasion effect, where the impact of the noncredible source increases over time because people forget to discount the message.

To summarize, the delayed persuasion effect occurs when people remember a message from a noncredible source but forget the reason for discounting it. This can result in the message having a greater impact over time, as the source's lack of credibility is no longer considered when recalling the message.

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linda has been tired and complains of feeling weak for the last 2 to 3 months. blood work shows that she has folic acid deficiency anemia. the code(s) for this case are

Answers

Linda has been tired and complains of feeling weak for the last 2 to 3 months and blood work shows that she has folic acid deficiency anemia so the code for this case are D52.9.

Blood work can offer suppliers info regarding your organs, like the guts, kidneys, and liver. It includes glucose, calcium, and solution tests, yet as blood tests that live excretory organ perform. a number of these take a look at need you to quick (not eat any food) before the test.

Folic acid deficiency anaemia happens once a scarcity of B-complex vitamin or folacin causes the body to provide abnormally massive red blood cells that can't perform properly. Red blood cells carry O round the body employing a substance known as Hb.

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Write a short explanation understandable to a patient's family on why antibiotics are being combined in the treatment of their family member.

Answers

we are adding antibiotics to your (family member enter here) treatment because your (family member enter here) is rejecting the treatment or the treatment is not strong enough.

Failure to notice something that is completely visible because of a lack of attention is called

Answers

Answer:

inattentional blindness

Explanation: The statement of question is the definition

Failure to notice something that is completely visible because a lack of attention is called in-attentional blindness.

A woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to her regular OB/GYN appointment. She has had HTN since 28 weeks. At this visit she is found to have generalized edema, proteinuria of 4, and begins to experience a seizure. She has no history of previous seizure activity. What type of HTN does she exhibit

Answers

Answer:

Preeclampsia with severe features

Explanation:

Preeclampsia with severe features is defined as the presence of one of the following symptoms or signs in the presence of preeclampsia:

- SBP of 160 mm Hg or higher or DBP of 110 mm Hg or higher, on two occasions at least 4 hours apart while the patient is on bed rest (unless antihypertensive therapy has previously been initiated)

- Impaired hepatic function as indicated by abnormally elevated blood concentrations of liver enzymes (to double the normal concentration), severe persistent upper quadrant or epigastric pain that does not respond to pharmacotherapy and is not accounted for by alternative diagnoses, or both

- Progressive renal insufficiency (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL or a doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other renal disease)

- New-onset cerebral or visual disturbances

- Pulmonary edema

- Thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 100,000/μL)

which of the following diseases cannot easily be controlled by vector elimination?

Answers

Malaria is a disease that cannot easily be controlled by vector elimination.

Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite. While vector control measures, such as mosquito nets, insecticide spraying, and environmental management, have been effective in reducing malaria transmission in some areas, completely eliminating the disease through vector elimination alone is challenging.

This is primarily because the malaria parasite has a complex life cycle involving both the mosquito vector and human hosts. The parasite can also develop resistance to insecticides, making vector control less effective over time. Additionally, mosquitoes that transmit malaria can breed in various types of water bodies and have adapted to diverse environments.

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alokwfathovmcflwmutububba

Answers

Answer:

well

Explanation:

what's this I don't understand

ALOKEJSIBERIURHTT dawg me too

while in the postanesthesia care unit, a client reports shortness of breath and chest pain. which is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse?

Answers

1. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula will be the most appropriate response by nurse .

In case of shortness in breath and chest pain supplemental oxygen helps to support the body . Hence, supplemental oxygen can be administered without a prescription in case of emergency. Nasal cannula contains small bore tube that is connected with two short pipes  inserted into the nasal passage to supply oxygen so , considered as one the best emergency tools. Morphine is used to treat  chest pain, but it is not the priority intervention.

Endotracheal intubation is also not the emergency intervention. When the patients condition become worsen and the patient becomes unconscious due to respiratory failure or obstruction in such case endotracheal intubation is advised. Nitroglycerin is used when the patient has chest pain if the pain is cardiac in origin, but it is not the priority intervention and requires a prescription.

The above question is incomplete :

While in the postanesthesia care unit, a client reports shortness of breath and chest pain. Which is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse?

1. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula

2. Administer the prescribed morphine

3. Prepare the client for endotracheal intubation

4. Place a nitroglycerin tablet under the client's tongue

Hence , 1 is the correct option

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typical-atypical interactions: one patient’s experi-ence of weight bias in an inpatient eating disorder treatment setting.

Answers

The article "Typical-Atypical Interactions: One Patient's Experience of Weight Bias in an Inpatient Eating Disorder Treatment Setting" explores a patient's personal account of encountering weight bias during their stay in an inpatient eating disorder treatment facility.

The article focuses on the patient's firsthand experience of weight bias within the treatment setting, highlighting the impact it had on their journey towards recovery. It sheds light on the need for healthcare professionals to be aware of and address weight bias in order to provide compassionate and effective care for individuals with eating disorders. By sharing this patient's story, the article aims to raise awareness about the presence of weight bias in treatment settings and advocate for more inclusive, non-judgmental approaches. The patient's narrative underscores the importance of creating an environment that fosters understanding, support, and acceptance for all individuals seeking treatment for eating disorders.

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A doctor is explaining treatment options to a patient by using complicated medical jargon, and the patient appears to be
confused. This is best described as a(n)

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: Communication barrier

preindopril mechanism of action ?

Answers

Answer:

inhibition of ACE activity.

Explanation:

The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.

Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).

A solution contains 100 mg/mL of a drug, and the recommended dose is 50 mg/lb. once a day. How much solution would be needed for one dose to be administered to a 1 kg kitten

Answers

Answer:

half a solution

Explanation:

110mg is your answer. 1 kg is equivalent to 2.2 pounds. If the recommendation is 50mg per pound, you take 50 (the recommended dose) and multiply it by 2.2 (the kittens weight) and get 110. Hope this helps!

Question 47 (1 point) Starting a resident on medication for depression involves staff members outside of nursing 1) True 2) False Question 48 (1 point) More than half of the nursing facilities in the

Answers

The given statement "Starting a resident on medication for depression typically involves staff members outside of nursing." is true

This process usually involves a multidisciplinary approach where healthcare professionals, including psychiatrists, psychologists, and pharmacists, are involved in assessing the resident's condition, determining the appropriate medication, prescribing the medication, and monitoring the resident's response to treatment.

Nurses may play a role in administering the medication and monitoring the resident's vital signs and side effects, but the decision-making process and prescription typically involve staff members outside of nursing.

Therefore, the given statement is true.

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The complete question is:

Starting a resident on medication for depression involves staff members outside of nursing. 1) True 2) False

The drugs most often associated with addiction and impairment are _____drugs

Answers

Answer:

Psychoactive drugs

Explanation:

The drugs most often associated with addiction and impairment are psychoactive drugs—those that alter a person's experiences or consciousness.

Other Questions
As America moved toward revolution, colonial americans saw improvement in a. social equality and liberty at all levelsb. social equality with the exception of northern mercantilism c. social equality with the exception of southern plantation societies d. social equality with the exception of western settlers 10) Scientists should base their findings on facts rather than opinions.TrueFalse11) If a sample is too small, the results might not be accurate.TrueFalse A dimension of social style that is based on how emotional people tend to get in social situations is knownas___. Please please HELLP!!! Or i will not pass Estimate the equivalent 18-kip single-axle load applications (ESAL) for a four-lane pavement (two lanes in each direction) of a rural interstate highway with a truck count of 1,200 per day (including 2-axle, 4- tire panel, and pickup trucks), an annual growth rate of 4%, and a design life of 20 years. What is the smallest multiple 2and 5 have in commen Pre Calc for one of my classes According to Mr. Frank, how did Anne feel in the concentration camp in Holland?afraid of the Nazi soldiersfatigued from the hard labor dutiessad to be apart from Peterhappy to be outside once again When is it more appropriate to use insertion sort than selection sort? Please help tysm! will mark brainily for whoever answers first and correct ^^What is the volume of the cylinder below?A. 98pi units3B. 784pi units3C. 112pi units3D. 196pi units3 T/F given only the data in the table, for which part(s) of the operon is it possible to identify the exact region it corresponds to? Read the excerpt below from The Call of the Wild and answer the question that follows."Dat Buck two devils," was Francois's rejoinder. "All de tam I watch dat Buck I know for sure. Lissen: some dam fine day heem get mad lak hell an' den heem chew dat Spitz all up an' spit heem out on de snow. Sure. I know."In the excerpt above, Buck is being characterized through:dialogueimageryhis actionsnarration How many days does the lender have to send an adverse action notice to a consumer under the fcra guidance?. Jane__an e-mail from recruiter In applying work adjustment theory to women and culturally diverse populations, Dawis and Lofquist have not addressed differences very much because they have focused on When you make an electronic payment from your checking account, the bank __________ identifies the bank where you have an account. Madeline is comparing her options to borrow $5,000 to buy inventory and equipment for hernew sub sandwich shop. Which loan appears to be the best deal? (Hint: Use the simpleinterest formula to estimate the interest.)O 7 percent interest loan due in two yearsNo answer text provided.O 10 percent interest due in one yearO 8 percent interest due in 18 months classified as an opium would be which of the following an architectural element that projects from a wall to support a horizontal part of a building such as beams or eaves of a roof is called: How did the Code of Hammurabi influence civilizations that followed?A. Civilizations established structures of laws and processes for law breakersB. Civilizations extended rights and freedoms to their accused