Answers
Infants are obligate nasal breathers up until about 6 months of age. After this age, they begin to develop the ability to breathe through their mouths as well.
However, it is important to note that nasal breathing is still the preferred method of breathing for infants and young children, as it helps to humidify and filter the air before it reaches their lungs. Additionally, if there are any issues with the nasal passages or sinuses, such as congestion or inflammation, it can make it more difficult for infants and young children to breathe through their noses.
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Related Questions
6. Changes in circulation may cause an older adult who has been lying or sitting for a while to become confused, dizzy, and possibly stumble or fall when abruptly rising to stand. The appropriate intervention is to:
Answers
Changes in circulation may cause an older adult who has been lying or sitting for a while to become confused, dizzy, and possibly stumble or fall when abruptly rising to stand. The appropriate intervention is to assist the individual to rise slowly
By assist the individual to rise slowly can help prevent the sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur when standing up too quickly and can help reduce the risk of falls and injuries. It is also important to encourage the individual to take their time when getting up and to hold onto a stable surface for support if needed.
Additionally, it may be helpful to provide education to the individual about the importance of moving slowly and safely when getting up from a lying or sitting position. So, changes in circulation may cause an older adult who has been lying or sitting for a while to become confused, dizzy, and possibly stumble or fall when abruptly rising to stand. The appropriate intervention is to assist the individual to rise slowly
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.Xenical is a weight-loss drug that works in the digestive system
Select one:
a. to substitute xylose for glucose.
b. to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat.
c. to produce a full feeling that decreases hunger.
d. as an artificial fat.
Answers
Xenical is a weight-loss drug that works in the digestive system to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat.
Xenical, also known as Orlistat, is a medication used to treat obesity by reducing the absorption of dietary fats. It works by inhibiting the action of an enzyme called lipase, which is responsible for breaking down dietary fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. By blocking the digestion of fat, Xenical reduces the amount of fat that is absorbed into the bloodstream. The undigested fat is then excreted from the body through bowel movements. It is important to note that Xenical should be used in conjunction with a reduced-calorie diet and lifestyle modifications to achieve weight loss goals effectively.
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As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system?
A.
The respiratory muscles shrink.
B.
The lungs expand in size.
C.
The trachea widens.
D.
The airways narrow.
Answers
Answer:
B the lungs expand
Explanation:
As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system the lungs expand in size.
What is respiratory system?The respiratory system is a collection of tissues and organs that facilitates breathing. It consists of your lungs, airways, and blood vessels. The muscles that move your lungs are also a part of the respiratory system. Together, these elements support the body's ability to remove waste gases like carbon dioxide and circulate oxygen.
The minuscule air sacs called alveoli receive the air you breathe in. The walls of the alveoli contain blood vessels known as capillaries. The pulmonary arterial vein carries blood to and from the capillaries as it moves through them.
Therefore, As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system the lungs expand in size.
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please help me I am stuck
Answers
Answer:
D looks fine
Explanation:
According to surveys, what percentage of college students report having consumed alcohol in the past 30 days? A. 10% B. 25% C. 40% D. 60% E. 85%
Answers
According to surveys, the percentage of college students who report having consumed alcohol in the past 30 days is: E. 85%.Alcohol consumption among college students is a widespread phenomenon in the United States.
Several studies have been conducted to establish the prevalence of alcohol use among college students. One such study, conducted by the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, found that four out of five college students drink alcohol. Additionally, over 50% of college students aged 18-22 years reported drinking alcohol in the past month.
The high prevalence of alcohol consumption among college students has been linked to various negative consequences, including poor academic performance, mental health issues, and accidents. Therefore, college students are encouraged to make responsible decisions concerning alcohol use.
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Precautions that can be taken by individuals to prevent travel-related infectious diseases include
A. wash hands with soap and water frequently.
B. get or update vaccinations appropriate for specific destinations.
C. take antibiotics prophylactically for potential bacterial infections.
D. wash hands with soap and water frequently and get or update vaccinations appropriate for specific destinations.
E. wash hands with soap and water frequently, get or update vaccinations appropriate for specific destinations, and take antibiotics prophylactically for potential bacterial infections.
Answers
The most effective way to prevent travel-related infectious diseases is to take necessary precautions before and during travel.
The potential risks can vary depending on the destination and the activities planned. It is important to frequently wash hands with soap and water, especially before eating or touching the face.
Additionally, individuals should ensure that they have received all necessary vaccinations before traveling to prevent potential infections.
Prophylactic antibiotics should only be taken when prescribed by a healthcare professional and only for bacterial infections.
The best option is to follow a combination of precautions such as washing hands frequently, receiving appropriate vaccinations, and taking necessary medications as prescribed.
This can help reduce the risk of contracting and spreading infectious diseases while traveling.
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Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Answers
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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the nurse instructs a client with a history of heart palpitations not to take oral caffeine. the client asks the nurse why, and the nurse explains that nonprescription caffeine should be avoided in clients with what history? (check all that apply.)
Answers
Answer:
Patient with history of stomach ulcers
Patient with history of heart disease
Patient with history of high blood pressure
Explanation:
Caffeine can have adverse effects on individuals with prior histories of these conditions.
The nurse should advise clients with the following histories to avoid nonprescription caffeine:
History of heart palpitations: Caffeine can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which can trigger heart palpitations or arrhythmias in some people.History of anxiety or panic disorders: Caffeine can worsen anxiety symptoms and increase the risk of panic attacks in people with these disorders.History of gastrointestinal problems: Caffeine can aggravate symptoms such as acid reflux, stomach ulcers, and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).History of insomnia or sleep disorders: Caffeine can interfere with sleep patterns and exacerbate insomnia or other sleep disorders.Therefore, the nurse should advise clients with a history of heart palpitations, anxiety or panic disorders, gastrointestinal problems, or insomnia/sleep disorders to avoid nonprescription caffeine.
What do you need to do next before pipetting a different sample?
a. discard the pipette
b. sterilize the pipette
c. adjust the volume
d. discard the tip
Answers
Before pipetting a different sample, it is necessary to discard the tip of the pipette. This is important to prevent any potential cross-contamination between samples.
The first step involves ejecting the used tip into a designated waste container. After discarding the tip, the pipette itself does not need to be discarded or replaced. Instead, it can be used for pipetting subsequent samples after performing the appropriate maintenance steps.
To ensure accurate and reliable results, it is crucial to minimize the risk of cross-contamination between samples during pipetting. By discarding the tip after each use, any residue or potential contaminants from the previous sample are removed, reducing the chance of carrying them over to the next sample. The used tip should be carefully ejected into a designated waste container to prevent accidental contact or mixing with other samples. Once the tip is discarded, the pipette itself can be sterilized or cleaned, if necessary, according to the laboratory's protocols. However, adjusting the volume is not typically required before pipetting a different sample, as long as the desired volume for the new sample falls within the pipette's adjustable range.
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Precertification, Mandatory Second Surgical Opinion, and Concurrent Review are provisions in health insurance policies known as:
Answers
Answer:
Precertification, Mandatory Second Surgical Opinion, and Concurrent Review are provisions in health insurance policies known as utilization review.
What is the name of the teacher who comes to Jesus at night and what does Jesus tell him? (John 3)
Answers
Answer:
Nicodemus
In John's Gospel i believe
Explanation:
CMS develops national coverage determinations on an ongoing basis, and ______ create(s) edits for NCD rules, which are local coverage determinations.
Answers
CMS develops national coverage determinations on an ongoing basis, and Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) create edits for NCD rules, which are local coverage determinations.
1. CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services) continually develops and updates national coverage determinations (NCDs) to set policies and guidelines for covered medical services.
2. Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) are responsible for creating local coverage determinations (LCDs) based on NCD rules.
3. MACs tailor LCDs to specific regions, taking regional needs and medical practices into account.
4. MACs create edits for NCD rules to ensure that the LCDs are consistent with national policies while addressing local requirements.
5. These LCDs help healthcare providers understand which services are covered in their region and how to submit claims for Medicare reimbursement.
Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) create edits for NCD rules, which are local coverage determinations (LCDs).
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Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that:
A. the placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus
B. the duration of the third stage may be as short as 3 to 5 minutes
C. it is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface
D. the major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate
Answers
Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that:B. the duration of the third stage may be as short as 3 to 5 minutes.
During the third stage of labor, the focus is on the delivery of the placenta. The duration of this stage can vary, but it is typically shorter than the first and second stages. It can range from a few minutes to up to 30 minutes. The placenta eventually detaches from the uterine wall, but it does not detach by itself. It requires assistance from contractions and maternal pushing efforts.It is important for the placenta to be delivered intact and complete. The shiny fetal surface of the placenta should appear before the dark, roughened maternal surface. This indicates that the placenta has been expelled completely and there is no retained tissue.Rapid heart rate is not a major risk for women during the third stage of labor. Hemorrhage and uterine atony are the more significant risks associated with this stage. Nurses play a crucial role in monitoring and managing these potential complications to ensure a safe and successful third stage of labor.
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9.In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal bloodpressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?a.Class I, Initial Stageb.Class II, Compensated Stagec.Class III, Progressive Staged.Class IV, Refractory StageANS: BIn compensated stage hemorrhage (Class II), the blood loss is between 750 and 1500 mL.Blood pressure remains normal when the patient is supine but decreases upon standing. Ininitial stage hemorrhage (Class I) blood loss is up to 750 mL, and the patient’svital signsremain normal. Class III hemorrhage (progressive stage) is blood loss of 1500 and 2000 mL.Vital signs are changing. Severe Class IV hemorrhage (refractory stage) occurs when morethan 2000 mL is lost. The patient is lethargic, with severe hypotension.Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik Test Bank
Answers
The patient described in the question is in Class II, Compensated Stage of shock.
Class II, Compensated Stage of shockThe patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing is in Class II, Compensated Stage of shock.
During the Compensated Stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for the loss of blood by increasing the heart rate and constricting the blood vessels. This helps to maintain normal blood pressure while the patient is lying down (supine). However, when the patient stands up, the blood pressure drops (orthostatic hypotension) because there is not enough blood to adequately fill the blood vessels and maintain normal blood pressure.
As the patient progresses through the stages of shock, the body's ability to compensate for the loss of blood decreases, leading to lower blood pressure and organ failure. It is important to recognize and treat shock early to prevent the patient from progressing to the later stages of shock.
here there are another example of stages of shock
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how are critical cross sections identified
Answers
Critical cross-sections are identified by analyzing the structure's context, loadings, critical points, cross-sectional geometry, stress distribution, and comparing calculated stresses with allowable limits.
To identify critical cross-sections, you can follow these steps:
1. Understand the context: Determine the type of structure or object being analyzed (e.g. a beam, a bridge, or a truss).
2. Analyze the loadings: Identify the applied forces, moments, and stresses on the structure.
3. Determine critical points: Locate points where the structure experiences the highest stresses, strains, or displacements due to the applied loadings.
4. Identify the cross-sectional geometry: Examine the cross-sectional shape of the structure at these critical points, taking into account the material properties and dimensions.
5. Evaluate the stress distribution: Calculate the stress distribution across the critical cross sections using engineering principles and mathematical models.
6. Compare with allowable stresses: Compare the calculated stresses to the allowable stress limits for the given material to determine if the cross-section is critical or not.
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Critical cross sections are identified by measuring the neutron cross section in nuclear reactions.
In other words, a critical cross section is the minimum amount of fissionable material that is necessary to maintain a nuclear chain reaction at a constant rate. In addition, critical cross sections are essential for reactor design and safety because they determine the amount of nuclear fuel required to sustain the chain reaction.
The absorption cross section is the most important cross section to consider in reactor design because it is directly related to fuel consumption.The critical cross section can be calculated based on the average neutron flux and the average absorption cross section of a particular material. In general, higher absorption cross sections result in smaller critical cross sections because more fissionable material is required to maintain the chain reaction.
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Della is working with layers on a graphic design project, and she wants to make sure that the layers she creates are not changed accidentally. What should she do to ensure this?
Answers
Answer: Apply a Lock switch
Explanation:
10. How much 6% solution can you make by diluting 350 mL of a 15% solution?
Answers
Answer:
875 ml
Explanation:
True or false. A 12 yearold boy and a 25-year-old girl probably have the same recommended daily intakes of each food group
Answers
Kids and Adults each have very different food intakes. As the kid can eat less he could choose foods that fill him up faster than the regular adult
The lRRt of the propest ia 2. Posind to tep decinal places.)
Answers
Based on the available information, it appears that you are referring to the "IRR" or "Internal Rate of Return" of a project. A higher IRR indicates a more attractive investment opportunity.
The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is a financial metric used to estimate the profitability of an investment or project. It represents the discount rate at which the net present value (NPV) of the project becomes zero. In other words, it is the rate of return at which the present value of expected future cash flows equals the initial investment.
To calculate the IRR, we need to estimate the expected cash flows and the initial investment. Then, we can use trial and error or financial software to find the discount rate that makes the NPV zero.
Here's a step-by-step example of how to calculate the IRR:
1. Identify the cash inflows and outflows associated with the project over its lifespan.
2. Estimate the initial investment, which is usually a negative cash outflow at time zero.
3. Use a financial calculator or software to calculate the IRR by setting the NPV equal to zero.
4. Adjust the discount rate until the NPV equals zero. This will give you the IRR.
5. Round the IRR to the desired decimal places, as specified in the question.
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The toxic effect of a teratogen is MOST likely to occur during the _____ of development—that is, when a specific system or organ is forming most rapidly. A) early stage B) sensitive period C) consolidation D) germinal stage
Answers
The toxic effect of a teratogen is MOST likely to occur during the sensitive period of development—that is, when a specific system or organ is forming most rapidly.
The correct option is option B.
Teratogens are basically those substances which causes the congenital disorders in a particular developing embryo or a fetus. A teratogen is basically anything which a person is exposed to or anything which the person ingests during a pregnancy that is known to cause certain fetal abnormalities.
Medicine, chemicals, drugs, certain infections as well as toxic substances are some examples of the teratogens. Teratogens can also lead to increase the risk for having a miscarriage, a preterm labor or a stillbirth.
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A pharmacy technician would tell a patient about a contraindication if the patient is taking
nitroglycerin for angina.
warfarin along with aspirin.
a laxative to manage constipation.
an analgesic and anesthetic for acute pain.
Answers
Answer:
pharmacy
analgesic and aneSTHETIC
You are at sea on a foggy night. You are trying to find out how far you are from the shore, but the fog is too thick to see anything and your GPS receiver is not working. After a certain time of aimless sailing, you dimly hear two separate foghorns on your port (left) side, perpendicular to your direction of travel. Each foghorn emits a short blast of sound at a pitch of 120 Hz every 2.00 s exactly, and each sounds about as loud as the other. Looking at your map, you see two foghorn locations marked plausibly near what you guess your location to be, and on the map the foghorns are 1.7 km apart, flanking the entrance to a harbor. At a certain time, you notice that you hear the blasts from the foghorns simultaneously. After you have sailed at a steady heading for 22 min at a speed of 8.8 km/h (as measured by your boat’s speedometer), you hear the foghorns exactly out of phase (one honks, then the other, then the first, etc.). Roughly how far are you from the foghorns now? (Hint: Treat the "honks" as if they were wave crests.)
Answers
To determine the distance from the foghorns, we can use the concept of the Doppler effect.
When the foghorns are heard simultaneously, it indicates that you are equidistant from both foghorns. As you hear the foghorns out of phase after sailing for 22 minutes, it suggests a change in the relative frequency of the sound waves. The speed of sound in air is approximately 343 meters per second. The frequency of the sound waves is 120 Hz, which means the time between consecutive crests is 1/120 seconds.
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According to a recent warning from the FDA, grain-free food might be giving dogs a life-threatening heart problem called dilated cardiomyopathy, or DCM. Scientists interested in studying this link were trying to see if there was a difference in the average blood pressure of dogs on grain-free dog food vs the average blood pressure of dogs on food that includes grains. To minimize variation in subjects, scientists measured the initial blood pressure of 30 dogs while each was still on a grain-free diet, and then took a second measurement 8 weeks after each dog was switched to a diet that included grains. What hypothesis test would be appropriate for analyzing the above scenario
Answers
Answer:
paired t-test
Explanation:
The paired t-test is used for samples or variables that belong to the same individual or entity under study. Recall that; if the experiment is to be carried out with each experiment unit being measured twice, then giving an outcome of pairs of observations; Hence, we apply the paired t-test.
which career combines dna technology and medicine? pharmaceuticals paternity testing environmental studies biopesticide development
Answers
The career that combines DNA technology and medicine is paternity testing.
What is DNA technology?More recently there has been a lot of advancement in the field of genetics. What happens in genetics is that there is a lot of research that tries to understand the pattern of inheritance and this has been of a great use to the medical science ever since it became an independent discipline.
The area of DNA technology has been very impotant when it comess to paternity testing. What happens in paternity testing is that we are able to match the DNA of the supposed father and that of the child and look out for similarities.
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7. For some time, Adam has been experiencing fever, lethargy, muscle swelling and
tenderness, and a rash on his face, chest, and eyelids. After a number of blood tests and
treatments with various anti-inflammatory agents, the symptoms have not been
alleviated-in fact, they seem to be worsening. The strength of Adam's upper limb
muscles is measured at significantly below normal (3-) on both sides of his body. Based
on these signs and symptoms, his physician orders a muscle biopsy. Which muscle
disorder does the physician suspect? What questions could the physician ask to aid his
diagnosis, and how can the biopsy help identify the disease affecting Adam?
Answers
For some time, Adam has been experiencing fever, lethargy, muscle swelling and tenderness, and a rash on his face, chest, and eyelids. The physician suspects that Adam might be experiencing a muscle disorder known as dermatomyositis.
Dermatomyositis is an uncommon condition that produces muscle inflammation and a rash on the skin. It is one of a series of muscular illnesses that cause inflammation and edema in the muscles. It differs from other muscle illnesses in that it also causes skin issues. Dermatomyositis refers to symptoms that affect both the muscles and the skin.
The kind of questions that the physician could ask the patient to aid his diagnosis are:
If the patient is experiencing blood when vomitingIf there is any coughIf there is joint painThe main reason why the physician order muscle biopsy is to help unveil mononuclear leukocytes with deteriorating and dead muscle cells.
Therefore, we can conclude that these mononuclear leukocytes are located within the muscle cells and as the patient suffers from Dermatomyositis, they are being deteriorated.
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What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
I don’t get any answer
What is the first Basic Principle of First Aid ?
Answers
Answer:
did that help
Explanation:
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Match each key term with the best description
Key Terms
Descriptions
1
Assalt
Compare current issults with
2.
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Battery
Developo voluntary standards and also
3
Breach of confidentiality
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4 • CAP
5 CAPA
Failure to be privileged medical informatie
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6
Civil actions
Implies voluntary and competent permis
7
CLIAC
medical test or procedure
lotentional offensive touching or use of for
CISI
without consent or legal justification
9. I cow
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10. K
sue for monetary damage
COI
Legal term for an act or threat caning another
11
Defendant
be in fear of media battery
Level of care a sensible pension provides de
12.
Delta check
given circumstances
13
Deposition
1. Nonpeolit oganization focused on patient
Organization formed to assist in adming
14
Discovery
regulations
15
Due care
Organization that offers proficiency testing and
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Fraud
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17
GLPs
Person against whom a complaint is tied
plan that describes corrective and preventative
18
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actions needed to address a problem
19 Implied consent
P. Process in litigation in which both sides exchan
Information about witnesses and evidence
20
Informed consent
O Process in which one any questions anter
21. Invasion of privacy
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Program designed for conta monitoring
22
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Wisk-based, objective approach to OC Bred to
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Ten A recommendations for laboratories dog
SE
Standard of cam
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Answers
Answer:
no I have a great day of school and again and again 5555555gg have a great day of school and again and again and 5555555 but I have a great day of school and I am a very happy birthday party and again and I have to be in the world is the worldExplanation:
hWhat features must be examined to differentiate among the various types of white blood cells?
Answers
Answer:
White blood cells (WBCs) are a part of the immune system that helps fight infection and defend the body against other foreign materials. Different types of white blood cells are involved in recognizing intruders, killing harmful bacteria, and creating antibodies to protect your body against future exposure to some bacteria and viruses.
Explanation:
Hope this helps—good luck :)—xoxo
Collin, a nursing assistant at an assisted living facility, encouraged Anne, an older patient, to go to group bingo. How did Collin support the philosophy of restorative care?
A. by helping the patient do something for herself
B. by emphasizing the patient’s medical diagnosis
C. by acknowledging an increase in deterioration
D. by improving the patient’s self-esteem
Answers
Answer:
A. by helping the patient do something for herself
Explanation:
Answer:
helping the patient do something for herself.
Explanation: