which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

Answers

Answer 1

YMCA 3-minute step test is uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

Cardiorespiratory

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to oxygenate skeletal muscles during prolonged physical activity is referred to as cardiorespiratory fitness. VO2 max serves as the main CRF indicator.

Difference between cardiorespiratory and cardiovascular?

According to William P. Kelley, C.S.C.S., ATC, cardiovascular endurance just affects the heart and blood vessels, whereas cardiorespiratory endurance involves the heart, blood vessels, and lungs. "Since blood is what carries oxygen, cardiovascular endurance and cardiorespiratory function are connected.

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I understand the question you are looking for :

which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

b. Rockport 1-mile walk test

c. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test

d. YMCA 3-minute step test


Related Questions

In regard to clients and patients, practioners have a(n) relationship which requires them to act primarily in the best interests of those they serve.

Answers

Answer:

In regard to clients and patients, practioners have a(n) healthy relationship which requires them to act primarily in the best interests of those they serve.

Explanation:

Health practioners learn communication strategies that allow them to better connect with users of health systems, provide patients with clear information to give them the opportunity to make important and informed decisions throughout the disease process, facilitating to feel them more involved in it and in many cases minimizing the suffering that comes with having a pathology.

When a person goes to the health consultations, they need a solution to certain needs that have arisen related to their well-being. Faced with this situation and in the first place, it requires clear and truthful information from practioners, in this way, the patient can responsibly assume his/her situation and the care to which him/her must submit. In a healthy relationship between practioners and patients, it is important to evaluate the information the patient gives and the appropriate measures in each case, making them more individualized recommendations. The factors that determine the satisfaction of this healthy relationship by patients are: accessibility, responsiveness and understanding, patients manifest a series of needs that, in order to be satisfied, must be previously understood and valued. In this healthy relationship, patients especially value that practioners listen to them and establish affective and assertive communication with them in a language understandable by both parties. These factors are intangible variables, since they are the individual or group behaviors, aptitudes and attitudes that decisively contribute both to the conformation of the patient's perceptions and their satisfaction, and to the value that the health center acquires for them: behavior and motivation of the staff, beliefs, norms and ways of thinking of the organization.

Actively mitotic cells are found in which layer of the epidermis?
a.Stratum lucidum
b.Stratum corneum
c.Stratum granulosum
d.Stratum basale
e.Stratum spinosum

Answers

It would be D, hope this helps

: It is known that drinking alcohol increases the risk of contracting liver cancer. Assume that in an observational study, a group of smokers has a higher rate of liver cancer than a group of nonsmokers. Explain how this result might be due to confounding.

Answers

Answer:

well alcohol has many differnt things in it, alcohol can cause heart desses liver cancer, and meomery lost this can be bad your pactice can start to freek out and theoton you the risk of drinking alcohol is bad

Explanation:

A pharmacy technician might help with MTM by?

Answers

Technicians can provide support or management roles in MTM functions, such as the following: Medical and pharmacy record gathering, organization, and assessment. Medication reconciliation (developing a Personal Medication List) Correspondence with patients, physicians, other health care providers.

Trace a drop of CSF from a lateral ventricle to reabsorption at an arachnoid granulation.

Answers

EMERGENCIES

Normal route of CSF from production to clearance is the following: From the choroid PLEXUS , the CSF flows to the lateral ventricle, then to the interventricular FORAMEN of Monro, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct of SYLVIUS , the fourth ventricle, the two lateral foramina of Luschka and one MEDIAL foramen.

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Answer:

The choroid plexus of the ventricles (70 percent of the volume) produces the majority of CSF; the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles produces the rest. The remaining CSF is produced by transependymal flow from the brain to the ventricles.

A pharmaceutical company is voluntarily conducting a postmarketing study to obtain further proof of the therapeutic effects of a new drug. which phase of drug stydy is this considered?

Answers

The voluntary postmarketing study conducted by the pharmaceutical company is considered a Phase IV study.

Phase IV studies, also known as postmarketing surveillance studies or late-phase studies, are conducted after a drug has been approved and made available on the market. These studies aim to gather additional information about the drug's safety, effectiveness, and optimal use in real-world conditions.

In the case of the pharmaceutical company conducting a postmarketing study voluntarily, it indicates their commitment to further investigate and gather evidence regarding the therapeutic effects of the new drug. This voluntary initiative demonstrates a proactive approach to ensuring the drug's efficacy and safety beyond the initial clinical trials conducted during the earlier phases (Phase I, II, and III).

Postmarketing studies typically involve a larger population and longer duration compared to the earlier phases. They can involve various study designs, such as observational studies or randomized controlled trials, depending on the research objectives. The data collected from these studies can help identify any rare or long-term side effects, assess the drug's effectiveness in specific patient populations, evaluate its real-world effectiveness compared to standard treatments or alternative therapies, and guide further refinements in the drug's use.

In summary, the voluntary postmarketing study conducted by the pharmaceutical company is considered a Phase IV study. It reflects the company's commitment to gathering additional evidence about the therapeutic effects of the new drug in real-world settings and ensuring its safety and optimal use.

Postmarketing studies play a crucial role in gathering real-world evidence about a drug's safety and effectiveness. They provide valuable insights into the drug's performance in larger and more diverse patient populations, helping to identify any rare or long-term side effects that may not have been observed during the earlier phases of clinical trials. Additionally, postmarketing studies contribute to refining the drug's prescribing information, determining its optimal use in different patient subgroups, and assessing its comparative effectiveness against other treatments.

By conducting a voluntary postmarketing study, the pharmaceutical company demonstrates its commitment to ongoing surveillance of the drug's performance and addressing any potential concerns that may arise in the post-approval phase.

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what is best way to avoid e coli

Answers

Answer:

Thoroughly wash hands, counters, cutting boards, and utensils after they touch raw meat. Avoid raw milk, unpasteurized dairy products, and unpasteurized juices (such as fresh apple cider). Don't swallow water when swimming and when playing in lakes, ponds, streams, swimming pools, and backyard “kiddie” pools.

Explanation:

Don’t eat raw chicken

you believe a victim may have a flail chest. what is the next care step you should take?

Answers

The next care step you should take if you suspect a victim may have a flail chest is to call 911.

Flail chest is a serious medical condition where a segment of the rib cage becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall, causing instability and impairing normal breathing. It is considered a medical emergency that requires immediate professional medical attention.

While the other options listed may be relevant in certain situations, calling 911 is the most critical step because flail chest requires specialized medical intervention. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are trained to provide the necessary treatment and transportation to a healthcare facility equipped to handle the condition.

Once emergency services have been activated, they will assess the victim's condition, provide appropriate care, and transport the individual to a hospital for further evaluation and treatment. Prompt medical attention is crucial in managing flail chest to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the victim.

The complete question is:

You believe a victim may have a flail chest. What is the next care step you should take?

- Call 911

- Have the victim sit in a position for easiest breathing

- Position the victim lying on his or her injured side to give more support to the flail area

- Splint the flail area with a small pillow or thick padding loosely bandaged in place

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A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by clostridium difficile. what is an appropriate treatment for this patient?

Answers

The patient should stop taking the cephalosporin and start taking metronidazole as the proper course of treatment.

What intestinal infection is the most typical?

While bacteria and parasites are also significant causes of acute and chronic gastrointestinal illnesses, as well as their aftereffects, the majority of instances are brought on by viruses, with norovirus being the most prevalent.

The majority of hospitalizations and fatalities due to Salmonella in the US are caused by nontyphoidal species.

What symptoms indicate a subsequent infection?The term "secondary" typically denotes symptoms that are more severe and/or persistent.Fever often rises and lasts longer with secondary bacterial infections than with primary ones. While ear pain suggests an ear infection, a runny nose that lasts for more than a few weeks may be a sign of sinusitis.

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should i show my face

Answers

Answer:

yes we want to see your face

middle-aged woman has sought care from her primary provider and undergone diagnostic testing that has resulted in a diagnosis of MS. What sign or symptom is most likely to have prompted the woman to seek care

Answers

Fatigue is typically one of the earliest symptoms of MS


48. A. Drugs that are ______________ are typically considered to
have lower addiction risk.
Shorter acting
longer acting
fat soluble
fat insoluble

Answers

The answer to the question is, "Drugs that are longer acting are typically considered to have lower addiction risk."

Longer-acting drugs are generally classified as drugs that continue to operate in the body for an extended period of time. In contrast to shorter-acting medications, which only persist for a short period before being removed from the system, longer-acting drugs, which can stay in the system for days or even weeks, have a significantly lower addiction risk.The extended-release (ER) and sustained-release (SR) tablets are examples of longer-acting medications. Opioids, amphetamines, and other medications that are typically prone to abuse may be available in this form. These medications help to keep pain or mental illness symptoms under control without the need for frequent dosing.The addiction risk for longer-acting drugs is lower than that for shorter-acting drugs because these drugs do not create as intense a high or withdrawal symptom. People are less likely to take more of the medication than is recommended if the drug's effects last for an extended period.

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Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?

Answers

Personally, I don’t think the researches view is correct. It’s good that they want to help young adults/kids with depression, but when conducting a research project about it on a child/young adult the parents should be included so they can verify that it is okay for their child to participate. And yes, I think it does depend on the nature of the research because it could be a very bad research topic or it could be a helpful one. Either way I think if it is a child or teenager who is asked to participate in these their parents should be included in verifying that it is okay for them to participate.


Hopefully this helped! :)

Why does the blood pressure drop during a heavy bleeding episode?

Answers

Because the volume of fluid in your bloodstream is less your body can't adjust to position changes as well so your blood pressure drops
You are losing Blood so therefore there’s not as much in your body so there’s not as much pressure because of the whole therefore the blood is pushing out in the hole so the blood pressure goes down

Que funciones realiza el sistema circulatorio?

Answers

Answer:

El sistema circulatorio entrega oxígeno y nutrientes a las células y elimina los desechos. El corazón bombea sangre oxigenada y desoxigenada por diferentes lados. Los tipos de vasos sanguíneos incluyen arterias, capilares y venas. :)

I am currently pregnant and have no money please help me I need a doctor

Answers

Answer:

WTH!

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

im so sorry to hear that you could possibly do a water birth though

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. What are teaching points the nurse can discuss with the client?

Answers

Answer:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. ... Extraneous exercise can be harmful to the function of a pacemaker.

Exercise that ranges from moderate to vigorous, such as aerobic activity and strength training, is safe for those who have pacemakers. The best value is obtained by those who start moving after being idle. According to experts, even a brief amount of physical activity contributes to better health.Weightlifting or any other repetitive, severe motion of the upper extremities poses a risk of cracking or damaging the pacemaker's lead, which might render the device ineffective at controlling your heart rate.

Precautions should I take with my pacemaker or ICD?It is generally safe to go through airport or other security detectors. Avoid magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines or other large magnetic fields.Avoid diathermy.Turn off large motors, such as cars or boats, when working on them.

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70. A 36-year-old woman has noted a nodule beneath the skin in her left groin since adolescence. On physical examination, the lesion has a 2-cm diameter and is nontender, soft, rubbery, and movable. Which of the following cell types is most likely to comprise this lesion? A. Adipocyte B. Endothelial cell C. Fibroblast D. Skeletal muscle E. Smooth muscle

Answers

The answer is the adipocyte, letter A.

Going to the pharmacy is "easy" for those of us who can see and hear. What do you think would be barriers and safety implications for those who are challenged in seeing and hearing?

Think of when you go to the pharmacy and the steps you need to take when picking up a prescription. Keep in mind every single step and possible places where confusion could occur for the seeing and hearing impaired.

Do you think going to the pharmacy will be easier now for you that you understand medical terms?

Answers

Barriers for those with sight and hearing impairment going to the pharmacy and picking up a prescription includes:

Difficulty in determining the correctness of their prescription for sight impairmentInability to communicate verbally for persons without the knowledge of sign languageChallenges with describing pain for hearing impaired individuals

Going to the pharmacy will be easier for a normal person once they understand medical terms

What are the barriers in seeking medical aid with the physically challenged?

The barriers faced by the physically challenged involve accessibility, lack of adaptable environment and technology and attitudes of those around them.

People with disability can find themselves in dire situation when it involves getting their prescription, like hearing challenge that comes with breach in communication with pharmacy staff, or not seeing the prescription to verify correctness.

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Which is the most common disorder found in clients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa?

Answers

I think the answer is depression.

What is the primary reason that high fructose corn sweetener is used as a sweetener in most sweet food products produced in the United States today

Answers

High-fructose corn syrup is a common ingredient in packaged foods. Food manufacturers use it because it makes food sweet like sugar, but is less expensive.

Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by
A low birth weight,a small head, and bodily effects
B an increase risk of developing albinism
C genetic defects
D fluid on the brain and a slight paralysis of the muscles of the extremities

Answers

.

A. Low birth weight, a small head, and bodily effects

in autistic children, head banging, spinning in circles, and rocking are behaviors that

Answers

In autistic children, head banging, spinning in circles, and rocking are behaviors that are typically classified as self-stimulatory or repetitive behaviors, also known as "stimming." These behaviors serve various purposes, including self-regulation, communication, and sensory processing.

Self-stimulatory behaviors are common among autistic individuals and can help them cope with overwhelming sensory input, express emotions, or self-soothe during times of stress. Head banging, spinning in circles, and rocking are just a few examples of these behaviors, but there are many other forms of stimming as well. Some autistic children may engage in these behaviors more frequently or intensely than others, and the specific purpose and function of these behaviors can vary from person to person.

For some autistic children, engaging in stimming behaviors like head banging, spinning, and rocking may help them cope with overstimulation or under-stimulation in their environment. These behaviors can provide sensory input that helps them feel more balanced and in control. Additionally, stimming can be a way for autistic children to communicate their emotions, particularly when they have difficulty expressing themselves verbally.

It's important to recognize and respect an autistic child's need to engage in these self-stimulatory behaviors, as they serve a functional purpose and can improve the individual's well-being. However, if a specific behavior becomes disruptive or poses a risk to the child's safety, it may be necessary to explore alternative coping strategies or seek professional guidance.

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Calcium regulation occurs in:
a.) Compact Bone
b.) Spongy Bone
c.) Medullary Cavity
d.) Periosteum

Answers

Answer:

I think it'smedullary cavity

Answer:

C

Explanation:

it is what it is

Use the Internet to research vital signs, the pulse, and blood pressure. Discuss your findings and include these points:
Describe what blood pressure and pulse are and why they are used.
Identify the normal ranges for blood pressure and pulse for adults.
Identify three reasons why a patient would have an elevated pulse.
Describe five risk factors for high blood pressure.
Identify two classifications of drugs used to treat high blood pressure.
Identify two pieces of medical equipment needed to check a patient’s blood pressure.

Discuss these medical terms in your report:
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Hypertension
Hypotension

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 2gm/day po divided into two doses. the amount available is amoxicillin 500mg tablets. how many tablets should the nurse administer with each dose?

Answers

To administer 2gm/day po divided into two doses of amoxicillin (AMOX), if the amount available is AMOX 500mg tablets. The nurse should administer 2 tablets with each dose.

Let's solve the question below:

Given that the amount available is AMOX 500mg tablets.

To find out how many tablets should the nurse administer with each dose, we have to first determine the number of tablets required per day.

To calculate that, we will use the formula:

Dosage required/day

= Total amount of drug required/Total frequency/day

We know that the dosage required per day is 2gm, and it is divided into two equal doses.

Total frequency/day

= 2 doses/day

= 1 dose in the morning and 1 dose in the evening

To convert 2gm to milligrams, we multiply by 1000:2gm × 1000

= 2000mgTherefore,Dosage required/day = 2000mg/day ÷ 2 doses/day Dosage required/day

= 1000mg/dose

Now, to find out how many tablets are needed, we need to divide 1000mg/dose by the strength of each tablet (500mg/tablet):Number of tablets/dose

= Dosage required/dose/Strength of one tablet

= 1000mg/dose ÷ 500mg/tablet

= 2 tablets/dose Therefore, the nurse should administer 2 tablets with each dose.

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Final answer:

A nurse needs to administer two tablets of Amoxicillin 500mg each dose, twice a day. This calculate was made translating the total amount needed (2g) to mg, resulting in 2000mg. Then, divided it by the amount in each tablet (500mg), getting a total of 4 tablets needed per day.

Explanation:

In order to determine how many tablets the nurse should administer with each dose, one must first understand the total amount required per day and the concentration of each tablet. In this case, the patient is required to take 2gm of amoxicillin per day and each tablet of amoxicillin contains 500mg.

Firstly, we need to translate the total daily dose from grams to milligrams as the tablet dosage is in milligrams. So, 1 gram (gm) is equal to 1,000 milligrams (mg), thus 2 gm is 2,000 mg.

Now, we divide the total daily dose (2,000 mg) by the amount in each pill (500 mg): 2,000 mg / 500 mg = 4. Therefore, four tablets of amoxicillin are needed per day.

Since the prescription is divided into two doses, the nurse should administer two tablets of amoxicillin 500mg with each dose.

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Was the deceased on any medication?​

Answers

Find your disease or condition and discover what medication option are…

"What are the most important epidemiological and demographic issues that face health systems, and what are the implications of those issues for healthcare costs?"

Answers

The correct answer to this open question is the following.

Although there are no options attached we can say the following.

The most important epidemiological and demographic issues that face health systems and the implications of those issues for healthcare costs are the following.

1.- Aging populations. 2.- Noncommunicable diseases. 3.- The cost of health services in the elderly. 4.- Different ethnicities or races that are prone to different diseases.

The health costs are getting higher and the quality of service is not increasing to cover the many necessities of the American people across the country.

The new generation of doctors and medical administrative staff are not as well prepared to offer the quality of services that are demanding in today's changing environment. There is a lack of resources or maybe planning, that contemplates the growing number of elderly people and poor people that need continuing medical attention in different parts of the country. Necessities are increasing, people in need are growing, and the health system is facing severe problems to offer proper solutions, as has been shown during this pandemic.

Which statement is true about a member of a Medicare advantage plan who wants to enroll in a Medicare supplement insurance plan?

Answers

Answer:

A member of a Medicare Advantage plan can enroll in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, but they cannot use both plans at the same time. They must choose to enroll in either a Medicare Advantage plan or a Medicare Supplement insurance plan. Once they enroll in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, they will be disenrolled from the Medicare Advantage plan. It's important to note that Medicare Advantage plans often include additional benefits, such as dental and vision coverage, that are not covered by Medicare Supplement plans. Therefore, before enrolling in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, it's recommended to compare the benefits and costs of both options to determine which one is the best fit for the individual's healthcare needs and budget.

When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.

The correct statement is: When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.

Medicare Supplement Insurance Plans, also known as Medigap plans, are designed to work alongside Original Medicare (Parts A and B) to help cover certain out-of-pocket costs such as copayments, deductibles, and coinsurance. Medicare Supplement plans do not include prescription drug coverage, so beneficiaries may choose to enroll in a separate stand-alone Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan.

On the other hand, Medicare Advantage (MA) Plans, also known as Medicare Part C, are an alternative to Original Medicare and are offered by private insurance companies approved by Medicare. MA Plans provide all the benefits of Original Medicare, and many plans also include additional benefits like prescription drug coverage, dental, vision, and hearing services.

A member of an MA Plan can choose to switch to a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan during certain enrollment periods, but doing so does not automatically disenroll them from their MA Plan. Enrolling in a Medicare Supplement plan means they will continue to be covered by Original Medicare and the new Medigap plan, but they will no longer receive the additional benefits provided by their MA Plan.

It's important for beneficiaries to carefully review their health care needs and coverage options before making any changes to their Medicare plan. It's also advisable to consult with a licensed insurance agent or Medicare counselor to ensure they understand the implications of their choices and select the most suitable coverage for their individual circumstances.

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The complete question is:

Which statement is true about a member of a Medicare Advantage (MA) Plan who wants to enroll in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan?

When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.A member does not need a valid election period to disenroll from an MA plan.When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.A consumer can use a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan and an MA Plan at the same time.

What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products

Answers

Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.

What are C3-5 and pse?

The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.

Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.

The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.

As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.

Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.

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