is 5/6 found between 1/4 and 5/8

Answer:3,140

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=75

Step-by-step explanation:

The total degrees of a pentagon is 540

120+120+2(75)+75+75

120+120=240

2(75)=150

75+75=150

240+150+150=540

I BET THE OPTION D WILL BE THE RIGHT ANSWER !!!!

Looking at the summary() of the linear regression model, x1, x2, and x5 seem to be the best predictors.

A linear regression model was fit to a dataset containing information for 30 individuals.

Call:

lm(formula = y ~ x1 + x2 + x3 + x4)

Residuals:

   Min                 1Q              Median            3Q                   Max

-8.2252          -2.5407          0.2879         2.5685             9.7303

Coefficients:

                      Estimate          Std. Error         t-value             Pr(>|t|)  

(Intercept)     3.036e+00       8.819e-01          3.442               0.0017

     x1             -5.917e-01         1.503e-01         -3.927              0.0005

     x2             1.150e+00        1.967e-01          5.845              1.51e-06

     x3             6.792e-02        1.064e-01         0.638               0.5270  

     x4             9.263e-02        1.520e-01         0.608               0.5484  

Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1

x1, x2, and x5 seem to be the best predictors.

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The complete question is:

Which variables seem to be the best predictors of the response variable in the linear regression model, as indicated by the summary() output?

Answer:

The missing value is \(14\).

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide the known denominator by its numerator.

\(4\div2=2\)

Now multiply the quotient by the other numerator (\(7\)).

\(2×7=14\)

or

First, find the factor by which the numerators have been multiplied.

\(2x=7→x=3.5\)

Now, do the same for the denominators.

\(4(3.5)=14\)

Answer:

1002 / 125

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

She was considered the first computer programmer.

Step-by-step explanation:

She wrote about one called the Analytical Engine, and even though it was never built, it came to her conclusion that the computer could follow a series of simple instructions to perform a complex question.

Answer:

$336.44

Step-by-step explanation:

$402.44 - $66 = $336.44

Therefore, there are 72 different orders in which the eight targets can be broken according to the given rules.

To find the number of different orders in which the eight targets can be broken, we can consider the arrangement of the columns and the targets within each column. Since there are three targets in each of the first two columns and two targets in the third column, we can focus on the relative order of breaking the targets within each column. Let's represent the columns as follows:

Column 1: T T T

Column 2: T T T

Column 3: T T

To calculate the number of different orders, we can count the permutations of breaking the targets within each column and then multiply them together.

For Column 1, there are 3 targets, so there are 3! = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 possible orders.

For Column 2, there are also 3 targets, so there are 3! = 6 possible orders.

For Column 3, there are 2 targets, so there are 2! = 2 possible orders.

To find the total number of different orders, we multiply the number of orders for each column:

Total number of orders = 6 × 6 × 2

= 72

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Answer:

Graph the line  

y = 2 x − 4

After you have plotted the line, shade in the area to right of the line.

To help you to graph the line, two points are  

( 0 , − 4 )  and  ( 2, 0 )

Remember to make it a dashed line to indicate that it is not included.

Here is a how it should look:

Answer:

Your answer is 24.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 to the second power is 4 times 4 when is 16 plus y, which is 8 gets you 24.

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute x for 4 and y for 8.  

4^2=16

16+8=24

A toy passed the strength test then the probability that is without finishing defects is 0.938

Given that Factory of wooden toys checks the quality of production before its commercial date.

F: is the toy is w/o finishing defects

S: the toy passes the strength test

P(S(bar)/F(bar)) = P(S(bar)∩F(bar)) / P(F(bar))

= P(F(bar)/S(bar)) × P(S(bar)) / P(F(bar)/S(bar)) × P(S(bar)) + P(F(bar)/S)×P(S)

= (1-0.95) ×0.08 / (1-0.95)× 0.08 + (1-0.92) × 0.92

= 0.02 / 0.098

= 1/4

P(S) = P(S/F)× P(F) + P(S/F') × P(F')

= 0.95 × 0.92 + 0.08 × 0.08

= 0.934

b) P(F/S) = P(S/F)× P(F) / P(S)

= 0.95 × 0.92 / 0.934

= 0.938

Hence, a toy passed the strength test then the probability that is without finishing defects is 0.938

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The quotient rule states that the derivative of a quotient of two functions is equal to the derivative of the numerator divided by the denominator minus the numerator multiplied by the derivative of the denominator divided by the denominator squared.

The quotient rule, also known as the "rule of quotients", is a fundamental concept in calculus that allows us to differentiate functions that are the ratio of two other functions. It states that if we have two functions, f(x) and g(x), then the derivative of their quotient, f(x)/g(x), can be found using the formula:

(d/dx)(f(x)/g(x)) = (g(x) * df/dx - f(x) * dg/dx) / g(x)^2

In other words, the derivative of the quotient of two functions is equal to the derivative of the numerator divided by the denominator minus the numerator multiplied by the derivative of the denominator divided by the denominator squared.

For example, consider the function h(x) = sin(x) / x. To find the derivative of h(x), we can use the quotient rule:

(d/dx)h(x) = (x * cos(x) - sin(x)) / x^2.

The quotient rule is a fundamental tool in calculus and is used in many real-world applications, including optimization, control theory, and the analysis of physical phenomena.

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Answer: how do you do the question what the

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

\(-\frac{43}{70}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

One is given the following equation,

\(\frac{2}{3}*\frac{-3}{7}-\frac{1}{14}-\frac{3}{7}*\frac{3}{5}\)

Simplify, use the order of operations. The order of operations is a sequence by which one must simplify an equation. This sequence is the following,

1. Parehtensis

2. Exponents

3. Mutliplcaiton or Division

4. Addition or subtraction

Simplify the given expression. Remember, when multiplying fractions, one must cancel out like terms or factors that can be found in both the numerator and denominator,

\(\frac{2}{3}*\frac{-3}{7}-\frac{1}{14}-\frac{3}{7}*\frac{3}{5}\)

\(\frac{-2}{7}-\frac{1}{14}-\frac{3}{7}*\frac{3}{5}\)

\(\frac{-2}{7}-\frac{1}{14}-\frac{9}{35}\)

Convert to the least common denominator. In this case, the least common denominator is (70). Remember to multiply both the numerator (number over the fraction bar) and denominator (number beneath the fraction bar) to convert the denominator.

\(\frac{-2}{7}-\frac{1}{14}-\frac{9}{35}\)

\(\frac{-2}{7}*\frac{10}{10}-\frac{1}{14}*\frac{5}{5}-\frac{9}{35}*\frac{2}{2}\)

Simplify,

\(\frac{-2}{7}*\frac{10}{10}-\frac{1}{14}*\frac{5}{5}-\frac{9}{35}*\frac{2}{2}\)

\(\frac{-20}{70}-\frac{5}{70}-\frac{18}{70}\)

\(-\frac{25}{70}-\frac{18}{70}\)

\(-\frac{43}{70}\)

Answer:

Sum less than: 7 (1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (,4,1), (4,2), & (5,1)

Sum divisible by 5 (1,4), (2,3), (3,2), (4,1)

88 cm is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 28 cm.

a three dimensional shape can be defined as a solid figure or an object or shape that has three dimensions—length, width, and height.

A circle is a shape consisting of all points in a plane that are at a given distance from a given point, the centre.

The circumference of a circle with a diameter of 28 cm.

Radius = 28/2

Radius is 14 cm.

Circumference=2πr

=2×3.14×14

=87.92=88 cm

Hence, 88 cm is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 28 cm.

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To make parallelogram WXYZ a square, the following conditions must be met:

1. All four sides of the parallelogram must have equal length.

2. The angles between adjacent sides must be 90 degrees.

Since a square is a special type of parallelogram with all sides equal and all angles equal to 90 degrees, we can determine the value of m that would make WXYZ a square by ensuring that these conditions are met. To find the value of m, we need more information about the dimensions or properties of the parallelogram WXYZ. Please provide additional details or measurements related to the parallelogram. The diagonals of a square are equal in length and bisect each other at 90-degree angles. The perimeter of a square is the sum of all four sides, and the area of a square is calculated by squaring the length of one side.In order for parallelogram WXYZ to be a square, it must have congruent sides and right angles at each vertex.

Since opposite sides of a parallelogram are congruent, we can equate the lengths of adjacent sides to find the value of m that would make it a square.

Let's assume that WX and XY are adjacent sides of the parallelogram.

If WX = XY, then the parallelogram would have congruent sides.

Let's say WX = m and XY = m.

To form a square, the angles at each vertex must be right angles. This means that WX and XY must be perpendicular to each other.

In a square, opposite sides are parallel, so the slopes of WX and XY must be negative reciprocals of each other.

The slope of WX can be represented as (change in y) / (change in x). Since it is perpendicular to XY, its slope will be the negative reciprocal of the slope of XY.

Let's assume the slope of XY is denoted as a. Then the slope of WX would be -1/a.

We can now equate the slopes of WX and XY:

-1/a = (change in y) / (change in x)

Simplifying this equation, we get:

a = -1

Therefore, the slope of XY is -1.

Now, we can equate the lengths of WX and XY:

m = m

Since WX = XY and both sides have length m, we can say that m = m.

So, any value of m would make parallelogram WXYZ a square as long as the sides WX and XY are congruent and perpendicular to each other, with a slope of -1.

hence, the value of m = -1.

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That which is equivalent to tanθ is A sinθ/cosθ

To answer the question, we need to know what tanθ is

Tanθ is a trigonometric identity which is the tangent of the angle .

Now, from the unit circle, with radius, r = 1, we have that tanθ = y/x.

Also, the sine of the angle θ is sinθ = x/1 = x

And also, the cosine of the angle θ is cosθ = y/1 = y

Since we have that

Substituting the values of the variables y and x into tanθ, we have

tanθ = y/x

tanθ = sinθ/cosθ

So, that which is equivalent to tanθ is A sinθ/cosθ

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Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = - (x - 3)² + 15

Step-by-step explanation:

using the method of completing the square

y = x² + 6x + 6 ← factor out - 1 from the first 2 terms

y = - (x² - 6x) + 6

to complete the square

add/subtract ( half the coefficient of the x- term )² to x² - 6x

y = - (x² + 2(- 3)x + 9 - 9) + 6

  = - (x - 3)² + 9 + 6

  = - (x - 3)² + 15

Answer: 22( w + 2 ) =77 and the amount of the water bottle would be 1.50

Step-by-step explanation: i dont know what to write??

In the given formula we have variables:

If we have to solve it for P then it should be called 'Principal' or 'Loan amount'.

If we have to solve it for n then it should be called 'Number of payments' or 'Number of installments'.

Since n is the power of a number we need logarithm to solve it for n.

Answer:

"Principal (loan amount)"

"Term of the loan (in months)" or "Number of monthly payments"

Logarithms

Step-by-step explanation:

Monthly Payment Formula

\(M=\dfrac{Pr\left(1+r\right)^n}{\left(1+r\right)^n-1}\)

where:

If we solve for P, the name of the formula is "Principal (loan amount)".

If we solve for n, the name of the formula is "Term of the loan (in months)" or "Number of monthly payments".

When solving for n, we need to use logarithms:

\(\boxed{\begin{aligned}M&=\frac{Pr\left(1+r\right)^n}{\left(1+r\right)^n-1}\\\\M(\left(1+r\right)^n-1)&=Pr\left(1+r\right)^n\\\\\frac{\left(1+r\right)^n-1}{\left(1+r\right)^n}&=\frac{Pr}{M}\\\\1-\frac{1}{\left(r+1\right)^n}&=\frac{Pr}{M}\\\\\frac{1}{\left(r+1\right)^n}&=1-\frac{Pr}{M}\\\\\left(r+1\right)^{-n}&=1-\frac{Pr}{M}\\\\\ln \left(r+1\right)^{-n}&=\ln \left(1-\frac{Pr}{M}\right)\\\\-n\ln(r+1)&=\ln\left(1-\frac{Pr}{M}\right)\\\\n&=\frac{-\ln\left(1-\frac{Pr}{M}\right)}{\ln(r+1)}\end{aligned}}\)

Answer:

14.375 Or 115/8

Step-by-step explanation:

since 8 7/8 = 71/8 and 7 5/6 = 47/6 and 2 1/3 = 7/3

then 71/8 + ( 47/6 - 7/3) = 115/8

The probability that a randomly selected tire will last less than 60,000 km is approximately 0.0122 or 1.22%.

The esteem of 37,000 miles can be normalized by employing a typical conveyance with a mean of 46,000 miles and a standard deviation of 4,000 miles.  

 z = (x - μ) / σ = (37,000 - 46,000) / 4,000 = -2.25

where x = selected tire value, μ = population mean, and σ =population standard deviation.

You can then use a standard normal distribution table or calculator to find the probability that any standard normal variable is less than -2.25. The range to the left of -2.25 is approximately 0.0122.

Therefore, the probability that a randomly selected tire will last less than 60,000 km is approximately 0.0122 or 1.22% (rounded to four decimal places). 

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Aubrey, for solving this problem we will use the Pythagorean theorem.

Step 1: We have the lenght of the Legs:

• Leg 1 = 12 ft

• Leg 2 = 5 ft

Step 2: Now, we can calculate the length of the hypotenuse or the actual distance across the pond, this way:

a² = b² + c²

a = √b² + c²

a = √12² + 5²

a = √144 + 25

a = √169

a = 13 ft

Step 3: Finally, we need to convert ft to yards, as follows:

13 ft = 13/3 yards

13 ft = 4 1/3 yards

b)There are 0.10608 experimental outcomes that result in exactly one defect being found.

c) The probabilities of finding no defects, exactly one defect, and two defects are:

P (no defects) = 0.8836
P (1 defect) = 0.10608
P (2 defects) = 0.0036

b. To find the number of experimental outcomes that result in exactly one defect being found:

We can use the binomial distribution formula. The formula is:

\(P(x) = (n choose x) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)\)
where:
- P(x) is the probability of finding exactly x defects
- n is the total number of parts we select (in this case, n = 2)
- p is the probability of finding a defect in one part (in this case, p = 0.06)
- (n choose x) is the binomial coefficient, which represents the number of ways to choose x items out of n.

So for exactly one defect, we have:

\(P(1) = (2 choose 1) * 0.06^1 * (1-0.06)^(2-1) = 2 * 0.06 * 0.94 = 0.10608\)
Therefore, there are 0.10608 experimental outcomes that result in exactly one defect being found.

c. To compute the probabilities associated with finding no defects, exactly one defect, and two defects:

We can use the same binomial distribution formula with different values of x:

- P(no defects): x = 0

\(P(0) = (2 choose 0) * 0.06^0 * (1-0.06)^(2-0) = 1 * 1 * 0.8836 = 0.8836\)

Therefore, the probability of finding no defects is 0.8836.

- P(1 defect): we already calculated this in part b.

P(1) = 0.10608

Therefore, the probability of finding exactly one defect is 0.10608.

- P(2 defects): x = 2

\(P(2) = (2 choose 2) * 0.06^2 * (1-0.06)^(2-2) = 1 * 0.0036 * 1 = 0.0036\)

Therefore, the probability of finding two defects is 0.0036.

In summary, the probabilities of finding no defects, exactly one defect, and two defects are:

P (no defects) = 0.8836
P (1 defect) = 0.10608
P (2 defects) = 0.0036

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The standard deviation of the costs is 37 Dhs

The given mean is 173 and 3% of costs exceed 243. We have to calculate the standard deviation of the cost. Therefore, let's first start by calculating the z-score as follows;z-score formula = `(x - μ) / σ`z-score = `243 - 173 / σ`z-score = `70 / σ`We need to find the standard deviation of the costs. Since the z-score formula includes standard deviation, we can first calculate the z-score and then use it to calculate the standard deviation.Using the z-table, we can find the z-score for 3% = -1.88-1.88 = (243 - 173) / σσ = (243 - 173) / -1.88σ = -70 / -1.88σ = 37.23≈ 37The standard deviation of the costs is 37 Dhs. Hence, the correct option is as follows.Option D is the correct option.

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Answer:

5800 x 0.0135 = 78.3

78.3 x 3 =234.9

78.3/2 = 39.15

234.9 + 39.15 = 274.05

Your answer is 274.05

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

The balance in her account at the end of 3.5 years is  $6074.05.

The balance in her account is the sum of the interest earned and the amount of money deposited.

Simple interest = amount deposited x time x interest rate

$5800 x 0.0135 x 3.5 = $274.05

Balance = $274.05 + $5800 = $6074.05

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