Answer: The answer is B
Hope this helps.
a single-celled protozoan with a selectively permeable membrane that is placed in a hypertonic glucose solution. so the glucose will enter the cell by diffusion. Option B is the correct answer.
What is the tonicity of the solution and how does glucose enter in cell?Solvent and solute combine to form a solution. Depending upon the concentration of solute, the solution is of three types: hypertonic solution, hypotonic solution, and isotonic solution. The solute concentration in a hypotonic solution is less than the solvent concentration. The solute concentration in a hypertonic solution is greater than the solvent. In an isotonic solution, both the solute and solvent concentrations are equal.
When the cell is placed in a hypertonic glucose solution, the cell takes glucose into the cell by certain transporters or channels. Glucose is a polar molecule that cannot easily pass through the membrane. Hence, there are many transporters and channels present in the cell membrane. The movement of glucose is called "facilitated diffusion." No energy is required.
Hence, option B is the correct answer, as the glucose is diffused.
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Calvin steps into a pothole and twists his ankle at the bon- fire. He is in a great deal of pain and cannot stand on the ankle . In the hospital, the examining physician notes that Calvin plantar flex and dorsiflex the foot but cannot perform inversion without extreme pain. Explain what this means. What structure could he have injured?
Answer:
He sprained his ankle. The structures that he could have damaged are his ankle's ligaments.
Explanation:
Calvin twisted his ankle, which caused an ankle sprain. In an ankle sprain, the ligaments, which keep together the bones and contribute to the movement of or feet, are damaged. Depending on the severity of the sprain, the ligaments could be over-stretched or torn, causing pain when moving the feet.
DNA activities occur during specific parts of the cell cycle. When does DNA synthesis occur?
O S phase of intephase
O G1
O G2
O Mitosis
Answer: s
phase of interphase
Explanation:
why is gasoline organic
Answer:
Gasoline is a complex mixture of many organic compounds, with various additives that provide for a suitable automobile fuel. It is produced through refining operations from crude oil, which is a natural blend of many different hydrocarbons found in underground reservoirs in certain parts of the world.
Answer: because it has complex mixture of many organic compounds, with various additives
what does alpha hemolysis look like on blood agar? what do bacteria do to rbcs to produce the typical color of alpha hemolysis
Alpha hemolysis looks like green or brown discoloration on blood agar. Bacteria will partially hemolyze the RBCs in the blood agar.
Blood agar is a multipurpose, enriched medium that is frequently used to cultivate fastidious organisms and distinguish bacteria according to their hemolytic capabilities.
The oxidation of hemoglobin from red blood cells to methemoglobin in the media around the colony is known as alpha hemolysis. As a result, the medium becomes stained green or brown discoloration around the colonies.
The bacteria present in the blood agar produce hydrogen peroxide. This will partially hemolyze the red blood cells in the agar and convert the hemoglobin to methemoglobin.
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extracellular fluid includes about ___ % of total body water
Extracellular fluid, including interstitial fluid and plasma, comprises about 20% of the total body water volume.
The percentage of total body water that is comprised of extracellular fluid is approximately 33%.
The human body is composed of approximately 60% water, and this water is divided into two main compartments: intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF). The intracellular fluid refers to the fluid contained within the body's cells, while the extracellular fluid refers to the fluid outside the cells.
Within the extracellular fluid compartment, there are two main subcompartments: interstitial fluid (fluid that surrounds the cells in tissues) and plasma (the fluid component of blood). Together, interstitial fluid and plasma make up the extracellular fluid.
The approximate distribution of body water is as follows:
Intracellular fluid (ICF): 40% of total body water
Extracellular fluid (ECF): 20% of total body water
Interstitial fluid: 15% of total body water
Plasma: 5% of total body water
Therefore, extracellular fluid, including interstitial fluid and plasma, comprises about 20% of the total body water volume.
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Members of the group a streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following except
A. Strep throat
B. Scarlet fever
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Pharyngitis
E. Epiglottitis
OPTION E is correct - Epiglottitis
When the epiglottis, a tiny cartilage "lid" that covers the windpipe, expands, it is said to have epiglottitis. The swollen area prevents air from entering the lungs. Epiglottitis may result in death. The epiglottis can enlarge for a variety of reasons. These causes include throat injuries, infections, and burns from hot liquids.
Anyone can develop epiglottitis at any age. Once, it was mainly understood by kids. Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) bacterial infection was the most frequent cause of epiglottitis in youngsters. The bacterium also brings on blood infections, meningitis, and pneumonia.
Epiglottitis in children is now uncommon thanks to the widespread use of the Hib vaccine for infants. It increasingly affects more adults. To avoid fatal complications, the condition needs to be treated right away.
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Which type of rancidity results from the exposure of fat to oxygen?
a. Regular rancidity
b. Oxidative rancidity
c. Hydrolytic rancidity
d. Flavor rancidity
The type of rancidity that results from the exposure of fat to oxygen is oxidative rancidity. Option B.
What is Rancidity?Rancidity is the term used to describe the bad odor or taste that results from the deterioration of fats and oils present in food products. The taste and odor of a food product are significant indicators of its freshness and quality. When fats and oils break down, it leads to a change in the odor, taste, and appearance of the food, resulting in the food's spoilage. The type of rancidity that results from the exposure of fat to oxygen is oxidative rancidity.
However, when fats and oils are exposed to oxygen, they become rancid due to the presence of unsaturated fatty acids. The oxygen in the air reacts with the unsaturated fatty acids, leading to the formation of peroxides and free radicals, which causes oxidative rancidity.
Therefore, option b - oxidative rancidity - is the correct answer.
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insecticide resistance if the frequency of a gene for insecticide resistance is (a constant), then its frequency in the next generation is given by the expression
If an insecticide-resistant gene's frequency is constant, the expression for the gene's frequency in the following generation is given by
\(f = \frac{p * (1 + s)}{1 + sp}\)
where s represents the reproductive advantage this gene has in the presence of the pesticide compared to the wild type.
Insecticide resistance: what is it?
Organophosphates, carbamates, pyrethroids, neonicotinoids, and other types of insecticides that have a similar chemical makeup and method of action are classified into groups of insecticides (MOA). The precise mechanism by which an insecticide kills an insect or prevents its growth is known as MOA.
A pest population's susceptibility to a certain insecticide or set of insecticides changes heritably over time, which is referred to as insecticide resistance. The term "pesticide-resistant" refers to insects that consistently resist being sufficiently controlled by the registered rate of an insecticide. In areas with high levels of pesticide resistance, applying insecticides at many times the usual rate may not have any impact on bug populations.
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heeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeelp ppl and thanks
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer:
B
Explanation:
hope this helps :D Have a great day :3
4 If the Federal Government creates new
regulations requiring every vehicle to include
GPS anti-theft devices, what will happen to the
overall supply of vehicles?
A. The quantity supplied of vehicles will decrease
B. The quantity supplied of vehicles will increase.
C. The supply of vehicles will increase
D. The supply of vehicles will decrease
Answer:C The supply of vehicles will increase
Explanation:
The strength of a feedback loop is ________.
A. The sum of the positive link strengths in the loop
B. The sum of all the link strengths in the loop
C. The product of all the link strengths in the loop
D. The sum of the positive link strengths divided by the sum of the negative link strengths in the
loop
The strength of a feedback loop is the sum of all the link strengths in the loop.
What is the efficiency of a feedback loop functions?A feedback loop's overall strength is the sum of the strengths of each of its individual parts. As a result, the impacts are multiplicative rather than additive. The feedback is much reduced in a chain of strong connections with one incredibly weak link. The feedback loop is broken and the feedback is lost if one link breaks.
What is meant by the phrase "biological feedback loop"?A biological phenomenon known as a feedback loop occurs when a system's output either amplifies the system (positive feedback) or suppresses the system (negative feedback) (negative feedback). Feedback loops are essential for maintaining balance in living systems.
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PLEASE solve number 1 and 2 because i don’t get it , don’t mind my answers
Answer:
1) RNA strand = UCA GCA AAU
2) Amino acids: Asparagine Arginine Stop
(ASN) (ARG) (STOP)
Explanation:
Some theory that you need to know to answer the question:
Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them that couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid through the action of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthase enzyme. The whole complex, amino acid + enzyme + tRNA is named aminoacyl-tRNA. Considering that there are twenty amino acids available, there are also twenty complexes of aminoacyl-tRNA, one for each amino acid.
tRNA allows amino acids to align according to the nucleotidic sequence in the mRNA molecule.
Once the new amino acid joins the growing peptidic chain, the binding between the amino acid and the tRNA molecule breaks. The tRNA is now free to join another amino acid and repeat the cycle.
Now, to fill in the boxes, you need to pay attention to two things:
• Anticodon: In this box, you need to place the sequence of bases that pairs with the mRNA codon.
• Amino Acid: In this box, you need to place the amino acid that is codified by the mRNA codon.
For instance, let us say that the codon of mRNA is CUC. The anticodon for this sequence is GAG (because guanine joins cytosine and adenine joins uracyl).
The amino acid places on the 3´extreme of the tRNA molecule will be the one that is codified by the codon, NOT the anticodon. So, as the codon is CUC, the amino acid will be Leucine, Leu. Do not use the anticodon GAG to fill these boxes. Remember that tRNA is translating information carried by the mRNA, so we need to use this information to grow the protein.
1)
Strand of DNI → AGT CGT TTA
Each of these letters are bases → Adenine, A - Guanine, G - Thymine, T - Cytocine, CEach of these three-lettered groups are codons.So, we need to pair these bases, knowing that:
Adenine (A) and guanine (G) derive from purines, while Thymine (T) Uracile (U), and Cytosine (C) derive from Pyrimidines.
In the DNA molecule, Adenine (Purine) always pairs with Timine (Pyrimidine), while Guanine (Purin) forms pairs with Cytosine.
In the RNA molecule, Adenine is paired with Uracil, U. So, whenever there is an Adenine in the DNI strand, it pairs with Uracil of RNA strand. If there is a Thymine in the DNI strand, it pairs Adenine of the RNA strand. And, as always, Guanine pairs with Cytosine.
A ⇒ UT ⇒ AG ⇔ CKnowing how to pair bases, we can fill the RNA molecule boxes.
Strand of DNI → AGT CGT TTAStrand of RNA → UCA GCA AAUA ⇒ U C ⇒ G T ⇒ A
G ⇒ C G ⇒ C T ⇒ A
T ⇒ A T ⇒ A A ⇒ U
2)
Now we need to translate these new codons of mRNA to amino acids.
To fill the boxes you should have a genetic code chart to see the codons that codify for each amino acid.
Codon: AAU CGA UAG
Amino acids: Asparagine Arginine Stop
(ASN) (ARG) (STOP)
The new protein is synthesized from the amino terminus to the carboxy terminus of the mRNA molecule. The added amino acids to the chain are coded by a codon formed by three bases in the mRNA. mARNs also have a start and end codon that are the signals of the synthesis initiation and finish. When the ribosome reaches a stop codon, protein synthesis is over.
What are the characteristics of stratified squamous epithelium?
Squamous epithelium is a type of tissue that lines the surface of many organs in the body. The characteristics of stratified squamous epithelium are : it is composed of multiple layers of cells, it is keratinized
Stratified squamous epithelium is a type of squamous epithelium that is made up of multiple layers of cells.
One of the main characteristics of stratified squamous epithelium is that it is composed of multiple layers of cells. The top layer, also known as the surface or squamous layer, is made up of flat, scale-like cells called squamous cells. These cells are tightly packed together and provide a barrier against physical trauma, infection and desiccation. The bottom layers are cuboidal or columnar cells and are responsible for cell proliferation and differentiation.
Another characteristic of stratified squamous epithelium is that it is keratinized. This means that the cells in the surface layer contain a protein called keratin, which helps to protect the surface from damage and dehydration.
Stratified squamous epithelium is found in many parts of the body, including the skin, oral cavity, esophagus, and vagina. It is also found in the surface of certain internal organs like the bladder, where it is known as transitional epithelium.
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Suppose that instead of external degradation, B. Caccae used an internal degradation strategy to digest polysaccharides. What happens to microbial diversity? increase in microbial diversity
decrease in microbial diversity no change in microbial diversity
If B. Caccae used an internal degradation strategy to digest polysaccharides, it is likely to result in a decrease in microbial diversity.
Microbial diversity refers to the variety of microorganisms present in a particular environment. The breakdown of complex polysaccharides is a crucial process in many microbial ecosystems, and different microbial species can play a role in this process using various strategies. External degradation involves the secretion of extracellular enzymes to break down polysaccharides, allowing other microbes to take up the breakdown products. On the other hand, internal degradation involves the uptake of polysaccharides by the degrading microbe, which breaks them down internally.
If B. Caccae were to switch from external to internal degradation, it would likely reduce the availability of polysaccharides for other microbes in the ecosystem, leading to a decrease in the diversity of microbes that rely on polysaccharides as a food source. Other microbes that cannot break down polysaccharides internally may be outcompeted, leading to a decline in their populations.
In summary, the switch to an internal degradation strategy by B. Caccae is likely to reduce the diversity of polysaccharide-degrading microbes in the ecosystem.
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name the system of which each of the following organ belong Blood, Eye, uterus
Answer:
Blood - Circulatory System
Eye - Sensory System
Uterus - Reproductive System
Which of the following would be most important to assess before administering calfactant? (Select all that apply.)
-Abdominal girth
-Lung sounds
-Endotracheal tube placement
-Bowel sounds
-Oxygen saturation levels
The most important factors to assess before administering calfactant are lung sounds, endotracheal tube placement, and oxygen saturation levels. Options B, C and E are correct.
Calfactant is a medication used for the treatment of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in premature infants. Before administering calfactant, it is crucial to assess the lung sounds to determine the severity of the respiratory distress and the effectiveness of the current ventilation support.
Abnormal lung sounds may indicate the need for immediate intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Assessing the placement of the endotracheal tube is essential to ensure proper delivery of calfactant directly into the airways.
Incorrect placement can lead to inadequate medication delivery or complications. Thus, options B, C and E are appropriate.
The complete question is:
Which of the following would be most important to assess before administering calfactant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal girth
B) Lung sounds
C) Endotracheal tube placement
D) Bowel sounds
E) Oxygen saturation levels
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Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs.
Match the factors with the way in which they can affect a local climate.
Answer:
Latitude- Johannesburg, South Africa, has higher average annual temperatures than Dublin, Ireland.
Ground cover- City officials use a mixture of crushed gravel and limestone instead of blacktop for the new bike trail.
Topography- The leeward side of a mountain receives far less rainfall than the windward side.
Bodies of water- At night, a coastal community enjoys milder temperature than its sister city farther inland.
Elevation- Air molecules are more loosely packed near a mountain peak than they are near the mountain's base.
Explanation:
Answer: right on plato
Explanation:
Ap biology hw campbell
An organelle found in the cells of plants and some algae called a chloroplast is where photosynthesis, the process by which solar energy is transformed into chemical energy for growth, takes place.
What are the function of organelles of chloroplast?The liquid that fills the inside space of the chloroplasts, which enclose the grana and the thylakoids, is known as stroma.
The stroma is now understood to include chloroplast DNA, starch, and ribosomes in addition to the enzymes required for the Calvin cycle and maintain the pigment thylakoids.
Therefore, in chloroplast all organelle work in coordinated way.
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are the colonies of the organism streaked in this question pigmented? is the pigment soluble or non soluble
Answer:
Soluble in water
Explanation:
There are various pigments which are produced by bacteria. These pigments can be soluble or insoluble in water. Bacteria's have potential to produce diverse bioproducts. The pigments produced by bacteria are of different colors. These pigments are used to add color to textile or paint.
Two plants are grown in different yards. One yard has plenty of water and almost no sunlight. Both plants have inherited genes that allow them to grow. Do you think these plants will grown to the same height? Explain your answer.
Answer:
No they won't be the same height because the plant with sunlight will be longer than the one with almost no sunlight this is because plants are drawn to light, so if there is almost no sunlight then the plant dons't really grow.
Explanation:
They won't be the same height because plants are drawn to light, therefore if there is little to no light, the plant doesn't really grow. Instead, the plant with sunshine will be longer than the one with nearly little sunlight.
What is photosynthesis?The process by which plants convert carbon dioxide, water, and sunshine into oxygen and sugar-based energy is known as photosynthesis.
Plants wilt when they are not adequately watered. Turgor, or the pressure of water inside the cells that make up the plant's skeleton, is to blame for this. Through the stem of a plant, water enters and ascends to the leaves.
Plants are attracted to light, so if there is little to no light, the plant won't actually develop, and they won't be the same height.
Instead, the plant that receives more sunlight will be longer than the one that receives almost no sunlight.
Thus, this can be the scenario for the given experimentation.
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the egg of a wasanabina beetle has 5 chromosomes. how many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a wasanabina beetle?
There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in somatic cells; one member of every pair is paternal (from the daddy) and one maternal (from the mom). There are 22 matched pairs of autosomal chromosomes, plus one pair of intercourse chromosomes.
Turner syndrome (also known as monosomy X) is a condition because of monosomy. ladies with Turner syndrome typically have the best replica of the X chromosome in every cell, for a total of forty-five chromosomes per cellular. not often, some cells end up with whole extra units of chromosomes.
Definitions of the somatic chromosome. any chromosome that isn't a sex chromosome; appears in pairs in body cells however as single chromosomes in spermatozoa. synonyms: autosome. form of: chromosome. a threadlike strand of DNA within the mobile nucleus that incorporates the genes in a linear order.
Inside the human genome lie about 20,000 genes that encode proteins, the molecules that sincerely construct human cells and our bodies, plus many other DNA factors that control while, in which, and what sort of every gene is expressed (Ezkurdia et al., 2014).
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What is the main cause of competition between two species?
Answer: Overlap in niches-
Explanation:
true or false Two genes that are separated by 10 map units show a recombination percentage of 10%.
Recombination rates for two genes separated buy 10 map units are 10%. True—1% of two genes recombining is represented by one map unit.
How do genes differ from DNA?Your DNA is what builds and keeps up your human structure. Genes are parts in your DNA that are responsible for your unique physical characteristics.
What are genes, and what different kinds are there?A little DNA segment called a gene. Millions of little molecules known as bases make up DNA. A, C, T, & G are the four distinct chemical kinds. A gene is a sequence of DNA composed of an As, Cs, Ts, and Gs sequence. Every of your cells has around 20,000 of your genes due to how little they are.
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What is the relationship between the two parts of the nervous system?
The central nervous system controls thoughts and feelings, while the peripheral nervous system controls movement.
The peripheral nervous system transfers impulses to and from the central nervous system, where the information is processed.
The peripheral nervous system carries information into the body, while the central nervous system carries signals to the muscles and glands.
The central nervous system processes information and stores memory, while the peripheral nervous system controls hormones and feelings.
Answer:
Explanation:
The relationship between the two parts of the nervous system are: The peripheral nervous system transfers impulses to and from the central nervous system, where the information is processed.
Answer:
The peripheral nervous system transfers impulses to and from the central nervous system, where the information is processed.
Explanation:
I had taken this test and got it wrong when i looked at it and its this one.
what is an anther in a flower for?
Complete the following analogy.
Blood vessels are to animal as_____ are to plant.
•leaves
•xylem and phloem
•dermal tissue
Answer:
xylem and phloem
Explanation:
Xylem and phloem are basically the blood vessels of plants because they transport substances.
Answer:
dermal tissue
Explanation:
because epidermal cells are flattened and very close togother stomata ate found in the dermalbtissue
What does the stomach have in common with the blood vessels, the arrector pili muscles, and the bronchioles?
Arrector pili muscles stomach have in common with the blood vessels.
The appendageal structures of the skin include the hair follicle, sebaceous gland, the apocrine gland, and the arrector pili muscle (APM), these structures are all located in the dermis and are functionally and anatomically related.
The contraction of these muscle are involuntary, in response to Stresses such as cold, fear .Thick skin also contains no arrector pili muscles, which cause goosebumps. Thick skin is thicker because it contains an extra layer in the epidermis, called the stratum lucidum.
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how is the stomach lining protected from the caustic acid ph of its contents?
Answer:
Mucous cells secrete a protective lubricant into the stomach. It releases a hormone called gastrin, which stops gastric juice secretion. Parietal cells secrete a protective buffer to neutralize hydrochloric acid.
Explanation:
list two examples of biotechnology that involve recombinant dna technology
Recombinant DNA technology is a technique that involves joining DNA molecules from two different sources, and is commonly used in biotechnology.
Two examples of biotechnology that involve recombinant DNA technology are:1. Genetic engineering of crops:In agriculture, recombinant DNA technology has been used to create genetically modified crops that are resistant to pests and diseases, as well as to produce higher yields. For example, scientists have used recombinant DNA technology to insert genes into crops that make them resistant to herbicides or to produce higher levels of vitamin A.2. Production of pharmaceuticals:Recombinant DNA technology is also used to produce pharmaceuticals, such as insulin. Scientists can use recombinant DNA technology to produce human insulin in bacteria, which can then be harvested and used to treat diabetes. Other pharmaceuticals produced using recombinant DNA technology include vaccines, growth hormone, and clotting factors.
Genetic engineering of crops:In agriculture, recombinant DNA technology has been used to create genetically modified crops that are resistant to pests and diseases, as well as to produce higher yields.
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the movement of substance through the cell membrane without the use if cellular energy
Answer:
That's is called passive transport.
Explanation: