Answers
Using the Mosteller formula, we use the following equation to determine the child's dosage based on BSA:
BSA = (height in cm x weight in kg / 3600)\(^(1/2)\)
BSA = \((39 cm x 12 kg / 3600)\)^\((1/2)\) = 0.22 m₂
The dosage is calculated by multiplying the BSA by the prescribed dose:
Dosage = BSA ₓ prescribed dose
Dosage = \(0.22\)m₂ ₓ\(500\) mg/m₂ = \(110 mg\)
As a result, 110 mg would be the recommended dose for the 26-month-old boy. The closest option, option 65 mg, is the only one that comes close to matching this dosage. However, this is not the answer that should be given.
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Related Questions
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) should be administered when? What four areas does the DDST focus on? Give two (2) examples of each.
Answers
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is an instrument for the early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years to identify children who may require intervention. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.
The personal-social domain involves social behavior and interactive play. Here are two examples of personal-social domain items: follows a moving object with their eyes and offers a toy to an adult to be shared.The fine motor-adaptive domain focuses on a child's eye-hand coordination, small muscle development, and precision. Here are two examples of fine motor-adaptive domain items: imitates vertical strokes with a pencil or crayon and stacks blocks or rings.
The language domain covers the development of vocabulary, syntax, and grammar. Here are two examples of language domain items: points to named body parts and says two words besides "mama" and "dada."The gross motor domain covers the development of posture and movement. Here are two examples of gross motor domain items: walks on their tiptoes and walks up steps with assistance.
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is a developmental instrument used for early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.
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a rice cooker was sold for $60 after a discount of 60% waht was the usual price of the rice cooker
Answers
Pulmonary circulation is the key component that supports both respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Examine this diagram of a human heart as seen while looking at the front of the body. A diagram showing the heart with labels A through D. A is above the heart. B is on the left side of the heart. C is on the right side of the heart. D is below the heart. Which correctly identifies where the blood is flowing to and from? A: lower body, B: left lung, C: right lung, D: upper body A: upper body, B: right lung, C: left lung, D: lower body A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung A: left lung, B: lower body, C: upper body, D: right lung Mark this and return
Answers
Answer:
where is the diagram????????
Answer: The 3rd Option
aka Answer Choice- A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung
What is the link between high triglycerides and diabetes?.
Answers
Answer:
High TG's signals insulin resistance; that's when the cells (like muscle cells) that normally respond to insulin are resistant to it. This keeps the insulin from allowing the cells to absorb glucose uptake, requiring higher and higher levels of insulin. This results in higher than normal blood sugar levels.
A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test performed. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 130 to 150/min, but there has been no fetal movement for 15 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?
Immediately report the situation to the client's provider and prepare the client for induction of labor.
Encourage the client to walk around without the monitoring unit for 10 min, then resume monitoring
Offer the client a snack of orange juice and crackers.
Turn the client onto her left side.
Answers
The nurse should turn the client onto her left side. Option 4.
Nonstress testThe nonstress test is a prenatal test that evaluates the fetal heart rate (FHR) response to fetal movement. In this scenario, the client's FHR is within the normal range of 130 to 150 beats per minute, but there has been no fetal movement for 15 minutes, which is a concern.
In this situation, the nurse should first take measures to stimulate fetal movement before considering any further interventions. Turning the client onto her left side can improve blood flow to the fetus and stimulate fetal activity. The nurse should reposition the client and continue to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 10-15 minutes to see if there is any change in the fetal heart rate or fetal movement.
If there is no response to repositioning and further fetal stimulation, the nurse should report the situation to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
Thus, the appropriate action for the nurse to perform in this scenario is to turn the client onto her left side and monitor the FHR for any change.
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some infections, such as _____ and _____, appear to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia in individuals who already have a vulnerability.
Answers
Some infections, such as toxoplasmosis and herpes simplex virus (HSV), appear to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia in individuals who already have a vulnerability.
Toxoplasmosis is caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii and is typically transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food or exposure to infected cat feces. Studies have suggested a potential association between toxoplasmosis infection and an increased risk of schizophrenia, although the exact mechanisms are not fully understood.
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that can cause oral or genital herpes. Some research has indicated a potential link between HSV infection and an increased risk of developing schizophrenia, particularly in individuals who have a genetic susceptibility or other risk factors for the disorder. However, further studies are needed to establish a definitive causal relationship.
It is important to note that while these infections may be associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia, they are not direct causes of the disorder. Schizophrenia is a complex psychiatric condition influenced by various genetic, environmental, and neurobiological factors, and the interplay between infections and vulnerability is still an area of ongoing research.
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Sammy Smith is a 17-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 2 years ago. He is admitted to the hospital with uncontrolled blood sugar with the goal of achieving good control.
A: On assessment, you find the following: Vital signs: RR 30, O2 sat 98%, HR 105, BP 90/50, temp 37 degrees Celsius, weight 150 pounds and height 72 inches. Lungs are clear. You ask him if he is eating candy because his breath smells fruity. As you talk to him, he admits, "I forget to take my medication once in a while" and "I don’t like to let my friends see my glucose machine because they’ll think I’m ‘weird’ or something." You also discover that Sammy lives in an apartment with his mother, who works 2 jobs to support him and his younger brother, Richie.
Labwork results: CBC: hemoglobin 12.0, HCT 48%, WBC 5,000; Chemistry panel: Blood sugar 400, serum osmolality 325, serum potassium 4.5 mEq, serum sodium 160; Hemoglobin A1C 9.0%, Urinalysis: urine specific gravity 1.040 with large ketones present;
ABG: serum pH 7.25, PaCO2 30, HCO3 14
What condition do you suspect is occurring?
Interpret the lab work and the underlying pathophysiology of the results.
Explain Sammy’s respiratory status.
Is oxygen required at this time?
What medical order do you anticipate, especially if his serum pH drops below 7.0?
What is Sammy’s fluid status?
Outline Sammy’s treatment plan at this time in terms of fluid management, bicarbonate administration, potassium supplementation, and insulin drip initiation. Explain the prioritization of these priorities.
Answers
Based on the assessment findings and lab results, it is suspected that Sammy is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
The lab results indicate hyperglycemia, elevated serum osmolality, ketonuria, metabolic acidosis (low serum pH and bicarbonate), and respiratory compensation (decreased PaCO2). Sammy's fruity breath odor, history of missed medication, and the presence of large ketones in the urine further support the diagnosis of DKA.
The lab results show elevated blood sugar, indicating hyperglycemia, which occurs in DKA due to insufficient insulin to regulate glucose uptake. The presence of large ketones in the urine and metabolic acidosis (low serum pH and bicarbonate) suggest increased production of ketones as an alternative energy source due to the body's inability to utilize glucose effectively. The compensatory decrease in PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) is the body's attempt to buffer the acidosis by increasing respiratory rate.
Sammy's respiratory status can be described as compensatory hyperventilation or Kussmaul respirations, which aim to eliminate excess carbon dioxide to compensate for the metabolic acidosis.
Oxygen may not be required at this time since Sammy's oxygen saturation is 98%. The primary focus should be on correcting the underlying metabolic derangements through fluid and electrolyte management, bicarbonate administration if necessary, and insulin drip initiation.
If Sammy's serum pH drops below 7.0, it is anticipated that the medical order would include the administration of sodium bicarbonate to help correct the acidosis and restore the acid-base balance.
Sammy's fluid status is likely depleted due to the osmotic diuresis caused by hyperglycemia. The high urine specific gravity (1.040) indicates concentrated urine, which is a sign of dehydration.
The treatment plan for Sammy at this time would involve fluid management to restore hydration, insulin drip initiation to lower blood sugar and promote glucose utilization, bicarbonate administration if needed to correct acidosis, and potassium supplementation to address potential hypokalemia.
The priorities in this treatment plan include fluid resuscitation to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, followed by insulin therapy to normalize blood sugar levels and reverse ketogenesis, and addressing acidosis if severe. Close monitoring of vital signs, urine output, blood glucose, electrolytes, and acid-base balance is essential throughout the treatment process.
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Caleb is working as pharmacy technician. He has decided that he wants to continue with his education because he wants to become a pharmacist. Which statement BEST describes Caleb's situation?
a. Caleb has some education but needs to pass the certification exam.
b. Caleb has a license and is wanting to obtain a certificate.
c. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
d. Caleb has passed one PTCE but still needs to pass the other.
Answers
Answer:
C. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
One of the risks for people with diabetes is diabetic ketoacidosis, a build-up of acid in the blood stream. Explain why this is dangerous to humans.
Answers
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a dangerous complication of diabetes, especially in individuals with type 1 diabetes. The high levels of blood glucose lead to the production of acids known as ketones, which accumulate in the bloodstream, increasing its acidity level.
The main dangers of DKA stem from its capacity to cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and damage to internal organs. For the diabetic patient, the body becomes unable to make sufficient insulin, which leads to the accumulation of ketones in the blood and urine. This leads to the pH levels in the blood to decrease, which is known as acidosis. Acidosis has serious consequences as it interferes with the body's normal functions, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Consequently, this can result in kidney failure, swelling in the brain, coma, or even death. Additionally, DKA can also lead to edema in the brain, which can cause brain injury. Furthermore, DKA can also lead to a number of life-threatening complications if it's not treated on time, such as hypokalemia, which can result in abnormal heart rhythms. Therefore, diabetic ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes that can cause various life-threatening consequences.
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Wilbert turned 65 on January 13th, and enrolled into Medicare Part
A and Part D effective 01/01/2014; because Wilbert was still
working, he deferred his enrollment into Part B. Wilbert's Part B
started on 06/01/2014. In the space provided please list the ICEP
that Wilbert would be eligible for to enroll in an MAPD plan.
Answers
Answer:
ugpgxgxxyiyxyxyyyiyyxyxyf
Explanation:
t7dyidyidyixyxiycyicoycyicuocuocuoc
a 70-year-old male has difficulty breathing. when assessing him, which of the following should influence your decision to assist his ventilation with a bvm?
Answers
When assessing a 70-year-old male with difficulty breathing, several factors should influence the decision to assist ventilation with a Bag-Valve-Mask (BVM). These factors are; Respiratory Rate, Oxygen Saturation, Inadequate Tidal Volume, Decreased Breath Sounds, Cyanosis.
Respiratory Rate and Effort: Assess the patient's respiratory rate and effort. If the respiratory rate is rapid, the patient is experiencing increased work of breathing, or showing signs of respiratory distress (such as retractions, nasal flaring, or use of accessory muscles), it may indicate a need for assistance with ventilation.
Oxygen Saturation: Measure the patient's oxygen saturation levels using a pulse oximeter. If the oxygen saturation is low, indicating inadequate oxygenation, supplemental oxygen and ventilation support may be necessary.
Inadequate Tidal Volume: Assess the depth of the patient's breathing. If the tidal volume (amount of air moving in and out with each breath) is inadequate, resulting in shallow or ineffective breathing, assistance with ventilation using a BVM may be required.
Decreased Breath Sounds: Listen to the patient's breath sounds using a stethoscope. If there are diminished or absent breath sounds on auscultation, it may suggest severe respiratory compromise, warranting the use of a BVM to provide adequate ventilation.
Cyanosis: Check for the presence of cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, lips, or nail beds, indicating poor oxygenation. If cyanosis is present, prompt ventilation support should be initiated.
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to be an organ donor in texas, an individual must be 21 years of age.
Answers
The age requirement for organ donation varies from country to country and may also vary within different regions or states. However, in general, there is no specific minimum age requirement to be an organ donor.
In the United States, the legal age to make an organ donation decision is typically 18 years old. Individuals who are 18 or older can choose to register as organ donors and make their intentions known by signing up through their state's organ donor registry or indicating their decision on their driver's license or identification card.
If you have a specific question about organ donation in Texas or any other state, it's recommended to refer to official sources such as the Texas Department of Motor Vehicles or the Texas Organ Sharing Alliance for accurate and up-to-date information.
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When should rescuers switch position during CPR?
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An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
In the context of survey research, identify a true statement about a sample.
Answers
The sample simply means the set of individuals that are selected from the total population by the researcher.
A survey research refers to the quantitative method that's used by researchers when they want to collect information from respondentsA survey simply means the list of questions that are given to the respondents in order to get a specific data from them which will be used for a research purposeA sample simply means part of a larger group. The smaller represents the whole group. For example, if there are 100 students in a class, a researcher can choose 10 students from the 100 students. The 10 students chosen represent the sample.Read related link on:
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In the visual system, each retinal ganglion cell demonstrates convergence of information because:
A. It takes in all that it sees in its visual field
B. The information it sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors
C. Each one sums the amount of light it receives
D. Of the number of action potentials it fires
E. Of the connections it has to other retinal ganglion cells
Answers
Answer:
In the visual system, the convergence of information is due to the fact that each cell of the retinal ganglion cell can demonstrate that information it sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors (option B).
Explanation:
The retina is a structure formed by photoreceptors, called cones and rods. The photoreceptors attached to each retinal ganglion cell can form its visual reception field, while the group of ganglion cells that reach a specific area of the brain form the brain cell reception field.
In the visual system, convergence occurs because the receptive field of several photoreceptors reaches a retinal ganglion cell, and a group of ganglion cells reaches a brain cell to form its receptive field, so the information that retinal ganglion cell sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors.
The other options are not correct because convergence:
A. It does not depend on all the information seen in the visual field.
C. It does not depend on the sum of the amount of light it receives.
D. It does not imply the amount of action potentials.
E. There are no connections with other ganglion cells.
Laboratory testing is ordered for Maria. Based on Maria's signs and symptoms, you expect the laboratory results to reveal (select all that apply):
Answers
Answer:
Sepsis disease.
Explanation:
Maria has a symptoms of body swelling, reduced urine output and difficulty in breathing. The disease can be caused by fungal infection or bacteria attack. Body swelling is the major symptom of this disease. The laboratory report is expected to result in Sepsis positive.
Choose one word from the following diagnostic statement that identifies the main term: Congestive heart failure?
Answers
Answer:
Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a chronic progressive condition that affects the pumping power of your heart muscle.
Explanation:
What is Congestive heart failure?
Congestive heart failure also refers to as CHF is a chronic progressive condition that affects the pumping power of your heart muscle.The most common cause of congestive heart failure is coronary artery disease. Risk factors for coronary artery disease include: high levels of cholesterol and/or triglyceride in the blood. high blood pressure.Heart failure sometimes known as congestive heart failure. It occurs when the heart muscle doesn't pump blood as well as it should. When this happens, blood often backs up and fluid can build up in the lungs, causing shortness of breath.Learn more:
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What type of things should I be doing to prepare to go to college and eventually med school if I'm still in high school (freshman)? What are your tips?
Answers
Question: What types of things should I be doing to prepare to go to college and eventually medical school if I'm still in high school?
Answer: Study and take notes. Without a doubt, it's important you have things to reference back to if you're ever struggling. Make sure to read about the best colleges to go to, and ones that are in your limit. If you'd like to be closer to home, see if you can find a school nearby, but if you'd like to move away and go further out into the world, find a state school. Research is key, my friend. Another thing that's really beneficial to do is start taking online classes for whatever major/minor you're going for. Find some free ones, or for paying ones, see if you can get a little money from your parents; I'm sure they'd be happy to contribute! The last thing that I'll say, getting a job can really ease the amount of money you have to pay when you receive your college debt. As you are a freshman in high school, you are more than old enough to apply to some sort of job. Retail or the fast food industry is probably the places to strive for! There are a lot more things I can tell you, but I'm on a time schedule for each question, so I advise you to do more research on what else you can do.
Uplifting Note: Start your day with a smile! Let me help; you look amazing today, love the shirt! Now you have. :]
Treatment discontinuation was significantly accelerated in which drug group/s compared with the reference group (efavirenz)? More than one choice may be correct.
a. Atazanavir
b. Lopinavir
c. Darunavir
d. Rilpivirine
e. Raltegravir
Answers
The drug group/s that showed significantly accelerated treatment discontinuation compared with the reference group (efavirenz) are Atazanavir, Darunavir, and Rilpivirine. The correct options are a,c, and d.
A study compared the discontinuation rates of different antiretroviral drug groups with efavirenz as the reference group. The study found that Atazanavir, Darunavir, and Rilpivirine had significantly accelerated treatment discontinuation compared with efavirenz, indicating that patients on these drug regimens were more likely to discontinue treatment than those on efavirenz.
Lopinavir and Raltegravir were not found to have significantly accelerated treatment discontinuation compared with efavirenz in this study.
Treatment discontinuation can be due to various reasons, such as adverse effects, poor efficacy, and patient preference. The reasons for treatment discontinuation were not specified in the study, and further research is needed to determine the specific factors that led to the higher rates of treatment discontinuation in the Atazanavir, Darunavir, and Rilpivirine groups.
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Mr Ford shows you a deep wound on the interior side of his body medial to the left hip lateral to the ambucus inferior to the collar bone and interior to the waist. In the activity, place an indication where where the patient describes the location.
Answers
Answer:
a tad bit lower then the rib cage
Explanation:
[Skip] Stain for Hairy Cell Leukemia are___
Answers
The stain typically used for the diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia is tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP). TRAP is an enzyme that is produced by hairy cells and is not commonly found in other types of white blood cells.
Hairy-cell leukemia (HCL) is a rare type of cancer that affects white blood cells, specifically B cells. To diagnose HCL, doctors usually perform a bone marrow biopsy or a blood test. During these procedures, a sample of bone marrow or blood is collected and analyzed to look for specific changes in the cells that could indicate the presence of HCL. One of the most commonly used tests for diagnosing HCL is the tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain.
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Some organisms in this zone make their own food through chemosynthesis .
Answers
Enulose 10g/15mL Sig: 2 tbsp po bid x 3d - how many ml is the patient taking per day?
Answers
The volume of the medication in mL the patient is taking per day is 90 mL.
What does the expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d mean?The above expression is a dosage of the medication.
The expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d means that 2 tablespoonfuls of the medication are to be taken by mouth 3 times daily.
The volume of 1 tablespoonful in mL = 15 ml
The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL will be 15 ml * 2
The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL = 30 mL
The medication is to be taken 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily
The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 30 mL * 3
The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 90 mL
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What food can the nurse suggest to the client at risk for osteoporosis?
a. Bananas
b. Broccoli
c. Chicken
d. Carrots.
Answers
The nurse can suggest the client at risk for osteoporosis to consume Broccoli. Therefore, the correct option is B.
Broccoli is a good food choice for individuals at risk for osteoporosis. It is a cruciferous vegetable that is rich in nutrients important for bone health, including calcium, vitamin K, and vitamin C.
Calcium is a key mineral for bone strength, while vitamin K plays a role in bone metabolism and vitamin C supports collagen synthesis.
Bananas, while nutritious, do not specifically provide significant amounts of the nutrients necessary for bone health. Chicken and carrots, although beneficial for overall health, do not stand out as specific recommendations for osteoporosis prevention.
Therefore, the nurse can suggest including broccoli in the client's diet to support their bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Therefore, the correct option is B.
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Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce.
Answers
Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce cytokines.
What are cytokines and where are they produced?Small proteins called cytokines play a key role in regulating the development and activity of blood and immune system cells. They signal the immune system to function once they are released. All blood cells and other cells that support the body's immunological and inflammatory responses are affected by cytokines. By transmitting signals that can cause abnormal cells to die and normal cells to live longer, they also support anti-cancer activities.
Many different types of cells can create cytokines, including immune cells including macrophages, B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, and mast cells as well as endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and other stromal cells; a given cytokine can be produced by more than one type of cell.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce
A) leucocidins.
B) exotoxins.
C) cytokines.
D) endotoxins.
E) interferons.
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describe what happens to a red blood cell as it moves from the right atria of the heart through the body and back to the right atria.
Answers
Answer:
After leaving the heart, the red blood cell travels through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. It picks up oxygen making the deoxygenated red blood cell now an oxygenated blood cell. The blood cell then makes it way back to the heart via the pulmonary vein into the left atrium.
Explanation:
Help me please please thank you
Answers
Answer:
Question 19 is Diagnosis!!
Explanation:Diagnosis means the identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms.
which of the following was used to determine fair charges for physician services?
A. UCR
B. Relative Value Unit
C. DRG
D. Fee Schedule
Answers
Question 24
1 pts
Which of the following is not a high level of cognitive
processing? Select All That Apply
1. Problem solving
2. Critical thinking
3. Decision making
4. Ethic and morals.
Answers
Answer:
4
Explanation:
High cognitive processes involve acquiring knowledge, understanding and application of such knowledge.
The first three fit the above description while the third doesn't.