Answers
We can see here that deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, and K results from: E. any disease that causes fat malabsorption.
What is deficiency?The term "deficiency" describes a lack or inadequacy of a specific nutrient, substance, or component that is necessary for the body to operate properly. When the body does not receive enough of a particular nutrient from the diet or when there is a problem with the body's ability to absorb, transport, or use that nutrient, nutritional deficiencies may develop.
A person may be at risk for developing vitamin deficiencies if they have a condition that hinders their ability to absorb dietary lipids, such as cystic fibrosis, celiac disease, or inflammatory bowel disease.
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Related Questions
the nurse is explaining to new parents the various vaccinations their newborn will receive before being discharged home. which immunization should the nurse teach the parents about that will help decrease the incidence of hepatic disease later in life?
Answers
The Nurse advises getting hep B immunization to prevent hepatitis B. Cirrhosis and liver cancer can both be avoided later in life with it, according to research.
What causes infant liver disease?
Neonatal hemochromatosis, a condition previously known as gestational alloimmune liver disease, is the most frequent cause of abrupt liver failure in the newborn era. Following this are metabolic disorders, viral infections, hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, and other uncommon causes.
According to a study, it can prevent both cirrhosis and liver cancer later in life.
Therefore, nurses inform the parents about factors that will lower the risk of developing liver disease in later life.
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the federal food assistance program that provides nutritious meals to low-income children and senior adults who receive day care or adult care outside the home is the ________.
Answers
The federal food assistance program that provides nutritious meals to low-income children and senior adults who receive day care or adult care outside the home is the Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP).
Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP) is a federal food assistance program that provides nutritious meals to low-income children and senior adults who receive day care or adult care outside the home. The CACFP is administered by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and its goal is to improve and maintain the health and well-being of the nation’s children and adults through the provision of nutritious meals.
CACFP serves nutritious meals to over 4.4 million children and 130,000 adults every day. The program reimburses child care providers, family day care home providers, and adult care providers for serving meals that meet USDA nutrition standards. These standards include serving a variety of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins while limiting added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium.
The meals served through the CACFP help children and adults get the nourishment they need to grow, develop, and maintain good health. By providing access to nutritious meals, the program reduces food insecurity among low-income families and promotes healthy eating habits among children and adults.
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a nursing student is engaged in researching information about fluoroquinolones. when examining the information, the student would most likely find that this class of drugs is effective in treating which type of infection? select all that apply.
Answers
Fluoroquinolones are a class of drugs that are effective in treating types of urinary tract infections
What is fluoroquinolone?Fluoroquinolone or also Quinolone is a class of antibiotic drugs to treat various diseases caused by bacterial infections. This drug is generally used when a bacterial infection is difficult to treat with other antibiotics, or when treatment with other antibiotics is not possible.
Quinolones kill bacteria by inhibiting the enzymes topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase which are needed by bacteria to multiply and survive. This drug is a broad-spectrum antibiotic, which is a type of antibiotic that effectively kills various types of bacteria, one of which is treating types of urinary tract infections.
Your question is not complete, maybe your meaning is :
A nursing student is engaged in researching information about fluoroquinolones. when examining the information, the student would most likely find that this class of drugs is effective in treating which type of infection? select all that apply.
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Why is clonal selection and expansion so important to the immune response? A) It facilitates the secretion of cytokines. B) It enables certain cells to kill target cells. C) It is critical to the increase in the numbers of specific cells. D) It facilitates interleukin secretion which in turn directs cell differentiation.
Answers
Answer:
C) It is critical to the increase in the numbers of specific cells
Explanation:
Clonal selection and expansion is the mechanism by which the immune system selects specific cells capable of both recognizing antigens and increasing the number of these useful cells that fight against pathogenic microorganisms and viruses. During this mechanism, B cells (also known as B lymphocytes) that have specific transmembrane receptors capable of recognizing specific antigens, are multiplied. The process of expansion involves the hypermutation of the clones in order to modify the shape and structure of these receptors, which increases the affinity of the clones for specific antigens.
Answer:
C) It is critical to the increase in the numbers of specific cells.
The main drawback(s) of anti-psychotic medication in treating schizophrenia is
of
Select one:
O a. its relative ineffectiveness in dealing with the cognitive impairment and
negative symptoms along and also its relationship to weight gain.
O b. that the use of medication often requires longer hospital stays and is
associated with increased weight gain
O c. its relative lack of effectiveness.
O d. the occurrence of more frequent relapses of illness.
O e. its inability to alleviate the frequency and severity of hallucinations and
delusions.
Answers
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Order: ABC 750 mg po. Stock: ABC 1500 mg po scored tablets. You would need to give 0.5 of a tablet.
● True
● False
Answers
Assuming they were both released in the same method (i.e. one wasn’t XR or IR).
3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?
Answers
The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.
What is EDTA?EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.
EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.
EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.
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what is the correct order of steps for handwashing?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Wet hands and arms.
Apply soap.
Scrub hands and arms vigorously.
Rinse hands and arms thoroughly.
Dry hands and arms.
How should you handle Valerie's comment about Dr. Buckwalter being "gruff" and "unsympathetic"?
Answers
Valerie's comment about Dr. Buckwalter being "gruff" and "unsympathetic" should be handled by telling her to tell him about the type of feelings she has towards him and try to understand his perspective.
What is Feelings?This is referred to as an emotional state or reaction towards an individual and there are various types such as happy, sad etc.
In this scenario, we were told that Valerie thinks Dr. Buckwalter is "gruff" and "unsympathetic" and should be handled by telling her to him about how she feels towards him and know his perspective so as to ensure resolution of the issue.
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__________ acts as biological catalysts allowing reactions to occur at the rate necessary
Answers
Answer:
Enzymes!! I studied this in medical before!! :)
hey can someone tell me please :)
Answers
Answer:
I think it would be A
Explanation:
Answer:
I think it is C. I hope this helps..
Explanation:
One nutrition related warning sign of AD is
Answers
One nutrition related warning sign of Alzheimer's disease is the significantly lower blood levels of nutrients like Vitamin A, B12, C, E, and folate.
What is AD patient?
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurologic disorder which causes the brain to shrink or atrophy and the brain cells to die. Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia disease and it is a continuous decline in thinking ability, behavioral and social skills of a person that affects a person's ability to function independently.
Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a systematic review and meta-analysis has found that AD patients had significantly lower blood levels of nutrients such as vitamins A, B12, C, E, and folate and non-significantly lower levels of vitamin D and zinc mineral when compared with individuals without Alzheimer's disease.
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Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder will likely demonstrate all of the following except __________.
a) the tendency to be impulsive
b) the need for instant gratification
c) suspicion and mistrust of others
d) restraint from becoming too intimate
The correct answer is D
Answers
Answer:
ur right its D
Please mark as brainliest if answer is right
Have a great day, be safe and healthy
Thank u
XD
The Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder does not represent the option d. restraint from becoming too intimate.
What is a personality disorder?It is the long-term pattern that should be different in a significant manner.
At the time when the individual iagnosed with a personality disorder so there is the tendency for impulsive, instant gratification, and mistrust of others.
Hence, the option d is correct.
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patient is prescribed 0.8 micrograms levothyroxine per kilogram q 12 hours. patient weight is 92 kilograms. how much medication should patient be given
Answers
The medicine that the patient should be given is 0.0368 mg in one dose, and the total dose for the day is 0.736 mg.
What is medication?Medication is a process where the patient is given a calculated amount of medicines to treat the problem. Medication can be for a day or for months and years.
The patient has been prescribed levothyroxine 0.8 mg per 12 hours, which means twice per day.
So it can be calculated as:
0.8 x 92 / 100 = 0.736. The total dose.
Now divide it by 2
0.736 / = 0.368, one dose of the day.
Thus, the patient should be given 0.0368 mg in one dose, and the total dose for the day is 0.736 mg.
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Answer:147.2
Explanation:
14. A nurse is preparing to administer cefoxitin (Mefoxin) 1 g intermittent IV bolus to infuse over 30 min. Available is cefoxitin 1 g in dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 100 mL. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr ? 15. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9%NaCl)1,000 mL IV to infuse at 125 mL/hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 20gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion pump to deliver how many gtt/min ? 16. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL IV to infuse over 2 hr. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr ?
Answers
14.The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver 200 mL/hr to infuse the cefoxitin (Mefoxin) 1 g over 30 minutes. 15. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion pump to deliver approximately 42 gtt/min to achieve the desired infusion rate of 125 mL/hr for 0.9% sodium chloride.
14. To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr for cefoxitin (Mefoxin) 1 g to be infused over 30 minutes, we start by converting the infusion time to hours. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, 30 minutes is equal to 30/60 or 0.5 hours.
Next, we divide the total volume to be infused (which is 100 mL) by the infusion time in hours:
100 mL / 0.5 hours = 200 mL/hr
15. To determine the drop rate in gtt/min for infusing 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 1,000 mL at a rate of 125 mL/hr using manual IV tubing with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL, we follow these steps:
First, we calculate the total number of drops per hour by multiplying the infusion rate (125 mL/hr) by the drop factor (20 gtt/mL):
125 mL/hr x 20 gtt/mL = 2500 gtt/hr
Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, we convert gtt/hr to gtt/min by dividing by 60:
2500 gtt/hr / 60 min = 41.67 gtt/min
16. To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr for infusing 0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL over 2 hours, we divide the total volume to be infused (500 mL) by the infusion time in hours (2 hours):
500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver 250 mL/hr to infuse the 0.9% sodium chloride solution over 2 hours.
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even in dried blood, some pathogens can survive outside the body at room temperature on environmental surfaces for up to 3 weeks. t or f
Answers
True.Some bloodborne viruses can live and remain contagious outside the body for hours or days, making even dried blood deadly. Hepatitis B and C viruses, for instance, can survive in dried blood for up to a week and four days, respectively.
The liver is inflamed by hepatitis. Swelling caused by inflammation occurs when bodily tissues are harmed or infected. It might harm your liver. The degree of liver injury and edema may have an impact on its performance. Acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term) hepatitis are two different types of infections.What is the primary reason behind hepatitis?
Heavy alcohol consumption, pollutants, some drugs, and particular medical conditions can all lead to hepatitis. Hepatitis, however, is frequently brought on by a virus. Hepatitis A, B, and C are the three most prevalent forms of viral hepatitis in the United States.
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You have got a job at a pharmaceutical company and your task is to measure how a new drug regulates lipolysis in fat cells. Since you are new to the job, ask your colleague for advice. The colleague says that you should first isolate fat cells and then treat the fat cells with the medicine. Then you can measure free fatty acids in the medium the fat cells live in. The concentration of free fatty acids becomes a measure of lipolysis. Is your colleague right or wrong? Motivate your answer.
Answers
The colleague is right. Isolating fat cells and treating them with the new drug is a valid approach to measure the regulation of lipolysis.
When studying lipolysis, isolating fat cells provides a controlled environment to observe the specific effects of the drug on the cells. By treating the fat cells with the medicine, the researcher can simulate the intended interaction and measure the resulting changes.
Lipolysis refers to the breakdown of triglycerides into free fatty acids and glycerol, and measuring the concentration of free fatty acids in the medium provides an indication of the extent of lipolysis occurring in the fat cells.
By following this approach, the researcher can evaluate how the new drug affects lipolysis in fat cells and assess its potential therapeutic effects. It is important to note that additional experiments and controls may be necessary to validate the findings and consider other factors that could influence lipolysis.
However, the suggested method of isolating fat cells, treating them with the drug, and measuring free fatty acid concentration provides a starting point for investigating the drug's impact on lipolysis.
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nutrition in surveillance
Answers
Nutrition surveillance is defined as a system established to continuously monitor the dietary intake and nutritional status of a population or selected population groups using a variety of data-collection methods whose ultimate goal is to lead to policy formulation and action planning.
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List (with some explanation if needed) examples of risk stratification for patients undergoing Total Hip or Knee Arthroplasty.
List examples of risk adjustment for patients undergoing Total Hip or Knee Arthroplasty.
Answers
Risk adjustment is an important factor in assessing the outcomes and quality of care for patients undergoing Total Hip or Knee Arthroplasty (THA/TKA).
It involves accounting for patient characteristics that may influence surgical outcomes. Here are some examples of risk adjustment variables for THA/TKA:
1. Age: Older age is associated with increased surgical risks and potential complications.
2. Body Mass Index (BMI): Higher BMI can impact surgical outcomes, such as wound healing and joint stability.
3.Comorbidities: Presence of pre-existing medical conditions like diabetes, hypertension, or heart disease can affect postoperative recovery.
4.Functional Status: Assessment of a patient's mobility and functional ability before surgery helps identify potential challenges during rehabilitation.
5. American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification: This classification system evaluates the overall health status and surgical risk of the patient.
6. Surgical Approach: Different surgical approaches (e.g., minimally invasive or traditional) may have varying levels of complexity and associated risks.
These risk adjustment factors are considered to ensure fair comparisons and provide a comprehensive evaluation of surgical outcomes for THA/TKA patients.
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Which of the following resources on the BON web page would assist a nurse in determining his or her scope of nursing practice?
Answers
The continuing competency info sheet would assist a nurse in determining his or her scope of nursing practice.
The Board's continuing competency rule, Board Rule 216, outlines all requirements in full detail.
All nurses who want to keep their Texas licenses active must show they are still competent in order to renew them.
This is in line with the Texas Board of Nursing's (BON or Board) purpose to safeguard and advance the welfare of Texas residents by ensuring that every nurse holding a valid license in the state is qualified to practice safely.
Additional qualifications apply to APRNs, or advanced practice registered nurses. Additionally, some nurses have focused on continuing education needs. The choice and participation in suitable continuing competency exercises fall on each individual nurse.
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A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a procedure to have a mole excised. Which one of the following actions should the assistant take?
Answers
The medical assistant should cleanse the site with surgical soap and an antiseptic while preparing the patient for mole excision.
The removal of mole from a person is a very short process and takes very less amount of time. Moles generally do not need treatment unless the person himself decides to remove the mole. During the process of removal of mole, the doctor usually makes the area of the patient where the mole is present numb using some medical anesthesia.
After this the doctor cuts out the mole from the area. Along with the mole some amount of skin is also cut out if it is necessary in some cases. This can leave a mark that may be permanent unless treated. Some people with other skin issues may have some side effects due to this process of mole excision.
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Send the specimen to the testing laboratory on the same day as the collection.
When preparing a patient for Holter monitoring, which of the following actions should a medical assistant take?
Vigorously dry the patient's skin prior to electode placement
A medical assistant should complete documentation in a patient's medical record at which of the following times?
immediately following a procedure.
What does HDA means? (I think that the abreviation it´s in spanish)
Answers
Answer:
HDA
Acronym Definition
HDA High Definition Audio
HDA Help Desk Analyst
HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)
HDA Hispanic Dental Association
Explanation:
either one of these have a nice day!
Answer:
Explanation:
HDA High Definition Audio
HDA Help Desk Analyst
HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)
HDA Hispanic Dental Association
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
Answers
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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which treatment uses antibody mixtures administered via intravenous, subcutaneous, or intramuscular routes to treat immunodeficiencies and autoimmune diseases?
Answers
The treatment that uses antibody mixtures administered via intravenous, subcutaneous, or intramuscular routes to treat immunodeficiencies and autoimmune diseases is called immunoglobulin replacement therapy (IRT).
The treatment that uses antibody mixtures administered via intravenous, subcutaneous, or intramuscular routes to treat immunodeficiencies and autoimmune diseases is called "Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IVIG)" therapy. IVIG therapy involves the administration of purified antibodies, typically derived from pooled human plasma, to help boost the patient's immune system and provide protection against infections and autoimmune diseases.
This therapy involves replacing the missing or deficient antibodies in the patient's immune system with donor antibodies, which are administered through the aforementioned routes. IRT is used to treat a variety of conditions, including primary immunodeficiency disorders, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and autoimmune diseases such as multiple sclerosis and rheumatoid arthritis. The therapy is usually given regularly, depending on the patient's condition, and the dosage is tailored to the individual patient's needs.
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Select the correct answer.
A client has undescended testes. What should be the proper treatment for his condition?
A.
removal of his testes
B.
circumcision
C.
fixation surgery
D.
reconstructive surgery
Answers
Answer:
D. Reconstructive surgery
Explanation:
Best procedure is orchiopexy or undescended testicle reconstruction. This has to be done very soon (within 18 months of birth) to prevent problems such as infertility in future.
The process is quite simple. During surgery, The surgeon will carefully manipulates the testicle in a way that they go back into the scrotum and then the surgeon stitches it into place.
in the term colposcopy, "colpo" is the __________ and "scopy" is the __________
Answers
Answer:
root, suffix
Explanation:
In the term colposcopy, "colpo" is the prefix and "scopy" is the suffix.
The prefix "colpo" comes from the Greek word "kolpos," which means "hollow or womb." In medical terminology, the prefix "colpo" is used to refer to the vagina or the neck of the uterus (cervix).
The suffix "scopy" comes from the Greek word "skopein," which means "to examine or observe." In medical terminology, the suffix "scopy" is used to describe a procedure in which an instrument called a "scope" is used to examine a specific part of the body, such as the vagina and cervix in the case of colposcopy.
Therefore, colposcopy refers to a medical procedure in which a specialized instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the vagina and cervix for abnormalities, such as precancerous or cancerous cells. The colposcope provides a magnified view of the cervix and allows the healthcare provider to identify any suspicious areas that may require further testing or treatment.
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A patient is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident. The patient has an oval shaped bruise behind the right ear in the mastoid region, a very runny nose, and is unable to move the muscles in the right side of his face. Which skull fracture do these clinical manifestations correspond to?.
Answers
The answer is Basilar Skull Fracture.
These clinical manifestations correspond to Basilar Skull Fracture.
What is Basilar Skull Fracture?
A basilar skull fracture involves at least one of the bones that make up the base of the skull and is typically brought on by severe blunt force trauma. Basilar skull fractures typically affect the temporal bones, but they can also affect the frontal bone's orbital plate, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid. Hemotympanum, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) otorrhea or rhinorrhea, Battle sign (retroauricular or mastoid ecchymosis), and raccoon eyes are a few clinical exam findings that are highly predictive of basilar skull fractures (periorbital ecchymosis). Facial fractures, cervical spine injury, cerebral bleeding, cranial nerve injury, vascular injury, and meningitis are frequently linked to basilar skull fractures. [1] [2] [3] [2]
Due to their inclination to engage in high-risk activities, younger persons are more likely to sustain basilar skull fractures. Conservative treatment is used to treat the majority of basilar skull fractures.
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During early childhood ,
Answers
Answer:
nice
Explanation:
An 18-year-old man lacerated his left hand and required sutures. The sutures were removed 1week later. Wound healing continued, but the site became disfigured by a prominent raised, nodular scar that developd over the next 2 months. Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurred during this 2-month period? A. Organization; B. Dehiscence; C. Resolution; D. Keloid formation; E. Secondary union
Answers
15. Order: oxacillin sodium 0.25 g p.o.q.8h
Supply: oxacillin sodium oral suspension 125 mg per 2.5 mL
Give:____ t
Answers
Explanation:
To determine the number of teaspoons (t) needed for the prescription, we need to calculate the dosage conversion from grams to milligrams and then to teaspoons.
Given:
- Oxacillin sodium oral suspension: 125 mg per 2.5 mL
First, let's convert the dosage from grams to milligrams:
0.25 g = 250 mg
Now, let's find out how many milliliters (mL) are needed for the prescription:
250 mg = 2.5 mL
Since the prescription calls for 2.5 mL of the suspension, we can now determine the number of teaspoons needed.
1 teaspoon (t) is approximately equal to 5 mL.
Therefore, the calculation is as follows:
2.5 mL ÷ 5 mL/t = 0.5 t
So, the prescription requires 0.5 teaspoons (t) of oxacillin sodium oral suspension.