Answer: Damaged cartilage or inflammation in a joint
What is the molality of a solution prepared by mixing C6H6 with CCl4. If the solution density is 0.9 g/ml and the mole fraction of C6H6 in the solution is 0.7
The molality (m) of a solution is referred to as the measurement of the moles of solute divided by the solvent (either in liters or kilogram).
Mathematically;
\(\mathbf{Molality = \dfrac{\text{moles of solute}}{volume\ of \ solvent}}\)
However, the mole fraction is the ratio of a particular substance molecule inside a mixture related to the overall number of moles of all the substances.
For a given mixture of C6H6 and CCl4
Their mole fraction can be expressed as:
\(X_{C6H6} = \dfrac{mole \ of \ C_6H_6}{mole \ of \ C_6H_6 + mole \ of \ CCl_4}\)
\(X_{CCl_4} = \dfrac{mole \ of \ CCl_4}{mole \ of \ C_6H_6 + mole \ of \ CCl_4}\)
where;
mole fraction of C6H6 = 0.7mole fraction of CCl4 = ???We know that:
\(\mathbf{X_{C6H6} + X_{CCl_4} = 1}\)
\(\mathbf{ X_{CCl_4} = 1-X_{C6H6} }\)
\(\mathbf{ X_{CCl_4} = 1-0.7}\)
\(\mathbf{ X_{CCl_4} =0.3}\)
∴
\(0.3 = \dfrac{mole \ of \ CCl_4}{mole \ of \ C_6H_6 + mole \ of \ CCl_4}\)
where;
n represents the number of moles;
\(\mathbf{0.3 = \dfrac{n_{ CCl_4}}{n_{C_6H_6 }+ n_{ CCl_4}}}\)
\(\mathbf{0.3n_{C_6H_6 }+ 0.3 n_{ CCl_4} = n_{ CCl_4}}\)
\(\mathbf{0.3n_{C_6H_6 }= n_{ CCl_4}-0.3 n_{ CCl_4} }\)
\(\mathbf{0.3n_{C_6H_6 }= 0.7n_{ CCl_4}}\)
\(\mathbf{n_{C_6H_6 }=\dfrac{ 0.7}{0.3}n_{ CCl_4}---(1)}\)
Assuming, we have 1 Liter of the solution;
Then,
the mass of the solution = 0.9 g/mol × 1000 mlmass of the solution = 900 gRecall that:
mass of the solution = mass of the solute + mass of the solvent
where;
mass of the solute = no of moles of \(\mathbf{n{CCl_4}}\) × molar mass of \(\mathbf{n{CCl_4}}\)
mass of the solvent = no of moles of \(\mathbf{n{C_6H_6}}\) × molar mass of \(\mathbf{n{C_6H_6}}\)
∴
900 g = (\(\mathbf{n{C_6H_6}}\) × 78) + (\(\mathbf{n{CCl_4}}\) × 154)
From equation (1);
\(\mathbf{n_{C_6H_6 }=\dfrac{ 0.7}{0.3}n_{ CCl_4}---(1)}\)
replacing the value of \(\mathbf{n{C_6H_6}}\) into 900 g = (\(\mathbf{n{C_6H_6}}\) × 78) + (\(\mathbf{n{CCl_4}}\) × 154); we have:
\(900 g = (\mathbf{\dfrac{ 0.7}{0.3}n_{ CCl_4}}\times 78) + ( n_{ CCl_4}}\times 154)\)
\(900 g = (\mathbf{\dfrac{ 7}{3}n_{ CCl_4}\times 78) + ( n_{ CCl_4}}\times 154)}\)
\(900 g = (\mathbf {7}\times n_{ CCl_4}\times 26) + ( n_{ CCl_4}}\times 154)}\)
\(\mathbf{900 g = (\mathbf {182 +154)}n_{ CCl_4}}\)
\(\mathbf{900 g = (\mathbf {336)}n_{ CCl_4}}\)
\(\mathbf{n_{ CCl_4}=\dfrac{900 g}{336}}\)
\(\mathbf{n_{ CCl_4}=2.679}\)
From equation (1)
\(\mathbf{n_{C_6H_6 }=\dfrac{ 0.7}{0.3}n_{ CCl_4}}\)
\(\mathbf{n_{C_6H_6 }=\dfrac{ 0.7}{0.3}\times 2.679}\)
\(\mathbf{n_{C_6H_6 }=6.25}\)
Finally, the molality of the solution is:
\(\mathbf{Molality = \dfrac{\text{moles of solute}}{volume\ of \ solvent}}\)
\(\mathbf{Molality = \dfrac{\text{2.679}}{900}\times 1000}\)
Molality = 2.976
Molality ≅ 3.0 m
Therefore, we can conclude that the molality of a solution prepared by mixing C6H6 with CCl4 is 3.0 m.
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Question 2 of 54
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nitroprusside sodium (nipride) 50 mg is mixed in
dsw.250 ml. the nurse plans to administer the
solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/minute to a client
weighing 182 pounds. using a drip factor of 60
gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the
nurse regulate the infusion?
31 gtt/min.
single answer
to answer this item,
choose a single
answer.
62 gtt/min.
93 gtt/min.
124 gtt/min.
submit
Answer:
124 ggt/min
Explanation:
50 mg = 50 000 mcg
50 000 mcg / 250 ml = 200 mcg/ml
182 pounds = 82.55 kg
5 mcg / kg/ min * 82.55 kg = 412.75 mcg/min
412.75/200 = 2.06 ml/min
2.06 ml/min * 60 ggt/ml = 123 ggt / min ~~~ 124
chaz and jessamine are healthy and in their late 20s. they have been trying to conceive a child for the past six months without success. chaz and jessamine are not considered infertile. should ask jessamine's physician to prescribe fertility drugs. should consult an adoption agency about their options for adopting a child. are experiencing a form of infertility due to factors involving both partners.
Chaz and Jessamine are healthy and in their late 20s. They have been trying to conceive a child for the past six months without success. Chaz and Jessamine are not considered infertile.
Due to factors involving both partners, they are experiencing a form of infertility that has prevented them from conceiving in the past six months. In this case, their best option is to consult a fertility specialist or an adoption agency about their options for adoption.
Fertility specialists will be able to provide the couple with advice and a treatment plan that is tailored to their specific situation. Depending on their results, the specialist may suggest taking fertility drugs or recommend undergoing assisted reproductive technologies (ART) such as in-vitro fertilization (IVF).
In addition, an adoption agency can provide them with guidance on how to adopt a child. They can provide valuable advice on the different types of adoption, the legalities of adoption, and the costs associated with it.
Therefore, Chaz and Jessamine should consult a fertility specialist or an adoption agency about their options. The fertility specialist can provide medical advice and guidance about fertility drugs or ART, while the adoption agency can provide information about adoption. Ultimately, it is up to the couple to decide which option best fits their situation.
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Select the correct description of the ankle.
During a disaster, rescuers and survivors may experience disaster-related stress. CERT volunteers should not:
A Ask uninjured people to get involved in helping others
B Take breaks away from the incident area
C Tell survivors, “You’re strong. You’ll get through this.”
D Drink plenty of water
Answer:
cheeda cheeeese
Explanation:
How can you tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids?
a. All plant oils are unsaturated because they are liquid at room temperature.
b. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated.
c. Oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
d. Beef fat is considered unsaturated because cattle eat only plant foods.
e. all fat that is solid at low temperatures is unsaturated.
Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).
What distinguishes a fat as being saturated or unsaturated? Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).At the carbon-carbon double bond, saturated fatty acids will have a distinctive double-bonded carbon atom, whereas unsaturated fatty acids won't.A saturated fat.It is solid when left at room temperature.It can be present in full-fat dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as high-fat meats like butter and lard.Unsaturated fatAt normal room temperature, this is usually liquid.You can find it in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.The largest number of hydrogen atoms are found in saturated fats, but there are less hydrogen bonds than the maximum amount at each double bond in unsaturated fats.To learn more about fatty acids refer
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The best way to tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids is to look at the physical properties of the fat. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated, while oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
What is fatty acids?Fatty acids are organic compounds that are made up of a carboxylic acid group attached to a hydrocarbon chain. They are found naturally occurring in plant and animal fats, oils, and waxes, and are important components of biological membranes. Fatty acids are essential for the production of energy and for the proper functioning of all cells and organs. In humans, fatty acids are used to make hormones and regulate many bodily processes. They are also important for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the synthesis of lipids.
Fats that are solid at low temperatures are saturated. For example, beef fat is considered saturated because it is solid at low temperatures.
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a client with a history of heart failure is being treated with digoxin. the nurse knows that this medication increases the force of contractions of the heart. what effect improves the contractility of the heart?
Neurohormonal modulation improves the contractility of the heart.
Digoxin blocks sodium potassium adenosine triphosphatase, resulting in beneficial cardiotonic effects in patients with heart failure (ATPase). Inhibition of this enzyme in cardiac cells increases the contractile state of the heart. Heart failure is a chronic disease with high morbidity and mortality. The incidence and prevalence of congestive heart failure has increased recently despite improvements in cardiovascular disease detection and treatment. Increased survival rates for patients with coronary artery disease (particularly after myocardial infarction), aging populations, and vastly improved management of other potentially fatal diseases also contribute. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, beta-blockers, and most recently spironolactone, are among the established new drugs increasingly used to prolong life in heart failure patients.Therefore, the correct answer is Neurohormonal Modulation.
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The unit manager is exploring the adoption of an electronic health records (EHRs). She is developing an evaluation tool for an objective assessment of each product. What is most important for the manager to include for assessing the functionality of each product?
a. Survey other health care organizations using EHRs to determine which one to select.
b. The ability to integrate patient information from multiple sources for more effective clinical decision-making.
c. List the products being considered and have the staff vote to adopt one product.
d. Arrange for the unit staff to review a promotional video for each product and have the staff decide on what to select.
In an objective evaluation of each EHRs product, the manager must evaluate the functionality of each product against its ability to integrate patient information from multiple sources for more effective clinical decision making.
What are Electronic Health Records?Corresponds to a real-time, instant and digital version of the patient record system. It is a system capable of providing data beyond just the clinical data collected, but providing a more comprehensive view for more effective care.
Therefore, to be effective, an EHRs must contain the patient's medical history, diagnosis, medications, dates, images, results, and other histories that aid in better decision making for the patient.
So, the correct answer is:
B. The ability to integrate patient information from multiple sources for more effective clinical decision-making.
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a client is receiving tamoxifen. which adverse effect would be most specific to the action of this drug?
Tamoxifen is a medication commonly used in the treatment of hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. One adverse effect that is most specific to the action of tamoxifen is an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
This risk arises due to the selective estrogen receptor modulating properties of tamoxifen, which can have estrogen-like effects on the endometrium. This can lead to abnormal growth and proliferation of the endometrial tissue, potentially resulting in the development of endometrial cancer.
Tamoxifen acts as an antagonist on estrogen receptors in breast tissue, thereby blocking the growth-stimulating effects of estrogen on breast cancer cells. However, it also has partial agonist activity on estrogen receptors in other tissues, such as the endometrium.
This agonistic effect can stimulate the proliferation of endometrial cells and increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. This adverse effect is unique to tamoxifen and not seen with other hormonal therapies used in breast cancer treatment, such as aromatase inhibitors. Regular monitoring and screening for endometrial changes are crucial for women receiving tamoxifen to detect any abnormalities early and initiate appropriate interventions if necessary.
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A young woman in her first trimester of pregnancy goes to her doctor after experiencing heavy
bleeding. After examining the woman and finding that she has miscarried, the doctor states that she
has had a "spontaneous abortion. The young woman becomes very upset because her family
believes that abortion is a sin. Explain the breakdown in communication that has occurred and how
it could be corrected.
The doctor used a very sensitive and contradicting choice of words. He/she referred to the miscarriage as a spontaneous abortion in a medical sense, but instead of having used those words, the doctor should have directly told the woman that she had suffered a miscarriage. To correct this, the doctor should explain to the woman about what he/she actually meant by the words “spontaneous abortion” and assure her that what happened wasn’t a sin; the doctor must clarify that this wasn’t the typical abortion that the woman and her family would consider a sin.
the biconcave disk shape of healthy red blood cells provides increased surface area for ________.
The biconcave disk shape of healthy red blood cells provides increased surface area for gas exchange. This shape allows for more efficient and rapid diffusion of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide through the cell membrane.
The thin, flattened shape of the cell also allows it to deform and squeeze through narrow capillaries and other small blood vessels, ensuring that oxygen can be delivered to all tissues in the body. The biconcave shape is maintained by a cytoskeleton of proteins that support the cell membrane and enable it to maintain its flexibility and shape.
Any disruption to this cytoskeleton or changes to the cell's shape can lead to impaired oxygen delivery and other health problems.
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Katie’s BMI decreased from 17 to 16. What does this tell her doctor about her health?
Answer:
She's become even more underweight, because a healthy BMI ranges from 18.5 to 24.9
Does the education of women tend to reduce their fertility?
Why?
you are an emergency department nurse triaging a patient with positive stroke symptoms. his/her onset for symptoms was 4 hours ago. based solely off of these findings, what treatment may he/she be a candidate for?
If a patient with positive stroke symptoms presents to the emergency department and their onset of symptoms was 4 hours ago, they may be a candidate for thrombolytic therapy.
Thrombolytic therapy involves the administration of a medication, such as alteplase (tPA), that can dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the brain. However, thrombolytic therapy is time-sensitive and must be administered within a certain window of time from the onset of symptoms. In general, the current guidelines recommend that thrombolytic therapy be administered within 3-4.5 hours of symptom onset, depending on various factors such as the patient's age, medical history, and severity of symptoms.
Therefore, the patient in this scenario may be a candidate for thrombolytic therapy if there are no contraindications and the healthcare team determines that the potential benefits outweigh the risks. However, a comprehensive evaluation and diagnostic workup should be completed before initiating thrombolytic therapy. The decision to administer thrombolytic therapy should only be made by a qualified healthcare provider after appropriate evaluation and consultation with a neurologist or stroke specialist.
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some research has supported the assertion that b vitamins may reduce the risk of
Some research has supported the assertion that B vitamins may reduce the risk of certain health conditions, such as cardiovascular disease and neural tube defects.
B vitamins, including B6, B9 (folate), and B12, play crucial roles in various physiological processes in the body. Research suggests that adequate intake of these vitamins may have protective effects on certain health conditions.
For example, studies have shown that B vitamins, particularly folate, may help reduce the risk of neural tube defects in infants when taken by pregnant women. Additionally, B vitamins have been associated with improved cardiovascular health.
They may help lower levels of homocysteine, an amino acid that, when elevated, is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. However, it is important to note that while some studies suggest a potential benefit, more research is needed to establish definitive conclusions and determine optimal dosages for specific health conditions. It is always recommended to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to your diet or supplementation regimen.
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3
When handling and packaging a bullet from a crime scene, investigators must be careful to preserve any trace evidence that might be present, such as paint or fibers,
True or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Because you need all the evidence you need to find what was the cause of the crime scene and how could you detained it from anymore victims and suspects .
Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from a final impression for a removable prosthodontic appliance, and compare these with the requirements for a fixed- prosthesis case.
Answer:
Both the methods used in making conventional impressions and digital impressions are shown in this presentation. The various impression materials are described and their suitability for fixed prosthodontic impressions is discussed. Materials described include irreversible hydrocolloid, reversible hydrocolloid, polysulfide, condensation reaction silicone, addition reaction silicone, polyether, and alginate substitutes. The design principles and methods for making custom impression trays are described. Impression methods are demonstrated in detail and are supplemented with a video demonstration.
Explanation:
The oral cavity is the initial phase of the digestive tract. Its major purpose is to act as the entry to the alimentary canal, allowing salivation and the propelling of the food substance into the pharynx to begin the digestion process. The oral cavity is enclosed by:
the lips and two flexible muscle folds that stretch from the edge of the mouthThe different structures of the oral cavity include:
Upper Jaw,Lower Jaw,Gums, and;Tooth.A dental laboratory technician is an experienced individual with a dental team who manufactures customized therapeutic and restorative dental appliances on prescription from a dental practitioner.
Removable prosthodontics focuses on the teeth replacement, in conjunction with soft tissues with a removable non-permanent prosthesis.
Removable prosthodontics appliances can be used for standard removable partial dentures for replacing missing teeth and this can help to avoid further surgery.
On the other hand, Fixed prosthodontics is the practice of repairing teeth with restorations that are permanently affixed to the patient's mouth. They're usually created in a laboratory by a dental laboratory technician who takes impressions to work with.
The difference between a removable prosthodontic appliance and a fixed prosthesis case is as follows:
removable prosthodontic fixed prosthesis case
It can be easily removed by It requires a dental practitioner to
from the mouth when required remove it.
Can lead to further jaw bone It makes the jaw bone firm and intact
deterioration
Its cost is usually affordable but, The cost is higher and it is a longtime
it has limited longetivity value.
From the above, explanation, we can conclude that we've understood what the different structures of the oral cavity are and how to make a comparison between the removable prosthodontic appliance and the fixed prosthesis case.
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Anya and her husband are considering having a baby. Anya’s obstetrician recommends that she stop consuming alcohol and update her immunizations:
Answer:
before she gets pregnant
Explanation:
It has been shown that drinking alcohol in early pregnancy, especially during the first three months, increases the risk of spontaneous abortion, premature birth and low birth weight, as well as physical, behavioral, and intellectual deficits. These conditions associated with drinking alcohol during pregnancy are known as fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs). When a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, it can pass from the mother's bloodstream into the developing baby's bloodstream and thus affect the growth of the baby's cells. In consequence, health professionals don't recommend drinking alcohol while pregnant due to its harmful effects on the developing fetus.
Explain the positive and negative aspects of the living arrangements for the elderly listed below. Be sure to thoroughly evaluate each option. Living in own home Living with their children Assisted living facility Nursing home with intermediate care Nursing home with skilled nursing care and make recommendations for healthy and disabled elderly
Answer:
See explanation below
Explanation:
Living arrangements for the elderly refers to the composition and organization of the living environment of elderly people.
There are various kinds of living arrangements available for the elderly and they are:
1.) Living in own home: This is a preferred option for most elderly people. It involves them living in their own homes with occasional assistance. The positive side to this is that they maintain and enjoy the comfort of their homes and also the sense of independence that comes with it. The negative aspect is the cost of having a paid caregiver and the constant support from family and friend. Living in own homes can also have mental effects on them - they may lonely and start overthinking.
2.) Living with Children: Elderly ones that have good relationships with their children are advised to live with them. It is a very good economic decision because the cost of having and maintaining a different house and catering for a cared giver will be eliminated. There is also the advantage of companionship and reduced stress because family is around to help. The negative side to this is the tightness of the house for families with small houses.
3.) Assisted Living Facility: This is a facility that offers personal care services to the elderly such as: transportation, meals, bathing and dressing. It is like a community with active adults who need personal care services. The positive side to this is the feeling of having a community, the daily activities that keep them occupied. The major negative side is the cost of living in an assisted living facility. Another is the loss of flexibility and privacy.
4.) Nursing Home with Intermediate Care: This is very similar to the Nursing Home with skilled nursing cares. It is usually regarded as a lower level skilled nursing care facility. The difference is that residents of an intermediate care facility require less assistance with their daily lives. 8 hourly supervision is enough for a day. The advantages and disadvantages are also the same with the skilled nursing care facility.
5.) Nursing Home with Skilled Nursing Care: This is a facility licensed to offer personal as well as medical services. They are usually a 24-hour care facility with nurses and licensed medical professionals around. The downside to this kind of facility is the unsatisfaction because the facility may be understaffed and there may be so many people that need to be attended to. And also the cost of both personal and medical services.
RECOMMENDATIONS
There are things to consider in choosing a living arrangement for elderly ones. They include: financial budget, medical. physical and emotional needs. It is also important to speak with a doctor first.
Healthy Elders are healthy and have no issues and can live in their own homes may opt to hire caregivers if they want
Disabled Elders should register in assisted living facilities where they have access to enough personal care services.
a nurse is teaching a client how to properly administer fosfomycin. the nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly points out they will administer the drug in which manner?
Changes in procedures are thus required as new knowledge becomes available. We advise the reader to always look up the most recent studies.
Whatever testing process should the nurse keep an eye on to gauge the efficacy of the treatment?Therapeutic drug monitoring, often known as TDM, is a test that quantifies the concentration of specific drugs in your blood. To ensure that the dosage of medication users are getting is both secure and efficient, this is done.
Which gland had a problem would have an impact on aldosterone levels?Just above the kidneys, there are the adrenal glands. They produce hormones that have an impact on practically all of the body's organs and tissues as a component of the endocrine system. Too little cortisol and, frequently, too little aldosterone are produced as a result of damage to these glands.
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Individuals with schizophrenia display varying degrees of neurocognitive impairments that are evidenced by which factor? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1 Psychosis
2 Disorganized thinking
3 Substance abuse
4 Disorganized personality
5 Disorganized speech
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a variety of neurocognitive impairments, including psychosis, disorganized thinking, disorganized personality, disorganized speech, and substance abuse.
Psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, and altered perceptions of reality. Disorganized thinking involves difficulty organizing thoughts and following logical patterns of thought.
Disorganized personality involves difficulty in controlling emotions, forming relationships, and managing daily activities. Disorganized speech is characterized by difficulties in finding the right words, maintaining a conversation, and understanding what is being said.
Substance abuse is often a symptom of schizophrenia and can manifest as the use of drugs to self-medicate. These neurocognitive impairments can vary in severity from person to person, but they can have a significant impact on a person’s functioning and quality of life.
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Why is the mRNA not equal in length to the DNA it was transcribed from?
Answer:
It is not equal in length because each codon of three bases encodes for only one single amino acid
Explanation:
A box of pseudoephedrine contains 10 tablets with a strength of 120 per tablet. How many boxes may a patient purchase in a 30 day period If purchasing from a retail pharmacy ?
Answer:
3 boxes.
Explanation:
30/10= 3
Answer:
C
Explanation:
hope this helps :D
during the analyis of absorbic acid in a 500 mg vitamin c tablet a studnt found the tablet actually contained 487 mg .what is the percent error
percent error = 2.60%
The actual value = of 500mg
Contained value or experimental value = 487mg
calculate the difference between the Actual value and the contained value
difference between Actual and contained values = (500 - 487) = 13
The formula for calculating the error percentage is
% error = difference between Actual value and Contained value * 100 / Actual value
% error = actual value - contained value * 100 / Actual value
substituting the values in the above formula
% error = (13 / 500) * 100
% error = 0.026 * 100
% error = 2.60 %
2.60% is the answer.
The error percentage is 2.60 %
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The percent error of the analysis of 500 mg vitamin C tablet which contains only 487 mg is 2.6%.
The percent error in measuring is the difference between the actual value and the experimental value divided by the actual value, expressed as a percentage. The formula is:(|experimental value - actual value| / actual value) x 100Given data: Actual value = 500 mg Experimental value = 487 mg Percent error = ?
Using the formula above, the percent error in analyzing 500 mg of Vitamin C tablet which actually contains only 487 mg is:(|experimental value - actual value| / actual value) x 100= (|487 - 500| / 500) x 100= (13 / 500) x 100= 2.6%Hence, the percent error in analyzing the absorbic acid in the given vitamin C tablet is 2.6%.
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Tablets are 125 mg each and you must give 75 mg. What fraction of a tablet will you give?
In determining whether this staffing concern should be reported to an outside agency, the nurse understands that what statement is true concerning the process identified as "whistle-blowing"?
a. Whistle-blowing is never appropriate in a healthcare setting.
b. Whistle-blowing should be the first step in addressing any concern.
c. Whistle-blowing should only be done anonymously.
d. Whistle-blowing should be a last resort when all other internal channels have been exhausted.
The Department of Respiratory Therapy is typically responsible for administering oxygen therapy. The correct answer is a. Whistle-blowing is never appropriate in a healthcare setting.
Respiratory therapists are specialized healthcare professionals who have expertise in managing and treating respiratory conditions. They are trained in providing various respiratory treatments, including oxygen therapy, to patients in need.Oxygen therapy involves the administration of supplemental oxygen to individuals who have low levels of oxygen in their blood or are experiencing respiratory difficulties.This therapy can be delivered through different methods, such as nasal cannula, oxygen masks, or specialized devices like continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP) machines.
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The probable outcome of a disease or injury is know as
Answer:
A prediction of the probable course and outcome of a disease.
Explanation:
A circular dartboard with a diameter of 24 inches has a circular bullseye at its center. The diameter of the target is 2 inches. If a poorly thrown dart is equally likely to hit anywhere on the dartboard, what is the probability of it hitting the target
The probability of hitting the target on a circular dartboard with a poorly thrown dart is 1/144 or approximately 0.0069. The target has a diameter of 2 inches, while the dartboard has a diameter of 24 inches.
To find the probability of hitting the target, we need to compare the area of the target to the area of the entire dartboard.
The area of a circle is calculated using the formula A = πr², where A is the area and r is the radius.
The radius of the dartboard is half of its diameter, which is 24 inches / 2 = 12 inches. So, the area of the dartboard is A_dartboard = π(12)² = 144π square inches.
The radius of the target is half of its diameter, which is 2 inches / 2 = 1 inch. So, the area of the target is A_target = π(1)² = π square inches.
To find the probability, we divide the area of the target by the area of the dartboard: P(hit target) = A_target / A_dartboard.
P(hit target) = π / 144π = 1 / 144.
Therefore, the probability of hitting the target with a poorly thrown dart is 1/144, or approximately 0.0069, which is a very small probability.
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Identify the PPE to be used when delivering a food tray to a resident who has a skin infection or open wound
Check all that apply.
[mark all correct answers]
a. Mask or respirator
b. Goggles
c. Face Shield
d. Gloves
e. Gown
f. No PPE is needed
Answer:
gloves, gown, goggles, and mask or respirator
Explanation:
The personal protective equipments used while delivering food tray to resident with skin infections or open wounds are face shield,gloves and gown.
What are personal protective equipments?Personal protective equipment is a protective clothing which is worn to protect the wearer's body from hazard or injury.The hazards which can be addressed by the use of personal protective equipment are physical,chemical and bio hazards.
It imposes a barrier between the user and the working environment.The main purpose of personal protective equipment is to reduce exposure of employees to the hazards.
It has a limitation that it does not eliminate the hazard and may lead to harm to the employee if the equipment is damaged.It is not effective if it is not worn or fitted properly.
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A 76-year-old woman with emphysema presents with respiratory distress that has worsened progressively over the past 2 days. She is breathing through pursed lips and has a prolonged expiratory phase and an oxygen saturation of 76%. She is on home oxygen at 2 L/min. Your initial action should be to: