Based on the outcome of the study, the OTR should recommend including predischarge home evaluation visits as part of the discharge planning for patients in this diagnostic group.
The study indicates that 80% of patients discharged to home after completing inpatient rehabilitation following a CVA required additional adaptive devices and durable medical equipment within one week after discharge.
This highlights the need for a comprehensive discharge planning process that includes a home evaluation visit to identify potential barriers to independent living and determine the necessary equipment and modifications required to ensure a safe transition to home.
By conducting a predischarge home evaluation visit, the OT can identify any environmental factors that may impact the patient's ability to perform daily living tasks and make recommendations for necessary adaptations and equipment.
This will ensure a safe and successful home transition and reduce the likelihood of readmission or further medical complications.
Therefore, recommending the inclusion of predischarge home evaluation visits as part of the discharge planning for patients in this diagnostic group is the most appropriate action for the OTR to take based on the study's outcome.
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Beginning with chemicals and proceeding through increasing levels of complexity in levels of
organization, the correct sequence is?
HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
An individual recovering from hip replacement surgery prepares for discharge home. The client has a secondary diagnosis of gastric esophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which is the best bed position for the occupational therapist to recommend to this client
An individual recovering from hip replacement surgery who has a secondary diagnosis of gastric esophageal reflux disease (GERD) requires the occupational therapist to recommend the best bed position.
The best bed position for the occupational therapist to recommend to this client is semi-fowler position.What is Hip Replacement Surgery?Hip replacement surgery is a procedure that involves the replacement of a damaged hip joint with an artificial one. This type of surgery is done to relieve pain, improve mobility, and enhance quality of life in patients who are experiencing hip joint issues.Gastric Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is a condition in which acid reflux occurs. It happens when the acid from the stomach travels up into the esophagus, causing discomfort. The main symptoms of GERD include heartburn, indigestion, and regurgitation of food or liquid.The semi-fowler position is a bed position where the head of the bed is elevated 30-45 degrees while the legs are flat on the bed. The semi-fowler position is the most recommended bed position for patients with hip replacement surgery who have a secondary diagnosis of GERD.
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Describe three adaptive advantages of mammalian anatomy
Answer:
The three adaptive advantages of the mammalian anatomy are as follows:
No eggs. Mammals have well developed offspring that they can keep it safe inside their body until the time it is ready to be in the outside world.
Four legs under the body. It allows mammals to be highly developed when it comes to speed.
Fur. It protects the mammals’ skin.
Explanation:
Your answer should be - The following are the three adaptive benefits of mammalian anatomy: There are no eggs. Mammals have well-developed offspring that they can keep safe inside their bodies until they are ready to be released into the world. There are four legs under the body. It enables animals to be highly evolved in terms of speed. Fur. It protects the skin of animals.
What supplies would you need to empty the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately
The supplies which would be needed to empty the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately include the following:
GlovesGarbage bagsCatheterWhat is Urine?This is referred to as a liquid by product of metabolism and is usually whitish or yellowish and stored in the bladder before it is expelled put from the body. Urine is harmful to the body as it contains urea which is why it must be expelled as soon as we feel the urge to.
Some medical conditions such as prostate cancer etc require emptying the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately and materials such as catheter, garbage bags etc ensure that they are properly done.
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Decreasing the use of fossil fuels like coal and oil will decrease all of the forms of air pollution except:
Multiple choice question.
cross out
A)
particulate matter
cross out
B)
photochemical smog
cross out
C)
acid precipitation
cross out
D)
CFCs
Decreasing the use of fossil fuels like coal and oil will decrease all of the forms of air pollution except D) CFCs.
What are CFCs?CFCs are a type of air pollutant that is not created by the burning of fossil fuels. They are created by the breakdown of certain chemicals, such as chlorofluorocarbons, which are used in a variety of products, including refrigerators, air conditioners, and aerosol cans.
CFCs are a major contributor to ozone depletion, which is a hole in the ozone layer that allows harmful ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth's surface. Ultraviolet radiation can cause a variety of health problems, including skin cancer, cataracts, and immune system suppression.
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The client has an HDL cholesterol value of 38 mg/dl. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this value
The most appropriate interpretation of an HDL cholesterol value of 38 mg/dl would be that the value is below the normal range. Or simply, the value is considered to be low.
HDL cholesterol is often referred to as the "good" cholesterol, as it is associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Therefore, it is essential to maintain healthy HDL cholesterol levels to protect against heart disease.High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is a type of cholesterol that is found in the blood. It is often referred to as "good" cholesterol since it aids in the removal of cholesterol from the body, reducing the risk of heart disease. HDL cholesterol levels of more than 60 mg/dL are desirable, according to healthcare experts. Levels of less than 40 mg/dL in men and less than 50 mg/dL in women are considered low and are a risk factor for heart disease. Therefore, an HDL cholesterol value of 38 mg/dl is below the normal range and should be taken seriously.
precautions one should take with low HDL cholesterol levels:
Quit smoking if you smoke.Lose weight if you're overweight or obese.Engage in physical exercise on a regular basis.Eat a diet high in fiber and low in saturated fats.Avoid trans fats, which are commonly found in processed foods.Reduce the amount of alcohol you consume.
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What are 3 common sports injuries?
Sprains and strains are the most frequent sports injuries. Knee problems. muscular swell.
What type of sports injury occurs most frequently?
Strains. Because we engage so many muscles and tendons when we play or exercise, strains are by far the most frequent of all sports-related ailments.
What football injury is the most common?
Football knee injuries are most frequent, especially those to the menisci and anterior or posterior cruciate ligaments (ACL/PCL) (cartilage of the knee). These knee injuries may have a negative impact on a player's long-term participation in the sport.
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The most frequent sports wounds include: both strains and sprains, Knee problems and muscular swell. These are the 3 common sports injuries.
1. Sprain and strain:- A stretched or damaged ligament results in a sprain. A sprain can be brought on by falling, twisting, or even being struck. Sprains of the wrist and ankle are common. Symptoms include joint immobility, discomfort, edema, and bruising.
A strained or torn muscle or tendon is known as a strain. Strain can result from twisting or tugging these tissues. Muscle strains in the back and hamstrings are frequent. Pain, muscle spasms, swelling, and difficulty moving the affected muscle are some symptoms.
2. Knee injuries:- The most common disease affecting the knee is osteoarthritis. The cartilage in the knee gradually wears away, causing pain and swelling. Knee issues can also result from injuries to the tendons and ligaments. Anterior cruciate ligament damage is a frequent accident (ACL). Usually, a sudden twisting motion causes you to tear your ACL. Common sports injuries include ACL and other knee ailments.
3. swelling of muscles :- If something is inflamed, it may be swollen. The main muscles to be affected are around the shoulders, hips and thighs.
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Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
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A client has 6/10 knee pain at the beginning of a workout. at the end of the first set of the lateral step with a mini-band his knee pain decreased to 4/10. at the end of the second set it decreased to 2/10. after the third set, his knee pain increased back to 4/10. what should you do next
Perform a fourth set and see if it helps is the most appropriate thing to do next.
What is Pain?This is defined as an unpleasant sensation and emotional experience usually caused by tissue damage.
During the workout, the pain reduced a bit and increased which is why the fourth set should be done to ascertain its effect so as to know if alternative medications will be used.
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A 31 y.o. African-American female collapses at mile 20 of a marathon. Although the temperature is in the 60’s she was advised by her coach to drink as much water as possible. She vomits a large volume of clear fluid and has a seizure. Her BP is 134/74. A serum sodium is found to be 122 mmol/L. What would your next step would be?
Answer:
1 liter of 3% saline
Explanation:
The US Department of Health and Human Services has a stated goal for the seasonal influenza vaccine of vaccinating 80% of healthy (i.e., low-risk) individuals. This vaccine is formulated each year from the serotypes of influenza likely to be circulating in the population during the coming flu season. The reason this goal is not 100% of individuals is because:
The US Department of Health and Human Services aims to vaccinate 80% of healthy individuals against seasonal influenza each year by formulating a vaccine that matches the expected circulating influenza serotypes. This goal is intended to reduce the impact of the flu on the population.
The reason this goal is not 100% of individuals is because:
1. It is challenging to achieve 100% vaccination coverage in a population due to various factors such as vaccine hesitancy, accessibility, and availability.
2. Some individuals cannot receive the influenza vaccine due to medical reasons, such as severe allergies or weakened immune systems.
3. The vaccine is formulated based on the serotypes of influenza likely to be circulating in the population during the upcoming flu season, but it may not always be effective against all strains.
4. Achieving an 80% vaccination rate is considered sufficient for providing herd immunity, which helps protect those who cannot be vaccinated and reduces the overall spread of the virus in the population.
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Client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of neutropenia which intervention should nurse include inplaning care for this client ? Select all that appy
How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
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you are talking with the parents of a 2-year-old boy diagnosed with leukemia about pain management. which statement indicates an understanding about pain management in children? he needs to be assessed carefully so that he gets enough pain medication. he may require less analgesia since he has limited memory of the pain. he is at risk for addiction due to his early exposure to pain medications. he does not have full pain sensitivity due to an underdeveloped nervous system.
The statement that indicates an understanding about pain management in children is: "He needs to be assessed carefully so that he gets enough pain medication."
Pain management in children, especially in the case of a 2-year-old boy diagnosed with leukemia, requires careful assessment and monitoring to ensure that appropriate pain relief is provided. It is crucial to evaluate the child's pain level and response to medication regularly to make necessary adjustments and ensure optimal pain control. Each child may have a different pain threshold, and their pain experience should not be underestimated or overlooked.
While the statement that suggests the child may require less analgesia due to limited memory of pain is partially true, it should not be the sole consideration for pain management. Pain management in children should be based on the assessment of their current pain level and appropriate dosing of pain medication. Pain relief is essential not only for comfort but also to facilitate healing and recovery.
The statement suggesting that the child is at risk for addiction due to early exposure to pain medications is not accurate. The risk of addiction in children receiving pain medication under appropriate medical supervision is extremely low. Addiction is more commonly associated with long-term, high-dose opioid use, which is not typically the case for children with acute pain conditions.
The statement implying that the child does not have full pain sensitivity due to an underdeveloped nervous system is incorrect. Children, even at a young age, can experience pain and should receive appropriate pain management. Their nervous system, although still developing, is capable of sensing and responding to pain stimuli. Effective pain management is crucial to ensure the child's well-being and minimize distress during treatment.
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In an indirect competitive advertisement, a product or hospital compares itself:
A. to a direct named competitor, whether it is a brand or hospital
B. to a leading brand or hospital in the region.
C. to all the best hospitals or brands in a category
D. None of these is correct
A). In an indirect competitive advertisement, a product or hospital typically compares itself to a leading brand or hospital in the region. This allows the product or hospital to position itself as a strong contender in the market without directly mentioning a specific competitor by name.
By highlighting its strengths and unique selling points, the product or hospital can effectively differentiate itself from other players in the market and appeal to potential customers. Comparing oneself to all the best hospitals or brands in a category may not be as effective as it does not provide a clear picture of the product or hospital's advantages over specific competitors.
Ultimately, the goal of an indirect competitive advertisement is to create a favorable perception of the product or hospital and persuade potential customers to choose it over other options available in the market. It is essential to keep in mind that indirect competitive advertising is just one of the many advertising strategies used by businesses to promote their products or services.
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Beginning in 2013, the IRS issued final regulations for implementing the Additional Medicare tax that was added by the Affordable Care Act. What is the rate for the Additional Medicare tax?
Answer: The tax rate for the Additional Medicare Tax is 0.9 percent. That means you'll pay 2.35 percent if you receive employment wages.
which intervention will the nurse use to help a client who was in a same sex relationship for three years and says, my partner just left me. I’m a wreck”?
A nurse plays a vital role in helping patients recover from their emotional and psychological issues. This includes offering psychological support to patients who have gone through traumatic experiences, including breakups. When a client expresses their emotional distress after being abandoned by their partner in a same-sex relationship, it is the responsibility of the nurse to offer the right intervention.
In the case of this patient, the nurse can offer several interventions to help the client cope with their distress. These interventions include the following: Encouraging the client to talk The nurse should listen attentively to the patient’s concerns and encourage them to talk more about their feelings.
This helps to establish a therapeutic relationship between the nurse and the patient and enables the client to express their emotions freely and without fear of judgment. The nurse can also provide the patient with a safe space to talk to their friends or family members who can offer additional emotional support.
This can help the patient to process their feelings more effectively. Providing emotional support Nurses can offer emotional support to patients who are going through tough times. In this case, the nurse can offer the patient a listening ear and a shoulder to cry on.
The nurse can also offer the patient positive affirmation, praise, and encouragement to help them rebuild their self-esteem and confidence. This can help the patient to start the healing process. Encouraging the client to take care of themselves The nurse can encourage the patient to take care of themselves by providing them with information about healthy coping mechanisms.
For instance, the nurse can recommend healthy eating habits, exercises, and activities that the patient can engage in to help them manage their stress. The nurse can also offer advice on how to avoid harmful habits such as drug abuse and binge drinking that could interfere with their healing process.
In conclusion, the nurse can use various interventions to help the client cope with their emotional distress after being abandoned by their partner in a same-sex relationship. These interventions include offering a listening ear, emotional support, and encouraging the client to take care of themselves.
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Pharmacology a patient-centered nursing process approach.
Pharmacology's patient-centered nursing process approach focuses on the patient and their individual needs.
Pharmacology is the study of drugs and their effects on the body. In the nursing profession, pharmacology plays an essential role in patient care, and a patient-centered approach is often taken to ensure the best outcomes.
It includes assessing a patient's medical history, current medications, and allergies before administering any medication. By taking these steps, the nurse can ensure that the patient receives the correct medication in the appropriate dosage.
The patient's cultural background and personal preferences are also taken into consideration when administering medication. For example, if a patient prefers a particular method of administration, such as a patch instead of a pill, the nurse will try to accommodate this request.
Pharmacology's patient-centered nursing process approach includes patient education. The nurse will explain to the patient what medication they are receiving, how it works, and any potential side effects.
The patient will be given information on how to take the medication and when to contact their healthcare provider if they experience any adverse reactions.
In conclusion, pharmacology is an integral part of nursing care. By using a patient-centered approach, nurses can ensure that patients receive the right medication, in the correct dosage, and in a manner that meets their individual needs. Education is a key component of this approach, as it empowers the patient to take an active role in their care.
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If a patient with third-degree burns covering 40% of the body surface area suddenly exhibits high blood pressure and edema and is not producing urine, he or she has probably developeda. severe malnutrition b. nephrotic syndromec. chronic renal failured. acute renal failure
The patient has probably developed acute renal failure.
The correct answer is d. acute renal failure.
Acute renal failure is a sudden loss of kidney function that can be caused by various factors including burns. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, the body is unable to regulate fluid and electrolyte balance, resulting in high blood pressure and edema. Additionally, the kidneys play a crucial role in filtering waste products from the blood to produce urine. In acute renal failure, urine output decreases or stops altogether.
Burns can cause damage to the skin, which can lead to the loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. This can cause dehydration, which can put a strain on the kidneys and lead to acute renal failure. Third-degree burns are the most severe type of burn, affecting all layers of the skin and potentially damaging underlying tissue and organs. Symptoms of acute renal failure include decreased urine output, swelling in the legs and ankles, fatigue, confusion, and seizures. If left untreated, acute renal failure can lead to life-threatening complications such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Treatment for acute renal failure may include addressing the underlying cause of the condition, such as treating burns or other injuries. Fluid and electrolyte balance may be restored through intravenous fluids and medication. In some cases, dialysis may be necessary to remove waste products from the blood and restore kidney function.
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the nine dimensions of wellness include all of the following, except group of answer choices spiritual wellness. emotional wellness. environmental, or planetary, wellness. dietary wellness.
The nine dimensions of wellness include all of the following except dietary wellness. The other eight dimensions are emotional, intellectual, spiritual, social, physical, occupational, financial, and environmental wellness. The nine dimensions of wellness are interrelated and interconnected.
When you take good care of one dimension of wellness, it will positively affect the other dimensions. Each dimension contributes to a complete and well-rounded life.1. Emotional Wellness Emotional wellness is the ability to express and manage your emotions in a healthy way. You should be able to control your feelings, have a positive attitude, and cope with life's challenges.2. Intellectual Wellness Intellectual wellness is the ability to think critically, learn new things, and engage in creative and stimulating activities.
You should have a curious mind, be open to different ideas and perspectives, and enjoy solving problems.3. Spiritual Wellness Spiritual wellness is the ability to find meaning and purpose in life. You should have a sense of belonging, have positive values and beliefs, and be able to connect with something greater than yourself.4. Social Wellness Social wellness is the ability to build and maintain healthy relationships with others. You should have a support system, be able to communicate effectively, and enjoy spending time with others.5. Physical WellnessPhysical wellness is the ability to maintain a healthy body. You should have a balanced diet, exercise regularly, get enough sleep, and avoid harmful habits.6. Occupational Wellness Occupational wellness is the ability to find satisfaction and fulfillment in your work. You should have a positive work-life balance, feel valued in your job, and have a sense of purpose.7. Financial Wellness Financial wellness is the ability to manage your finances effectively.
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because limited amounts of the vitamin are transferred from mother to the fetus and because breastmilk is not particularly high in the vitamin, so what kind of injection are giving to an infants?
Based context provided, it seems that the injection given to infants to compensate for limited transfer of a certain vitamin from mother to fetus.This injection help prevent Vitamin K deficienc bleeding newborns.
Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays an important role in blood clotting and bone metabolism. There are two main forms of vitamin K: K1, found in green leafy vegetables and other plant sources, and K2, produced by bacteria in the gut and found in animal products and fermented foods. Vitamin K deficiency can lead to bleeding disorders, while excess intake can interfere with anticoagulant medication. Adequate vitamin K intake is important for bone health, as it helps activate proteins that are involved in bone formation. Sources of vitamin K include spinach, kale, broccoli, liver, eggs, and cheese.
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you are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. the patient has a history of asthma. after placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. how can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate? question 1 options: a) think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings. b) ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct c) constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct d) keep your emt textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis
The answer to this question is (a) think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings.
Other causes of Respiratory Distress pneumonia or severe flu sepsisa severe chest injury accidentally inhaling vomit, smoke or toxic chemicals near drowning acute pancreatitis – a serious condition where the pancreas becomes inflamed over a short time an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion Asthma attack signs and symptoms include: Severe shortness of breath, chest tightness or pain, and coughing or wheezing Low peak expiratory flow (PEF) readings if you use a peak flow meter Symptoms that fail to respond to the use of a quick-acting (rescue) inhaler
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Which of the following statements best defines a construct: Question 3 options: a) Operationalized components of a particular theory b) Systematic view of events that specifies relations among variables c) A model of health behavior change that integrates multiple theories d) Theories that apply to a specific problem, audience, and context
Operationalized components of a particular theory statements best defines a construct. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Operationalization?Operationalization is defined as the process by which researchers conducting quantitative research spell out accurately how a concept will be measured.
For example, if an unobservable theoretical construct such as socioeconomic status is refer to as the level of family income, it can be operationalized using an indicator which asks respondents the question such as what is your annual family income?
Because social science notions are rife with subjectivity and imprecision, We usually use numerous indicators to measure most of those constructs (with the exception of a few demographic constructs like age, gender, education, and income). This method allows us to analyze the accuracy of these indicators by looking at how near they are to one another (reliability).
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What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?
Answer:
geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Explanation:
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Which are lung conditions? Check all that apply.
silicosis
Obyssinosis
anthracosis
sleep apnea syndromes
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
dyspnea
Answer:
all of the above
Explanation:
your welcome my dawg
Answer:
1 silicosis
2 byssinosis
3 anthracosis
Explanation:
what are some key elements of the social model of
care?
Explanation:
1. know your loved one or client:Be aware of their lives preference and desire
2. Communicate for success
The social model of care focuses on addressing systemic barriers and promoting a society that values diversity, inclusion, and social justice. It aims to empower individuals and promote their rights, dignity, and quality of life within their social context.
Some key elements of the social model of care include:
Social inclusion: Fostering a sense of belonging and actively including individuals in all aspects of society, irrespective of their abilities or disabilities. This involves promoting equal opportunities and challenging discrimination and social barriers.Person-centered approach: Placing the person at the center of care, acknowledging their autonomy, preferences, and choices. It emphasizes the importance of involving individuals in decision-making processes and tailoring care to their specific needs and goals.Collaboration and participation: Encouraging active involvement and collaboration between individuals, their families, caregivers, and the wider community. It recognizes the value of collective efforts and partnerships in providing holistic care and support.Access to support services and resources: Ensuring equitable access to necessary support services, resources, and accommodations. This includes physical accessibility, assistive technologies, communication aids, and appropriate healthcare and rehabilitation services.Social and environmental factors: Recognizing the impact of social, cultural, and environmental factors on individuals' well-being. This includes addressing social determinants of health, promoting social cohesion, and creating inclusive environments that enable individuals to fully participate in society.To know more about social cohesion
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Which of the following is an example of trauma?
O A. Choking
O B. Drug overdose
O C. Unusually painful headaches
D. Suicidal thoughts
How would a patient feel if a patient was getting a x-ray but her chart said she was getting a different x-ray
Answer:
i think the patient will be
scared or
relief .
If a refill request is denied, you must contact the?
Answer:
You can call your doctor's office and ask to approve the refill over the phone. Some pharmacies can also do this for you. For instance, you can call your local pharmacy and ask them to contact your doctor to approve a refill.
If a refill request is denied, you must contact the prescribing healthcare provider or physician.
When a refill request is denied, it means that the healthcare provider or physician has determined that the prescription should not be refilled for various reasons. To address this situation, it is necessary to communicate directly with the prescribing healthcare provider or physician to understand the reason for the denial and discuss any alternatives or necessary adjustments to the medication regimen.
Contacting the prescribing healthcare provider allows for clarification, further assessment, or discussion of alternative treatment options, if applicable. They have the authority to make decisions regarding medication refills based on their medical expertise and the specific needs of the patient.
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