ABCD is a parallelogram. The diagonals of the parallelogram intersect at O.
DO=a CO=b
find in terms of b the vector CA=
find in terms of a and b the vector DC=
find in terms of a and b the vector CB=

The solution is, the true statements are,

The function is increasing. (True) it’s a linear function and 1/3>0.

The range of the function is all real numbers. (​True)

Function, in mathematics, an expression, rule, or law that defines a relationship between one variable (the independent variable) and another variable.

here, we have,

The function is increasing. (True) it’s a linear function and 1/3>0.

The function is decreasing. (False)

The x-intercept is (1,0). (False) If we replace x by 1 we get 1/3 not 0

The y-intercept is (0, 1). (False)

The range of the function is all real numbers. (​True)

Hence, The solution is, the true statements are,

The function is increasing. (True) it’s a linear function and 1/3>0.

The range of the function is all real numbers. (​True)

To learn more on function click:

brainly.com/question/21145944

#SPJ1

After closely analyzing the line graph, it can be seen that the number of pygmy marmosets weighing more than 1/2 ounce are 8.

To create a line plot, we plot each weight of the each pygmy marmosets on the y-axis and the pygmy marmoset number on the x-axis, which will be ultimately being connected using the points with a line.

After ploting the each mentioned weights (in ounces ) and taking a close study of the plotted line graph,  we can see that there are total 8 pygmy marmosets which are weighing more than 1/2 ounce.

Therefore, the total number of pygmy marmosets with weight more than 1/2 ounces are 8.

Learn more about Line Graph :

https://brainly.com/question/31123430

#SPJ4

The complete question is :

The table shows the weights of 10 newborn pygmy marmosets make a line plot to display the data. How many pygmy marmosets weigh more than 1/2 ounce ?

Pygmy Marmoset      Weight (ounces)

1                                 0.4

2                                 0.5

3                                 0.6

4                                 0.7

5                                 0.8

6                                 0.9

7                                 1.0

8                                 1.1

9                                 1.2

10                                 1.3

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  £27.50

Step-by-step explanation:

The general approach is ...

1. The area to be painted will be the area of the four walls, less the area of the door (which is assumed to be a hole in the wall, so is not painted).

Each wall has the same dimensions, so the same area. The area of the rectangular wall is ...

  A = LW

  A = (3.5 m)(2.6 m) = 9.1 m²

The area of the door is ...

  A = (2.2 m)(0.8 m) = 1.76 m²

Then the area to be painted is the area of the 4 walls less the area of the door:

  painted area = 4(9.1 m²) -1.76 m² = 34.64 m²

__

2. Each 2 L tin of paint will cover (2 L)×(8 m²/L) = 16 m², so the number of tins needed is ...

  (34.64 m²)/(16 m²/tin) = 2.165 tins

We assume this means Aisha will need to purchase 3 tins, since she will need more paint than is provided by 2 tins.

__

3. Because of the price offer on the paint, Aisha will pay full price for the first two tins, half price for the 3rd tin. That is, she will pay 2 1/2 times the full price of a tin when she buys the 3 tins of paint she needs. Each tin costs £11, so Aisha will pay ...

  (2 1/2)(£11) = £27.50

Aisha will pay £27.50 for the paint to paint her living room.

Answer:

that I have a panda but the black on it and I have kiss me kiss me at

Answer:

correct answer is 9 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The hour hand that goes through 3 right angles and starts from 7 will stop at 4.

We can assume that the numbers in a clock are positioned in a circle. The angle in a circle is 360⁰, while the numbers in a clock is 12.

Hence, from each clock number to its consecutive number, the hour hand must travel 30⁰ as shown in the attached picture.

A right angle is equal to 90⁰. This is equal to 3 ⨉ 30⁰. In other words, to travel  90⁰ means to travel 3 hours.

3 right angles =  3 ⨉ 90⁰

                      = 3 ⨉ 3 hours

                      = 9 hours.

Thus, the hour hand will go to:

7 + 9 = 16

16 is equal to number 4 in a clock number.

Conclusion: If the hour hand start from 7, it will stop at clock number 4.

Learn more about angle here:

https://brainly.com/question/82007

#SPJ4

Answer:

To determine the number of outcomes for Nikia's random selection of a team card and a character card for a role-playing game, we can use a tree diagram, table, or list.

There are four possible teams: air, fire, land, and water. Once a team card is selected, there are three possible character cards: healer, spy, and thief. Therefore, the total number of outcomes is the product of the number of options for each selection, which is:

4 (number of team options) x 3 (number of character options) = 12

So there are 12 possible outcomes for Nikia's random selection of a team card and a character card. However, since Nikia has specified that her favorite team is air and her favorite character is spy, the number of outcomes that would satisfy her preferences is:

1 (air team) x 1 (spy character) = 1

Therefore, only one outcome would satisfy Nikia's preferences.

Answer:

y = -2/3x - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the word-length 2's complement representation of each of the following decimal numbers, we can follow the steps below:a) 54.

In order to convert 54 to a 2's complement representation, we have to take the following steps:Convert 54 to binary form.54 / 2 = 27 remainder 1 (LSB)27 / 2 = 13 remainder 1 13 / 2 = 6 remainder 1 6 / 2 = 3 remainder 0 3 / 2 = 1 remainder 1 1 / 2 = 0 remainder 1 (MSB)So, 54 in binary form is 00110110.

Add leading zeroes to make up 8 bits.00110110 → 00110110We don't need to take the 2's complement of this binary representation because 54 is positive. The word-length 2's complement representation of 54 is simply 00110110.b) -10:

To convert -10 to a 2's complement representation, we have to take the following steps:Convert 10 to binary form.10 / 2 = 5 remainder 0 (LSB)5 / 2 = 2 remainder 1 2 / 2 = 1 remainder 0 1 / 2 = 0 remainder 1 (MSB)So,

10 in binary form is 00001010.Take the 1's complement of this binary representation.00001010 → 11110101Add 1 to this 1's complement.11110101 + 1 = 11110110 Add leading zeroes to make up 8 bits.11110110 → 11110110,

the word-length 2's complement representation of -10 is 11110110.In conclusion, we found the word-length 2's complement representation of 54 to be 00110110 and the word-length 2's complement representation of -10 to be 11110110.

To know more about representation visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28814712

#SPJ11

To find the maximum and minimum values of the given function f(θ), we need to find its critical points and endpoints.

First, we take the derivative of f(θ) with respect to θ:

f'(θ) = -2 sin(θ) - 2 cos(θ) sin(θ)

Setting f'(θ) = 0, we get:

-2 sin(θ) - 2 cos(θ) sin(θ) = 0

Simplifying and factoring out -2 sin(θ), we get:

-2 sin(θ) (1 + cos(θ)) = 0

This gives us two critical points: θ = 0 and θ = π.

Next, we need to evaluate the function at the endpoints of the given interval [0, 2π]:

f(0) = 2 cos(0) + cos2(0) = 3

f(2π) = 2 cos(2π) + cos2(2π) = 3

Now we compare the values of f(θ) at the critical points and endpoints to find the maximum and minimum values:

f(0) = 3 (endpoint)

f(π) = 1 (critical point)

f(2π) = 3 (endpoint)

Therefore, the maximum value of f(θ) is 3 and the minimum value is 1.

To learn more about trigonometric equation refer below

https://brainly.com/question/10676952

#SPJ11

IfIf Upper pointing arrow with height of 11 and length of 9. Rectangular base of arrow has length of 7 and height of 8. All units are in centimeters. The area of the arrow by decomposing it into rectangles and triangles is: 69.5 square centimeters.

First step is to calculate the Area of triangle

Area of triangle= ½×breadth ×height

Height of triangle= 11 - 8

Height of triangle = 3cm

Area of triangle= ½ × 9 × 3

Area of triangle = 13.5 cm²

Second step is to calculate the area of rectangle

Area of rectangle= length × breadth

Area of rectangle= 8 × 7

Area of rectangle= 56 cm²

Third step is to calculate the total area

Total area=Area of triangles+ Area of rectangle

Total area = 13.5 + 56

Total area= 69.5 cm²

Therefore the area of the arrow by decomposing it into rectangles and triangles is: 69.5 square centimeters.

Learn more about total area here:https://brainly.com/question/16519513

#SPJ1

Answer:

h=84

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to set up two equations. The first will be math + history = 240, or m + h = 240. and than you have to h = m - 72 and after that you have to use the second equation to replace the "h" in the first equation: m + m - 72 = 240. and than do 2m - 72 = 240 and solve it. and add 72 to both sides 2m=312 than divide both sides by 2 which will be m = 156 which than you do 156+ h and that will give you 240. than subtract 156 from both sides and your Answer would be here=84.

The area of the bounded region is [(√5-1)/2] square units.

To find the area of the bounded region, we first need to find the points of intersection of the given curves:

We have the curves y=x-x² and y=x²-1

Equating them we get:

x-x²=x²-1

Rearranging:

x²+x-1=0

Solving the above quadratic equation we get:

x=(-1±√5)/2

So, the points of intersection are:

(-1+√5)/2 and (-1-√5)/2

Now, to find the area of the bounded region, we integrate the difference between the two curves between the points of intersection:

Area = ∫[(x²-1)-(x-x²)]dx

[limits: (-1-√5)/2 to (-1+√5)/2]

Area = ∫(2x²-x-1)dx

[limits: (-1-√5)/2 to (-1+√5)/2]

Area = [2x³/3 - x²/2 - x]

[limits: (-1-√5)/2 to (-1+√5)/2]

Area = [(√5-1)/2] square units

Therefore, the area of the bounded region is [(√5-1)/2] square units.

Learn more about the area;

https://brainly.com/question/33314324

#SPJ4

The sum of the expressions 2x/5 + 5/8 + x/5 - 1/4 is option b) 3x/8 + 3/8

Here we have 2x/5 + 5/8 + x/5 - 1/4

Now since we have constants as well as variables here, to add these up, we will add the constants and variables separately.

The constants are the ones with just numbers, while the variables are those terms that have the term x with them.

Hence adding up the constants will give us

5/8 - 1/4

The LCM of denominators 8, and 4 is 8

Hence, we get

5/8 - 2/8

= 3/8

Now adding the variable gives us

2x/5 + x/5

= 3x/5

Hence the sum is

3x/5 + 3/8

To learn more about Algaebric Expressions visit

https://brainly.com/question/19277032

#SPJ4

Complete Question

2x/5 + 5/8 + x/5 - 1/4

a) 3x/5 + 1/8

b) 3x/5 + 3/8

c) 3x/5 + 5/8

d) 3x/5 + 7/8

It is not equal to any of the options listed: three-fifths x 1/8, three-fifths x 3/8, three-fifths x 5/8, or three-fifths x 7/8.

The expression

(2/5 * 5/8) + (1/5 * x - 1/4)

can be simplified as follows:

2/5 * 5/8 = 1/8

1/5 * x - 1/4 = (1/5 - 1/4) x = -3/20 x

So the expression becomes

1/8 + (-3/20 x) = (1/8 - 3/20 x).

This is not equal to any of the options listed: three-fifths x 1/8, three-fifths x 3/8, three-fifths x 5/8, or three-fifths x 7/8.

To learn more about fraction.

https://brainly.com/question/1301963

#SPJ4

To prove that the sample mean of the residuals in ordinary least squares (OLS) regression, denoted as \(\bar{c}\), is equal to 0, we need to show that the sum of the residuals is zero.

In OLS regression, the model is represented as:

\[ y_i = \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_i + \epsilon_i \]

where \(y_i\) is the dependent variable, \(x_i\) is the independent variable, \(\beta_0\) and \(\beta_1\) are the regression coefficients, and \(\epsilon_i\) is the error term or residual for observation \(i\).

The OLS estimates of the regression coefficients, \(\hat{\beta_0}\) and \(\hat{\beta_1}\), are obtained by minimizing the sum of squared residuals:

\[ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \epsilon_i^2 = \sum_{i=1}^{n} (y_i - \hat{y_i})^2 \]

where \(\hat{y_i}\) represents the predicted value of \(y_i\) based on the regression model.

Taking the average of the residuals, we have:

\[ \bar{c} = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} \epsilon_i \]

To prove that \(\bar{c} = 0\), we need to show that:

\[ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \epsilon_i = 0 \]

This can be demonstrated by substituting the definition of \(\epsilon_i\) into the equation and simplifying:

\[ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \epsilon_i = \sum_{i=1}^{n} (y_i - \hat{y_i}) \]

Since \(\hat{y_i}\) represents the predicted value based on the regression model, and the regression model aims to minimize the sum of squared residuals, the predicted values are chosen to minimize the deviations from the actual observed values. As a result, the sum of the residuals, \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \epsilon_i\), will be equal to zero.

Therefore, we have proven that \(\bar{c} = 0\) for OLS regression, indicating that the average of the residuals is zero.

learn more about regression here:

https://brainly.com/question/32505018

#SPJ11

Answer:

Jason runs faster then his friend.

Step-by-step explanation:

Jason's speed is represented by the equation y = 7x because he runs 7 miles in an hour. If his friend's speed is represented by y = 6x, then his friend runs a total of 6 miles in an hour.

Answer:

k = -13

Step-by-step explanation:

-143/11 = -13

Answer:

11k = -143

k=-143/11=-13 is a required answer

Answer:

a. 1/2 or 50% b. 1/2 or 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a. 1/2 of 50%

Since theres 2 sides, and 1 head, it will be 1/2 outcomes so 1/2.

b. Stil 1/2 or 50%

The coin flips are not dependent, and they have 2 outcomes and 1 tails.

Stil 1/2

The answer is: \(w = x - 3, h = x - 5\)

\(V = l \times w \times h\)

\(V = x^3 - 16x^2 + 79x - 120\)

\(l = x - 8\)

\(x^3 - 16x^2 + 79x - 120 = (x - 8) \times w \times h\)

\(w \times h = \dfrac{(x^3 - 16x^2 + 79x - 120) }{(x - 8)}\)

                   \(x^3 - 16x^2 + 79x - 120\)

\(x - 8 (\times x^2)\ | \ x^3 - 8x^2\)

_________________________ (subtract)

                       \(-8x^2 + 79x - 120\)

  \(x - 8 (\times -8x) \ | -8x^2 + 64x\)

_________________________ (subtract)

                                  \(15x - 120\)

              \(x - 8 (\times 15) \ | \ 15x - 120\)

_________________________ (subtract)

                                         \(0\)

\(w \times h = \dfrac{(x^3 - 16x^2 + 79x - 120)}{(x - 8) = x^2 - 8x + 15}\)

Let's find factors of \(x^2 - 8x - 15\):

\(x^2 - 8x - 15 = x^2 - 3x - 5x + 15\)

                 \(= x \times x - 3 \times x - (5 \times x - 5 \times 3)\)

                 \(= x(x - 3) - 5(x - 3)\)

                 \(= (x - 3)(x - 5)\)

\(w \times h = (x - 3) \times (x - 5)\)

\(w > h\) and \((x - 3) > (x - 5)\)

\(\longrightarrow w = x - 3\)

\(h = x - 5\)

Scale drawings are used to represent a large drawing using smaller measurements

The equivalent of 5" in the drawing is 30' i.e. 30 feet

The scale is given as:

\(\mathbf{\frac 12" = 3'}\)

A single quote means feet, while a double quote means inches

So, the scale can be rewritten as:

\(\mathbf{\frac 12\ inches= 3\ feet }\)

Multiply both sides by 10

\(\mathbf{\frac 12\ inches \times 10 = 3\ feet \times 10}\)

Simplify

\(\mathbf{5\ inches = 30\ feet }\)

Rewrite as:

\(\mathbf{5" = 30'}\)

Hence, the equivalent of 5" in the drawing is 30' i.e. 30 feet

Read more about scale drawings at:

https://brainly.com/question/22627686

Answer:

1/9 = 0.111

2/9 = 0.222

Step-by-step explanation:

1/9 = 0.111

2/9 = 0.222

Answer:

Step-by-step explanatioN

1/9 = WE DIVIDE 1 ÷  9 WE GET 0.1111111111

0.1111111111 TO ONE SIGNIFICANT FIGURE = 0.1                  

    TWO SIG.FIG = 0.11                  T

HREE SIG.FIG 0.111

2/9= WE DIVIDE 2 BY 9 WE GET 0.22222222

SO WE ROUND TO ONE SIG .FIG.

RATE ME AND THANK ME

Answer:

2804

Step-by-step explanation:

2504 + 140 + 160 = 2804   (hint: add the 140 + 160 first. It sums up to 300 which is easy to add to 2504)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  $92,400

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount in the account after t years is ...

  A = P(1+rt)

where P is the principal invested, r is the annual interest rate, and t is the number of years.

Here, the number of years is (240 months)/(12 months/year) = 20 years, so the formula tells you the amount is ...

  A = $28,000(1+0.115*20) = $28000(3.3) = $92400

The total amount in the account after 240 months is $92,400.

hope this pic helps. enjoy

There is about a 33.7% probability that a case of 48 cans will contain at least two cans with a defective ball.

To solve this problem, we can use the binomial distribution. Let's define "success" as getting a can with no defective ball and "failure" as getting a can with at least one defective ball.

The probability of success in one can is:

P(success) = 1 - P(failure) = 1 - 0.025 = 0.975

The probability of failure in one can is:

P(failure) = 0.025

Now, let's define X as the number of cans in a case of 48 that have at least one defective ball. We want to find the probability that X is greater than or equal to 2.

We can use the binomial distribution formula to calculate this probability:

P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = (0.975)^48 ≈ 0.223

P(X = 1) = 48C1 (0.975)^47 (0.025)^1 ≈ 0.44

where 48C1 is the number of ways to choose one can out of 48.

Therefore, the probability that a case of 48 cans will contain at least two cans with a defective ball is:

P(X ≥ 2) ≈ 1 - 0.223 - 0.44 ≈ 0.337

Learn more about Binomial distribution:

https://brainly.com/question/15246027

#SPJ11

Answer:

2-16.5 = 4-7.5

2-16.5    4-7.5

= -14.5    = -3.5

  -14.5 = -3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know where you are getting this question, but I did what I could I guess.

The Taylor rule predicted the federal funds rate (in the text) was derived from the equation:  t 2 = 1% + 1.5π t + 0.5 Y ˉ t

This is a long answer because it provides a detailed explanation of the specific equation used in the Taylor rule to predict the federal funds rate.
The Taylor rule predicted the federal funds rate was derived from the following equation:
t = 1% + 1.5π + 0.5Y

Where:
- t represents the federal funds rate
- π represents the inflation rate
- Y represents the output gap (the difference between actual output and potential output)

This equation is known as the Taylor rule and is used to determine the appropriate federal funds rate to achieve macroeconomic stability.

To know more about Taylor rule visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/31790946

#SPJ11

The odds of busting when drawing a card with a starting hand of 10 and 6 in blackjack can be calculated by determining the number of cards that will cause the total to exceed 21 and dividing it by the number of remaining cards in the deck.

In blackjack, the objective is to have a hand total that is as close to 21 as possible without exceeding it. In this scenario, the starting hand is a 10 and a 6, giving a total of 16. To calculate the odds of busting, we need to determine the number of cards that will cause the total to exceed 21. In a standard deck of 52 cards, there are 16 cards with a rank of 10 (four each of 10, Jack, Queen, and King) that would cause the player to bust. Therefore, the odds of drawing a card that will result in a bust are 16 out of the remaining 52 cards in the deck. This can be simplified to 4 out of 13, as there are four suits in a deck. Thus, the odds of busting in this situation are 4/13 or approximately 30.77%.

Learn more about odds here:

https://brainly.com/question/29377024

#SPJ11

i would first multiply your 4 so you get 4q-32=7q+5 than add 32 to both sides so ypu get 4q=7q+5+32 than subtract 7q from both sides you should end up with 4q-7q=5+32 which = -3q=37 than divided by -3 to get q =

\( \frac{ - 37}{3} \)

or about -12.33333 going on for ever

The Boys are generally have more siblings.

The range of the number of siblings is bigger for the Girls.

A bar chart is a graphical representation of data that uses rectangular bars of equal width to show the values of each category or group. The length of each bar is proportional to the value it represents, and the bars are usually arranged in either horizontal or vertical orientation.

If we see the given bar chart it shows that, the Boys are generally have more siblings.

Explanation: We can see here bar in 4th point is only for boys and other also boys siblings are increasing, that's why we can say that the Boys are generally have more siblings.

The range of the number of siblings is bigger for the Girls.

To know more about triangle, visit:

https://brainly.in/question/17424774

#SPJ1

Triangle: The Boys are generally have more siblings., The range of the number of siblings is bigger for the Girls.

A bar chart is a graphical representation of data that uses rectangular bars of equal width to show the values of each category or group. The length of each bar is proportional to the value it represents, and the bars are usually arranged in either horizontal or vertical orientation.

If we see the given bar chart it shows that, the Boys are generally have more siblings.
We can see here bar in 4th point is only for boys and other also boys siblings are increasing, that's why we can say that the Boys are generally have more siblings.
The range of the number of siblings is bigger for the Girls.

To know more about triangle, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28600396
#SPJ1