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A nurse is assessing a patient who has had valvular heart disease for more than 15 years. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea and cough signs and symptoms should the nurse expect.
Any heart valve that has been damaged or is ill is said to have valvular heart disease. Valve illness has a number of causes. Four chambers and four valves make up a typical heart. In the United States, degenerative valve disease is the most prevalent form of valvular heart disease, whereas rheumatic heart disease is the leading cause of valve pathology in underdeveloped countries.
Heart valve disease cannot be cured with medication, however treatment can frequently lessen symptoms. These medications may include digoxin, calcium channel blockers, and beta-blockers to lessen the signs and symptoms of heart valve disease by regulating heart rate and assisting in the prevention of irregular heart rhythms. Endocarditis risk is increased in people who have had surgery to replace or repair a valve.
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A nurse examines a patient who has had valvular heart disease for over 15 years. The nurse should expect signs and symptoms of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea, and cough.
Clinical features of the valvular disease:
Valvular heart disease refers to any heart valve that has been damaged or is unwell.
There are several reasons for valve sickness. A typical heart has four chambers and four valves. Degenerative valve disease is the most common kind of valvular heart disease in recent epidemiology studies, whereas rheumatic heart disease is the primary cause of valve pathology in developing nations.Medication cannot cure heart valve disease, although it can commonly alleviate symptoms.
Digoxin, calcium channel blockers, and beta-blockers may be used to alleviate the signs and symptoms of heart valve disease by controlling heart rate and aiding in the prevention of abnormal cardiac rhythms. People who have had surgery to replace or repair their hearts are more likely to develop endocarditis.Learn more about heart valve disease here,
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Related Questions
A system used to organize the many types of cancer, based on where the cancer first course is called the _______v
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Which sentences make correct use of adverbs and adjectives? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. b. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. c. Tom’s sales pitch was received good. d. Tom was really pleased with his results.
Answers
The sentences that make correct use of adverbs and adjectives are as follows:option a ) Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. option b) Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. option d) Tom was really pleased with his results.
The correct use of the adverbs and adjectives are as follows:The sentence “Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table” uses the adjective "highest" to describe Alma’s score. In this sentence, the adjective is modifying the noun "score".
The sentence “Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s” uses the adverb "enthusiastically" to modify the verb "responded". The sentence compares Alma’s customer response with that of Tom’s.The sentence “Tom was really pleased with his results” uses the adverb "really" to modify the adjective "pleased".
The adverb "really" is used to intensify the meaning of the adjective "pleased". Hence the correct sentences are:A. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table.B. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s.D. Tom was really pleased with his results.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
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Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
Of the following three types of fat, which type is the most unhealthy?
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patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: a.the nerve endings have been destroyed. b.he or she is generally not conscious. c.subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted. d.blister formation protects the burn.
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Patients with full-thickness with third-degree burns are generally do not have complain of the pain because the nerve endings have been destroyed
Third-degree burns extend into the layer of fat beneath the dermis. The skin is tough and can appear waxy white, leathery, or brown. These types of burns usually require skin grafts to close the wound. Second-degree burns affect part of the epidermis and dermis layers of the skin. The burn area may be red, blistered, swollen, and painful. Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns can also damage underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. Third-degree burns, also known as gangrenous burns, damage all layers of the skin and the underlying fatty tissue. These are severe burns that can affect skin regeneration.
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What benefits did the veterans receive nowadays? Are these adequate?
Answers
Answer:
Yes and no
Explanation:
Some of the most important benefits that survivors should explore include: Dependency and Indemnity Compensation is one of the most valuable benefits available to veterans’ survivors. People who meet the criteria for DIC can get as much as tens of thousands of dollars a year in tax-free payments.
Which of the following BEST describes the effects that fetal alcohol syndrome has on a child's mental abilities?
Answers
Answer:
it causes them to loose ability ro do things and when the come out of the womb the might not cry
Explanation:
because the alcohol is going into the fetals brain system and organs and they have not gotten that much strenght
Answer:
(Insert something)
Explanation:
The effects that Fetal alcohol syndrome has on a child's mental abilities are Poor memory, difficulty in school, learning disabilities, and intellectual disability or low IQ just to name a few.
Who has the authority to decide if a postmortem will be conducted if a client dies 2 hours after being admitted to the hospital
Answers
Answer:
medical examiner
Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Answers
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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Tor F: In order to maintain neat and legible patient records, errors should be
erased neatly or eliminated with correction fluid. *
True
False
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Which of the following topics is NOT emphasized on the NCLEX-PN examination?
Psychosocial integrity
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychological analyses of patients
Maintaining a safe and effective environment for patient care
Answers
Answer:
Psychological analyses of patients
Explanation:
if there's more than answer u can additive Psychosocial integrity also.
Explain how a patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where
in the brain an injury occurred.
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Answer:
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue. Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function:
Loss of or decreased consciousnessLoss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia)Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speechAlteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentratingSymptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.Explanation: hope this helped you out !
The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).
What is Traumatic Brain Injury?The disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue.
Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function is the loss of or decreased consciousness loss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia). Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speech alteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentrating.
Symptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.
Therefore, The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).
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Which statement best describes morphology
Answers
can someone give me advise about how to tell someone you still love them after a breakup
Answers
Answer:
be there for them and do stuff together
Explanation:
Answer:
just try to have a normal conversation together when you were still together
Explanation:
You are preparing to suction the mouth of an adult patient who is not breathing. Which of the following is true regarding what you should do when suctioning this patient? * A. have a container of sterile water on hand * B. apply suction upon insertion of the catheter * C. ventilate the patient 60 times per minute * D/ select the soft flexible style catheter
Answers
When suctioning the mouth of a non-breathing adult, do this:
After catheter insertion, suction.
Only use oral suction during catheter insertion and removal. Continuous suctioning might damage tissues and aggravate complications.
Adult patient suctioning considerations include:
A. Having sterile water on hand: Sterile water can wet the catheter tip and help suction thick or stubborn secretions.
C. Ventilating 60 times per minute: If the patient is not breathing, start artificial ventilation immediately. Adult bag-mask ventilation should be 10-12 breaths per minute.
D. Selecting the soft flexible catheter: The patient's needs and healthcare context may determine the catheter choice. Oral suctioning uses soft, flexible catheters to avoid damaging delicate oral tissues.
Suctioning requires good technique, airway maintenance, and infection prevention.
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A doctor is explaining treatment options to a patient by using complicated medical jargon, and the patient appears to be
confused. This is best described as a(n)
Answers
Answer:
Explanation: Communication barrier
The nurse is performing nursing care therapies and including the client as an active participant in the care. Which basic step is involved in this situation?
- Planning
- Evaluation
- Assessment
- Implementation
Answers
The nurse is performing nursing care therapies and including the client as an active participant in the care. The basic step involved in this situation is implementation.
Implementation is a nursing process where the nursing plan of care is put into action to attain the objectives of care. This nursing process involves performing nursing care therapies, administering prescribed treatments, and monitoring the client’s health condition.
The nursing process consists of five steps which are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
The nurse is responsible for performing nursing care therapies and administering medications, and the client should be an active participant in the care process.
The nurse should encourage the client to express their concerns and ask questions about their care and treatment. The nurse should also explain the reason for the therapies being performed and the expected outcome.
The nurse should provide instructions to the client on the possible side effects of the therapies and the measures to prevent or reduce the occurrence of these side effects.
The nurse should also assess the client’s response to the therapies and medications and make adjustments to the care plan when necessary.
Therefore, the basic step involved in the situation of a nurse performing nursing care therapies and including the client as an active participant in the care is implementation.
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the Notice of Privacy Practice must include all of the following except:
Answers
The
peripheral nervous system (PNS) connects to the brain and spinal
cord by 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves .
What is the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerve
Answers
The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system is 12:43.
For 12 pairs of cranial nerves, there are 31 spinal nerve pairs, a total of 43 paired nerves together forming the peripheral nervous system.
PNS has both cranial and spinal nerves. 12 pairs of cranial nerves connect directly to the brain, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord. Together 12 + 31 = 43, so there are 43 total nerves in PNS.
To calculate the ratio:
divide the no of cranial nerves by the total pair of nerves
12(cranial nerves)/43(total nerves)
12/43
The ratio is 12:43
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The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is 12:43.
The peripheral nervous system consists of two main components: the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. The cranial nerves are a set of 12 pairs of nerves that directly connect the brain to various parts of the head, neck, and upper body. These nerves emerge from the base of the brain and are responsible for functions such as vision, hearing, taste, smell, facial expressions, and motor control of the head and neck.
On the other hand, the spinal nerves are a set of 31 pairs of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and extend to different regions of the body. These nerves control sensation, movement, and organ function in the torso and lower body.
When considering the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the PNS, we add the 12 pairs of cranial nerves to the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, resulting in a total of 43 pairs of nerves. Therefore, the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves is 12:43.
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How does diet affect cholesterol levels in the blood.
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Diet plays an important role in controlling cholesterol levels in the blood. It affects the amount of cholesterol that the body produces, as well as the amount that it absorbs from food. Therefore, it's important to be mindful of what we eat to maintain healthy cholesterol levels.
Cholesterol is a waxy substance that is made in the liver and is present in certain foods.
It is used by the body to make cell membranes, hormones, and vitamin D. However, too much cholesterol can be harmful, especially when it builds up in the arteries, leading to atherosclerosis and increasing the risk of heart disease. A diet high in saturated and trans fats can increase LDL (bad) cholesterol levels, while a diet high in fiber and unsaturated fats can decrease LDL cholesterol levels and increase HDL (good) cholesterol levels. Trans fats, which are commonly found in processed foods, baked goods, and fried foods, are particularly harmful to cholesterol levels. Saturated fats are found in foods like red meat, full-fat dairy products, and butter. It's important to consume these in moderation and choose leaner cuts of meat and low-fat dairy products. Foods high in fiber, such as whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, can help lower cholesterol levels because fiber binds with cholesterol and removes it from the body. It's also important to limit the amount of dietary cholesterol you consume, found in animal products such as eggs, meat, and dairy. However, the impact of dietary cholesterol on blood cholesterol levels varies between individuals. In general, people with high blood cholesterol levels should aim to limit their intake of dietary cholesterol to 200 milligrams per day or less. It's also important to be mindful of calorie intake, as excess weight can lead to higher LDL cholesterol levels and lower HDL cholesterol levels. Therefore, maintaining a healthy weight through a balanced diet and regular exercise is key to controlling cholesterol levels.To learn more about cholesterol here
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What is the maximum temperature deli meats should be
stored at?
Answers
Answer:
40 degrees Fahrenheit
Explanation:
which of the following is not a factor of metabolsm
Answers
Answer:
Age and gender
the factors affecting metabolism that you cannot control.
Which of the following, if any, is the appropriate relationship between traditional and/or complementary-alternative health beliefs and evidence-based medicine?
C. When possible, traditional and/or complementary-alternative health beliefs should be integrated or coordinated with evidence-based medicine.
Answers
There is no appropriate relationship between traditional and/or complementary-alternative health beliefs and evidence-based medicine.
What is tradition?
A tradition is a way of thinking or acting (a folk custom) that has been passed down within a society or group and has symbolic significance or special historical roots. Common examples include holidays and impractical but socially significant attire (such as lawyers' wigs as well as military officers' spurs), but the concept has also been applied to social norms like greetings. It is a part of cultural expressions and folklore. The word tradition itself comes from the Latin tradere, which literally means to transmit, to hand over, or to give for safekeeping. Traditions can endure and change for thousands of years. While it's generally believed that traditions have a long history, many of them, whether they be political as well as cultural, have only recently been created. The term is used in numerous ways across numerous academic disciplines.
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Acupuncture, homeopathy, reflexology, naturopathy, yoga, and biofeedback are what forms of therapies? a. complementary and matriarchal b. alternative and medical c. biomedical and natural d. complementary and alternative
Answers
d. complementary and alternative
can someone heelp me plz
Answers
2 capsules
3 capsules
(Please let me know if I’m right)
How will you identify the given lens is Convex lens and Concave lens ?
Answers
Answer:
concave is curved in the middle and convex is thick on the side
Answer:
Convex lenses curve outward like the outside of a sphere, while concave (cave= collapse is how i think it) lenses are thicker on the sides and thinner in the middle and tend to curve inward
Explanation:
Hope this helps <33
The west nomogram chart has how many Columns
Answers
Answer:
THREE
Explanation:
what are some ways to incentivize health care providers to choose rural health practice?
Answers
There are several ways to incentivize healthcare providers to choose rural health practice. Some of these ways are as follows: Scholarship or student loan repayment programs: Offering scholarship or loan repayment programs to healthcare providers who agree to work in rural health clinics or hospitals for a specific time period.
This can help to alleviate some of the financial burdens that come with healthcare education and can make working in rural areas more attractive. Loan forgiveness programs: Loan forgiveness programs are similar to student loan repayment programs, but instead of providing money up front, providers agree to work in a rural area for a set period of time, and the government forgives a portion of their student loans each year that they work in the rural area.
Bonus pay: Rural health clinics and hospitals may offer bonus pay to healthcare providers who work in rural areas. This can help to offset the lower salaries that are often paid to rural healthcare providers. Housing assistance: Providing housing assistance to healthcare providers who work in rural areas can help to make working in rural areas more appealing.
Rural areas often have a shortage of affordable housing, so providing assistance with housing can help to attract more healthcare providers to the area. Flexible scheduling: Providing flexible scheduling options can be particularly important for healthcare providers with families. Offering options such as job sharing or telecommuting can help to make working in rural areas more attractive.
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Discharging a resident requires an interdisciplinary approach
Answers
Answer:
true
Explanation:
All of the following factors may influence the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) except:
a. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube
b. Anisocytosis, Poikilocytosis
c. Plasma proteins
d. Caliber of the tube
Answers
Except for A), all of the factors listed below may affect the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). into a sodium citrate tube of blood.
The ESR is unaffected by the use of sodium citrate and EDTA. Low ESRs can be brought on by anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, which prevent rouleaux formation. Rouleaux are enhanced by plasma proteins, particularly fibrinogen and immunoglobulins, which raises the ESR. It is necessary to establish reference ranges for various calibre tubes. Age and sex both have a significant impact on ESR, and corresponding reference values are suggested. ESR values may also be influenced by common metabolic abnormalities, such as obesity and the associated metabolic syndrome, as well as lifestyle factors like physical activity, smoking, and alcohol consumption.The erythrocyte-plasma ratio, erythrocyte size, and com- position will be discussed first because they are the main sources of error and the hardest to correct. Citrate is used as an anticoagulant in the Sediplast Westergren and Streck methods, which dilutes the blood and should correct the ESR due to higher hematocrit values.
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