Answer: acid reflux, anxiety, or an object being lodged in your throat. If discomfort continues see a medical professinal
Explanation:
There could be several reasons why you may feel like something is stuck in your throat. One of the most common causes is acid reflux or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), where stomach acid backs up into the oesophagus, causing irritation and inflammation. This can make it feel like there is a lump or something stuck in your throat.
Another possible cause is a condition called globus pharyngeus, which is a persistent sensation of having something stuck in the throat that cannot be cleared. This can be caused by anxiety, stress, muscle tension, or even post-nasal drip.
Other potential causes include thyroid problems, an allergic reaction, or even a growth or tumor in the throat. If the feeling persists or is accompanied by other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, pain, or coughing up blood, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.
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compare differences in categories of drugs (controlled substance, generic, chemical and brand names, pregnancy categories
Controlled substances, generic drugs, chemical and brand names, and pregnancy categories are distinct categories that provide different information about medications.
1. Controlled substances: Controlled substances are drugs regulated by the government due to their potential for abuse or dependence. They are classified into different schedules based on their accepted medical use and potential for misuse. These schedules range from Schedule I (highest potential for abuse, no accepted medical use) to Schedule V (lowest potential for abuse, accepted medical use). Controlled substances require special regulations for prescribing, dispensing, and storage to ensure their safe and appropriate use.
2. Generic drugs: Generic drugs are medications that contain the same active ingredients as their brand-name counterparts but are marketed under their chemical (generic) names. Generic drugs are generally more affordable than brand-name drugs and must meet the same quality and safety standards as their brand-name counterparts. They are approved by regulatory authorities once their bioequivalence to the brand-name drug has been demonstrated. Generic drugs provide a cost-effective alternative to brand-name medications while maintaining similar therapeutic effects.
3. Chemical and brand names: Chemical names refer to the specific molecular structure of a drug. These names are often complex and not easily recognizable to healthcare professionals or patients. Brand names, on the other hand, are proprietary names given to drugs by pharmaceutical companies for marketing purposes. Brand names are usually easier to remember and are often accompanied by trademarks. They help distinguish a particular product in the market and may have additional ingredients or formulations compared to generic versions of the drug.
4. Pregnancy categories: Pregnancy categories are classifications assigned to drugs to indicate their potential risks during pregnancy. These categories range from Category A (adequate and well-controlled studies have shown no risk) to Category X (contraindicated in pregnancy due to evidence of fetal abnormalities or risks to the mother). Pregnancy categories provide guidance to healthcare providers and pregnant individuals about the potential risks and benefits of using a particular medication during pregnancy.
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Describe the structures of the eye that might be affected by Valarie Ramirez’s motorcycle injury.
The structures of the eye that might be affected by Valarie Ramirez’s motorcycle injury include the cornea and pupil.
What is the Eye?This is referred as a sense organ whose primary function is vision. There are several eye parts but those who are most likely affected by injuries are the outermost parts.
These parts include the cornea and the pupil which was why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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Una mujer empieza menstruar el día 10 de mayo su ciclo menstrual es de 28 días. Anote la cantidad de óvulos que su sistema reproductor libera en un año
Answer:
Su sistema reproductor libera 13 óvulos en un año.
Explanation:
Dado que una mujer empieza menstruar el día 10 de mayo y su ciclo menstrual es de 28 días, para determinar la cantidad de óvulos que su sistema reproductor libera en un año se debe realizar el siguiente cálculo:
365 / 28 = X
13 = X
Por lo tanto, su sistema reproductor libera 13 óvulos en un año.
After applying a bandage, you notice the fingers below the injury site are becoming cool to the touch. What might be the reason for this, and how can you remedy the situation
Answer:
there could be lack of circulation from blood flow to the fingers
Explanation:
With a diagnosis of right rib fracture and closed pneumothorax, the client should be placed in which position?
Answer:
closed pneumothorax and rib fracture position
Explanation:
someone in the doctor's office told me since i had a broken bone near my back
Describe EPSDT and state its purpose. Choose three EPSDT requirements and describe why they are mandated. What consequences will a state face for failure to provide EPSDT services to Medicaid recipients?
The answers include the following:
EPSDT is referred to as child health benefit and it helps the physical, mental and developmental health needs of children.The requirements for the program are Comprehensive health and developmental history, unclothed physical exam and immunizations and they are mandated so as to know the health condition of the child.The consequences a state will face for failure to provide EPSDT services to Medicaid recipients high mortality rate due to high cost of access to healthcare.What is Insurance?This is referred to as a form of protection against theft or loss and consists of various types.
EPSDT is referred to as child health benefit under medicaid and it helps the overall health needs of children.
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what would the nurse include in a teaching plan for the pregnant patient who has an iron deficiency anemia and has been placed on iron supplements? select all that apply
The nurse should include teaching about how to take iron supplements, importance of adequate rest, and safety of taking iron supplements.
A. How to take iron supplementsB. Importance of adequate restD. Safety of taking iron supplementsThe nurse should include teaching about how to take iron supplements, such as what time of day, with meals or on an empty stomach, and with which type of fluid. The nurse should also emphasize the importance of adequate rest and the safety of taking iron supplements, such as any potential side effects and interactions with other medications. Additionally, the nurse should provide education about the benefits of regular exercise during pregnancy, such as walking and stretching, to help improve overall health and energy levels.
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an infant is diagnosed with tetralogy of fallot. which pathophysiology result from this disease
The pathophysiology of Tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four heart defects that affect blood flow and oxygenation.
Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital cardiac condition marked by four distinct structural abnormalities in the heart. Several structural abnormalities work together to cause this disease's pathophysiology: a ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (a constriction of the pulmonary outflow tract), an overriding aorta, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
Because of these irregularities, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix, blood flow to the lungs is diminished, and the body does not receive enough oxygen. When blood is redirected from the right side of the heart to the left side without first travelling to the lungs to be oxygenated, cyanosis (a bluish colouring) develops.
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what is the purpose of a medicare carve-out or supplements
Medicare carve-out refers to the method by which some employers opt out of the Medicare part A program and instead offer their employees the option of receiving the equivalent benefits of health care through a private insurance plan.
The purpose of a Medicare carve-out is to help employers reduce their costs, provide employees with the medical benefits they require, and offer them greater control over their healthcare spending. Carve-out supplements are designed to cover the healthcare expenses that are not covered by Medicare or that exceed Medicare's cost-sharing amounts. Medicare carve-out supplements are intended to assist individuals in covering their out-of-pocket expenses. In summary, the purpose of a Medicare carve-out or supplement is to provide additional insurance protection to people who require healthcare services beyond what is provided by traditional Medicare.
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In calculating the following dilution; 115ml of a 9% benzocaine solution must be diluted to a 4%
solution, you notice the final volume of 250ml was provided by a fellow technician. The final volume
should have been 258. 75ml. The technician states he wanted to pour an even volume.
a. How might this difference in volume affect the patient?
b. Explain whether or not you think this is appropriate
a. The difference in volume between the intended final volume of 258.75 ml and the actual final volume of 250 ml could potentially affect the patient if it results in a different concentration of the benzocaine solution being administered. For example, if the final concentration of the solution is less than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may not provide the intended level of pain relief for the patient. On the other hand, if the final concentration is higher than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may increase the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities for the patient.
b. It is not appropriate for the technician to intentionally pour an even volume of the diluted solution if it results in a deviation from the intended final concentration. The concentration of the medication should be carefully controlled to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage and to minimize the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities. It is important for the technician to follow proper protocols and procedures for diluting medications, including accurately measuring and recording the final volume of the solution.
order: ibuprofen 150 mg. orally available: ibuprofen 100mg/ 5ml how many ml will the nurse administer?
To determine the amount of ibuprofen solution the nurse should administer to achieve a 150 mg dose, we use a proportion to calculate the required volume.
Given that the concentration of the ibuprofen solution is 100 mg per 5 mL, we set up the following equation:
(150 mg) / (100 mg) = (x mL) / (5 mL)
Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we get:
150 mg * 5 mL = 100 mg * x mL
750 mg = 100 mg * x mL
750 mg / 100 mg = x mL
7.5 mL = x mL
The nurse should administer 7.5 mL of the ibuprofen solution to provide a 150 mg dose orally.
It's crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately measure and administer medications, adhering to the prescribed dosage to ensure patient safety and the effectiveness of the treatment. Double-checking calculations and using appropriate measuring devices are essential to avoid errors and ensure precise medication administration.
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Using approximately 250-300 words and APA 7th Edition citations and references as appropriate, give examples of three major zoonotic diseases and compare their modes of transmission. Using your own ideas, explain how transmission of these zoonotic diseases might be prevented.
Zoonotic diseases are infections that can be transmitted between animals and humans. This response provides examples of three major zoonotic diseases, namely Rabies, Lyme disease, and Avian Influenza, and compares their modes of transmission. It then discusses potential strategies for preventing the transmission of these diseases.
Rabies is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, commonly dogs, bats, raccoons, or foxes. The virus is present in the saliva of infected animals and can enter the human body through broken skin or mucous membranes.
Lyme disease is transmitted by the bite of infected black-legged ticks, commonly known as deer ticks. Ticks acquire the bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) by feeding on infected animals, such as mice or deer. Humans can get infected when bitten by an infected tick.
Avian Influenza, also known as bird flu, is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected birds or their droppings. In rare cases, the virus can be transmitted from birds to humans, causing severe respiratory illness. Human-to-human transmission is limited but can occur under certain circumstances.
Preventing the transmission of zoonotic diseases involves a multi-faceted approach:
Education and awareness: Promoting public education about the risks and preventive measures associated with zoonotic diseases, such as avoiding contact with wild or stray animals, practicing safe handling of pets, and proper tick avoidance techniques.
Vector control: Implementing measures to control disease-carrying vectors, such as ticks and mosquitoes, through the use of insecticides, habitat modification, and personal protective measures like wearing protective clothing and using insect repellents.
Vaccination: Vaccinating animals against zoonotic diseases, particularly pets and livestock, can help prevent their transmission to humans. Vaccination programs for animals, such as dogs and cats, can significantly reduce the risk of diseases like rabies.
Hygiene practices: Promoting good hygiene practices, including regular handwashing, proper food handling, and safe disposal of animal waste, can minimize the risk of infection.
Surveillance and early detection: Establishing surveillance systems to detect zoonotic diseases in animals and humans, enabling prompt identification, isolation, and treatment of infected individuals.
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Which of the following is NOT a type of family or physician practice?
Question 4 options:
Massage therapist
Psychiatrist
Obstetrician
Dermatologist
The professional that is not a type of family of physician practice is a psychiatrist (option B).
Who is a psychiatrist?A psychiatrist is a medical doctor specializing in psychiatry, which is a branch of medicine that subjectively diagnoses, treats, and studies mental disorders and behavioural conditions.
According to this question, the following are the definitions of physician practice:
Obstetrician: This is a physician who specializes in childbirth.Dermatologist: This is person who is skilled in the study of skin and it's management. Massage therapist; This is a professional that is skilled in the therapeutic use of massage.Therefore, the professional that is not a type of family of physician practice is a psychiatrist because it is not family related.
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Describe the host factors for a salmonella food borne outbreak
A salmonella infection can be contracted from food, pets, or exposure to human or animal feces. Commonly infected foods include raw meat, poultry, and seafood
How do hospitals determine the quality measures to be used with dashboards, and how are these related to the financial health of the health care organization?
Hospitals determine the quality measures to be used with dashboards through a combination of industry standards, regulatory requirements, clinical guidelines, and organizational priorities.
Hospitals often consider established industry standards and regulatory requirements when selecting quality measures. These may include measures developed by national organizations like the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) or the Joint Commission. Clinical guidelines, such as those developed by professional medical associations or expert consensus groups, provide evidence-based recommendations for delivering high-quality care. Hospitals may incorporate quality measures aligned with these guidelines to monitor adherence and track performance.
Each healthcare organization may have its specific priorities based on its patient population, community needs, and strategic goals. These priorities can drive the selection of quality measures that align with the organization's focus areas and improvement initiatives.
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What methods do you think can should be used to protect patient information?
Answer:
you should never reveal some patients information to anyone who isn't related to the patient or who ever you find suspicious.
Explanation:
okay, if you're working as a receptionist in a hospital( no offense to you, its just a hypothetical) then you should try to tell that the information was lost or was given as classified so you can't reveal the information even if they cry over your desk
Phlebotomists What is the primary duty?
21. Variables that can change or alter the testing system:
A. can happen by chance only.
B. can happen by chance or by human activity.
C. can happen as a result of causes that are impossible to determine.
D. can happen by human activity only.
Answer:
I believe the answer is D. can only happen by human activity only
Explanation:
If it is wrong im sorry, I did my best
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
The nurse is caring for an elderly client in four point restraints. What is actions by the nurse are essential to prevent the nurse from being liable for false imprisonment Select all that apply
Answer:
ask the client to sign a release without medical approval.
Explanation:
The only thing that the nurse needs to do is to ask the client to sign a release without medical approval. By signing this release the client accepts all the risks involved in leaving on their own without medical approval and releases the hospital and medical staff from any responsibility/liability. This is usually done when doctors/medical staff still need to perform more exams on the patient in order to make sure that they are in a healthy enough state to travel on their own but the patient wants to leave regardless of the doctor's warnings/disapproval.
When a animal die how long does the fluid stay in there body
Answer:
24-72 hours postmortem: internal organs begin to decompose due to cell death; the body begins to emit pungent odors; rigor mortis subsides. 3-5 days postmortem: as organs continue to decompose, bodily fluids leak from orifices; the skin turns a greenish color.
Answer:
Seminal fluid dries out very quickly when it's outside the body
and once it's dried, the sperm die almost at once.
Explanation:
Determining the Meaning of the Terms
Use the drop-down menu to select the answer that completes each sentence.
Bradycardia is a condition in which the heart_______.
Psoriasis is
_________related to the skin.
Podiatry is
_________that deals with the foot.
A narcotic is a drug characterized by________?
An embolism is a________?
Answer:
1. beats slower than 60 beats per minute
2. chronic autoimmune disease
3. a branch in the medical field
4. Having the effect of relieving pain and inducing drowsiness, stupor, or
insensibility.
5. obstruction of an artery, typically by a clot of blood or an air bubble.
Explanation:
Bradycardia is a condition in which the heart BEATS SLOWLY
Psoriasis is A CONDITION related to the skin.
Podiatry is A BRANCH OF MEDICINE that deals with the foot.
A narcotic is a drug characterized by ITS ABILITY TO PRODUCE NARCOSIS
An embolism is a CONDITION INVOLVING AN EMBOLUS
a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease
Answer:
C
Explanation:
All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart
Answer:
C. respiratory, asthma
Explanation:
Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.
Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.
hich of the following signs or symptoms are more common in children than in adults following an isolated head injury?
Nausea and vomiting are more common in children than in adults following an isolated head injury.
Children with isolated head injury and vomiting are veritably doubtful to have intracranial injuries. Unless nonaccidental trauma is suspected, vomiting alone shouldn't instigate head imaging. These children should be observed until they're suitable to tolerate oral input and the treating clinician feels comfortable that the patient is stable without additional symptoms of head injury.
An injury to the cerebellum or inner ear can generate balance and dizziness problems, which can spark vomiting in some people. Migraines. Some head injuries bring about severe headaches or migraines, which again can activate vomiting.
Vomiting – roughly 10 percent of children adolescents have at least one occasion of vomiting after a head injury. Children who heave after a head injury don't inevitably have a serious brain injury. Seizures – lower than one percent of children adolescents have a seizure instantaneously after a head injury.
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Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.Indicate what type of force was developed by the isolated skeletal muscle in this activity atthe following stimulus frequencies: at 50 stimuli/sec, at 140 stimuli/sec, and above 146stimuli/sec
In this activity,
At a stimulus frequency of 50 stimuli/sec, the skeletal muscle would produce a Twitch Force.
At a stimulus frequency of 140 stimuli/sec, the skeletal muscle would produce a Unfused Tetanus.
Above 146 stimuli/sec, the skeletal muscle would produce a Fused Tetanus.
Skeletal muscles are muscles that are responsible for the movement of bones, as well as facial and other body parts. These muscles, which are also known as striated muscles, are attached to bones by tendons and are under voluntary control
When muscle force is measured, it is important to keep in mind the following steps:
First and foremost, you must determine the amount of force that your muscles are capable of generating by contracting isometrically, or without moving. This test can be performed using a handheld dynamometer. Athletes and bodybuilders often test their muscle strength in this way.
The next step is to see how much force the muscle can generate while it is shortening. This test is also performed by using a dynamometer. This type of force is known as concentric force.
Finally, the third type of force is known as eccentric force. This occurs when the muscle is lengthening as it produces force.
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What is the condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus
The condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus and into other areas of the body is called endometriosis.
What is the condition?Endometriosis condition can cause pain and discomfort, especially during menstrual periods.
Endometriosis can also lead to infertility in some cases. Treatment for endometriosis can include medication, surgery, or a combination of both, depending on the severity of the condition and the individual's symptoms.
Hence, this is the condition that is under study here.
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Other than tablet hardness, which method is used to measure the tablet strength?
There are 2 main processes to test tablet hardness: compression testing and 3 point bend testing. For compression testing, the analyst generally aligns the tablet in a repeatable way, and the tablet is squeezed between a fixed and a moving jaw. The first machines continually applied force with a spring and screw thread until the tablet started to break. When the tablet fractured, the hardness was read with a sliding scale.
The weight variation test is done to verify the uniformity and the hardness of each batch to know uniformity of drug content in all batches.
What is weight variation?To support safety, identity, and quality of the product, statistical quality control test is performed to confirm uniformity of the dosage unit.
The purpose of weight variation test is to make surety of good manufacturing practices (GMP), appropriate size of the tablets and the content uniformity of the formulation.
When the tablets are containing 50 mg or more of drug substance, or or when the drug substance represents 50% or more (by weight) of the dosage form unit Weight variation test is applied.
Therefore, other than tablet hardness, weight variation method is used to measure the tablet strength.
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Create injury 10-12 response cards, simple electronic index cards that describe the symptoms of common injuries and basic first aid procedures.
Answer:
Ouch! I Just Tripped and Rolled Over My Ankle
If you’re still able to walk, albeit a bit uncomfortably, then relax: It’s not a fracture but simply a sprain. That means a ligament has been stretched or, in more severe cases, torn. About 65 to 75 percent of ankle injuries fall into this category, says David A. Porter, M.D., Ph.D., an orthopedic foot and ankle surgeon at Methodist Sports Medicine, in Indianapolis. Reduce any swelling as soon as possible with RICE: rest, ice, compression, and elevation (recline on a chair and raise your ankle to above hip level). Ice in 10- to 20-minute intervals, with 10-minute breaks in between, for a few hours. Continue RICE intermittently (or whenever you feel pain) for the next few days, and wear only sneakers. The soreness and swelling should go away within a week or at most four weeks. (During this time, the doctor may send you for physical therapy.) If your ankle swells dramatically within the first hour after the injury (for instance, it may look as if a golf ball—size lump is lodged under your skin, or the entire ankle area may be puffy and purple) and you find it almost impossible to walk, you may have a more serious sprain or fracture. See your doctor within 48 hours. He may prescribe physical therapy and outfit you with a walking boot or a brace or, in the case of a broken bone, recommend surgery or a cast.
9:01
7
01.
The four (4) phases of a complex movement are?
Answer:
Every movement skill can be broken down into four main components: preparation/preliminary movement, force production, critical instant and the recovery/follow-through. These are called the phases of movement.
Explanation: