while reviewing the prescriptions written by a primary healthcare provider, the nurse notes that ibuprofen 30 mg by mouth every 6 hours is prescribed for a child weighing 6 kg. the drug information book states that the appropriate dosage range is 20-30 mg/kg/24 hours. what action should the nurse take?
Answers
The maximum dose in 24 hours would be 30 x 6 = 180 mg. 30 mg every 6 hours is a safe dose.
What is the effect of ibuprofen?
Ibuprofen is a pain reliever that can be purchased without a prescription over-the-counter. It belongs to the class of medications known as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAIDs) and is used to treat mild to severe pain, including toothache, migraine, and period pain. Ibuprofen is a widely used over-the-counter drug. Although it often doesn't harm the liver, it can be difficult for the kidneys. It's crucial to adhere to OTC dosage recommendations since this will reduce your risk of side effects, such as kidney damage.
Hence, the answer is, the maximum dose in 24 hours would be 30 x 6 = 180 mg. 30 mg every 6 hours is a safe dose.
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Related Questions
The phrase "adjudicate a claim" means to ___________.
Answers
Adjudicating a claim is what it means, to prepare a settlement claim. A doctor who has an agreement with an insurance provider to take a predefined.
What is adjudicating a claim?The insurance provider assesses their financial obligation for the provider's payment after receiving a medical claim.
The financial obligation for the provider's payment after receiving a medical claim, claims adjudication is the term used to describe this procedure.
Therefore, the insurance provider has the option of paying the claim in full, rejecting it, or reducing the amount that is given to the provider.
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why does edema (swelling) occur with overhydration and what symptoms are shared by these two conditions?
Answers
When blood volume is normal and overhydration occurs, the extra water typically goes into the cells instead of causing tissue swelling (edema).
What does the word "symptom" mean?The physical or mental issue that a person has that could be a sign of an illness or condition. Symptoms are invisible and do not appear on diagnostic tests. Headache, weariness, nausea, and soreness are a few symptoms.
What types of symptoms are examples?The symptom is a potential health problem that a patient feels but a doctor cannot see. The pounding headache caused by anxiety, stomach pains from eating undercooked meat, or extreme exhaustion are a few examples.
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Amy has been on a moderate fluid restriction diet for her "heart condition" for a long time, but recently she has been getting worse. Her feet are swollen, and she put on 4 lb of "water weight". During her last doctor’s visit, she was advised to lower her fluid intake even more: from 30 ml/kg of body weight to 25 ml/kg. She has all this fluid restriction all figured out from previous recommendations. How much (in fluid ounces) does she need to cut her fluid intake? Amy is 5’4" and her regular weight, when not swollen, is 127 pounds.
Answers
Answer:
She should lower by about a 1 1/4 cup
Lanoxin pediatric solution available in 0.5mg/ml. If a patient takes 0.25 mg of lanoxin per day, what will be the dispensed quantity im ml for 30 bdays
Answers
Answer:
15 mL
Explanation:
order/on hand x # days
0.25 mg/0.5 x 30
Explain how a patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where
in the brain an injury occurred.
Answers
Answer:
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue. Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function:
Loss of or decreased consciousnessLoss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia)Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speechAlteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentratingSymptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.Explanation: hope this helped you out !
The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).
What is Traumatic Brain Injury?The disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue.
Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function is the loss of or decreased consciousness loss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia). Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speech alteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentrating.
Symptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.
Therefore, The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).
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how to get diastasis recti surgery covered by insurance
Answers
Diastasis recti surgery, which is used to repair a separation of the abdominal muscles, is typically considered a cosmetic procedure and is not covered by insurance.
However, in some cases, insurance may cover the surgery if it is deemed medically necessary, such as if the diastasis recti is causing functional limitations, pain, or herniation of abdominal organs.
To determine if your insurance will cover diastasis recti surgery, you will need to consult with your insurance provider and healthcare provider. They can help you understand your insurance coverage and what steps you need to take to get the surgery covered.
Some insurance providers may require a pre-authorization or referral from a primary care physician. In addition, you may need to provide documentation or medical records that demonstrate the medical necessity of the procedure.
It is important to thoroughly research and understand your insurance coverage and the costs associated with diastasis recti surgery before proceeding with the procedure. If your insurance does not cover the surgery, you may need to consider alternative options, such as physical therapy or exercise to strengthen the abdominal muscles.
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Electronic Health Records (EHR) have truly changed everything in US healthcare. But like any major change in healthcare, there are pros and cons, advantages and disadvantages. Please discuss the benefits of EHR implementation, and also discuss the EHR challenges which are being encountered.
Answers
Answer and Explanation:
The implementation of EHR can be considered something extremely beneficial for the healthcare system anywhere in the world, due to its numerous benefits such as the centralization of patient information in a single system. This allows any health professional, in any region, to access the patient's health history, test results, medications used by the patient and family history. The EHR also promotes agility in the search for information about the patient and savings in physical space, as the EHR eliminates the need for storing patient papers and documents. Failures in drug prescriptions are also reduced and service and diagnosis are streamlined.
However, some challenges must be overcome for EHR to be efficiently implemented. One of these challenges is the cost, as the implementation of EHR can have a high cost that is passed on to the patient and can become unfeasible. in addition, it is necessary to create a very efficient electronic system, which prevents the existence of data loss, malfunctions and hacker attacks.
Match the phrase with the term.
When you're still breathing hard after you finish exercising, it's called EPOC
When you can't breathe in fast enough to get all the oxygen your muscles need, it's called
When you're breathing in all the oxygen your muscles need, it's called oxygen deficit
What is it that produces lactic acid?
No lactic acid is being produced or
Extra oxygen that helps get rid of th
NEXT QUESTION
steady state
EPOC
oxygen deficit
AM
lled
Answers
Red blood cells and muscle cells are the principal producers of lactic acid. When oxygen levels are low, it develops when the body metabolises carbohydrates for energy. Your body's oxygen level may become reduced at the following times: during a vigorous activity.
Which fungus is used to produce lactic acid?Rhizopus fungus can grow and ferment in simple media with a variety of carbon sources, including starch and cellulose, making it an ideal candidate for the manufacture of lactic acid, which serves as the structural component of polylactic acid, the base material for green plastic.
Even though the blood lactate content rises while exercising hard, the lactic acid molecule itself separates and is recycled to make additional ATP.
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a nurse assesses arterial blood gas results for a patient in acute respiratory failure (arf). which results are consistent with this disorder?
Answers
Acute respiratory distress syndrome. Atelectasis. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Congestive heart failure. Pneumonia. Pulmonary embolism.
Of the following three types of fat, which type is the most unhealthy?
Answers
Discuss Clonal Selection Theory in human physiology and its application in Rubeola Infection in a 6-year-old child.
Answers
Answer:
Application or Implementation including its Clonal personality psychology for Rubeola infectious disease in something like a 6-year-old child is given below.
Explanation:
Clonal Selection Theory:
This hypothesis notes that lymphocytes have virulence genes preceding activation and also that spontaneous mutations throughout clonal expansion induce the formation of lymphocytes containing strong affinity antigen affiliations.
Its applications are given below:
Throughout the situation of Rubeola infectious disease in such a 6-year-old boy, as shown by this hypothesis, B-cells that distinguish after such an innate immune system forming phase selection because then antioxidants formed by younger memory B cells provide significantly higher commonalities to certain antigens.As a result, secondary physiological systems from memory blocks have become so successful that persistent Rubeola attacks with much the same virus are prevented unless setting up.After the primary outbreak, genetic mutations throughout clonal selection may generate recollection B cells which could attach to implementation more effectively than those of the initial B cells.What does a vaccine do to your body to protect you?
Answers
Bloodborne Pathogens Scenario #2
You finally saved up enough money to go get a tattoo that you've been wanting for months. The tattoo
artist does awesome work and was recommended by several friends. When you get to the shop and sit
down in the chair when you notice the tools he plans on using didn't come out of an autoclave (which
cleans and sterilizes) and they didn't come out a wrapper indicated they are new. What would you do?
Do you allow him to continue with the tattoo knowing that these tools could've been used before? Tell
me what you do and why?
no I will get up out my chair because it is not clean and it is germs and you can catch hiv from the tools
1
Answers
Answer:
No i would get up.
Explanation:
You could contract diseases from dirty tattoo nedles and could seriously get someone sick. I would go and find a better and more clean tattoo place.
What is disease research
Answers
Disease research is when scientists research more about a dieasese.
Select the correct answer.
Which skill allows a veterinary technician to calculate and formulate dosages?
ОА.
motor skill
OB. intellectual skill
OC.
observational skill
OD.
communication skill
O E. self-motivation
Answers
Answer:
motor skill
Explanation:
The purpose(s) of diaphragmatic breathing is to help your client:
Answers
The purpose of diaphragmatic breathing is to help your client achieve relaxation, reduce stress and anxiety, improve oxygenation, and promote overall well-being.
Diaphragmatic breathing, also known as deep belly breathing or abdominal breathing, involves engaging the diaphragm to breathe deeply and fully. This technique aims to support physical and mental health by promoting relaxation and reducing stress and anxiety levels. By consciously focusing on the breath and engaging the diaphragm, individuals can activate the body's relaxation response, leading to a sense of calmness and improved emotional well-being. Diaphragmatic breathing also enhances oxygenation by allowing for deeper inhalation and exhalation, which can improve lung capacity and overall respiratory function. It is a valuable tool for managing stress, promoting relaxation, and cultivating a sense of balance and well-being in clients.
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mHealth and wearable technology should replace motor diaries to track motor fluctuations in Parkinson’s disease
Answers
Yes, health and wearable technology can be used to replace motor diaries to track motor fluctuations in Parkinson’s disease. Wearable technology, such as activity trackers, can be used to measure and monitor physical activity and movement of patients with Parkinson’s disease. The data collected can be used to determine changes in motor movements over time.
Additionally, this technology can be used to track and monitor other physical health markers, such as heart rate, sleep patterns, and stress levels. This data can help physicians to better understand and manage the disease and its symptoms. Finally, wearable technology can be used to communicate with physicians and care teams, providing them with real-time updates about the patient’s condition.
Motor fluctuations in Parkinson’s disease are changes in the effectiveness of medications used to treat the condition. These fluctuations can cause a patient to have periods of time when their symptoms become worse even when medications are taken as prescribed. Common motor fluctuations include wearing off, on-off, and dyskinesias (involuntary movements). Wearing off refers to the gradual decrease in effectiveness of medications over the course of their action. On-off describes the sudden and unpredictable changes in motor control. Dyskinesias are involuntary and uncontrolled movements that can be caused by taking too much of a medication or by taking it too frequently. Treatment for motor fluctuations can include adjusting the dosage and spacing of medications, using drugs to reduce dyskinesia, and/or using deep brain stimulation.
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Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of which of the following?
a. carbohydrates only
b. lipids only
c. proteins only
d. carbohydrates and lipids only
e. carbohydrates and proteins only
Answers
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of lipids only (b).
Bile, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats (lipids). When we consume a meal that contains fats, bile is released into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) to aid in the digestion process.
Bile contains bile salts, which help emulsify fats by breaking them down into smaller droplets. This emulsification process increases the surface area of the fat molecules, allowing pancreatic lipase (an enzyme) to efficiently break them down into fatty acids and glycerol.
If there is a blockage in the flow of bile into the duodenum, such as in cases of gallstones or a blockage in the bile duct, the digestion of lipids becomes compromised. Without sufficient bile, the emulsification of fats is impaired, making it difficult for pancreatic lipase to access and break down the fat molecules effectively. As a result, the digestion and absorption of lipids are hindered, leading to potential malabsorption and related digestive issues. The digestion of carbohydrates and proteins, on the other hand, is not directly dependent on the presence of bile and would not be significantly affected by the blockage.
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What will happen if I took 8 paracetamol all in once
Answers
Which of these are true regarding physical therapy? Check all of the boxes that apply.
Physical therapy is nearly identical to massage therapy.
It takes about six years of post-secondary schooling for most physical therapists.
Physical therapists only operate on small joints of the body, such as the hands and feet.
The treatments physical therapists offer can be similar to those offered by chiropractors and physiatrists.
Answers
C is absolutely incorrect, and PT is far more complex than massage therapy, so A is also incorrect.
Answer:
B&D
Explanation:
T/F The scientific basis for patient care constantly changes
Answers
The given statement "The scientific basis for patient care constantly changes" is True.
The scientific basis for patient care is constantly changing as new research and discoveries are made in the medical field. This is why it is important for healthcare professionals to stay up to date on the latest developments and continue their education throughout their careers. By doing so, they can provide the best possible care for their patients based on the most current and accurate information available.
The acts and procedures involved in giving medical treatment and assistance to patients, including physical and emotional care, are referred to as patient care. In addition to guaranteeing patient safety, respecting patient privacy and confidentiality, and promoting patient education and self-care, patient care entails encouraging patient education and self-care.
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Which of the following could be reasonably concluded if a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing?
The sow may have a stillborn piglet in her uterus.
The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
The farrowing process has come to a conclusion.
The sow is about to expel her placenta.
Answers
Answer: The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
Explanation:
Farrowing is a term that simply has to do with the action by which pigs give birth. Another term for farrowing is parturition.
As farrowing approaches, it should be noted that the the vulva and the vagina will enlarge which leads to the opening into the womb. When a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing, the first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
Which are pathology suffixes
Answers
Answer:
Patho-: A prefix derived from the Greek "pathos" meaning "suffering or disease." Patho- serves as a prefix for many terms including pathogen (disease agent), pathogenesis (development of disease), pathology (study of disease), etc. The corresponding suffix is -pathy.
Explanation:
paramedics are examining a woman in her eighth month of pregnancy and discover that her blood pressure is 100/70, her heart rate is 90, and her respirations are 20. what do these vital signs indicate?
Answers
When the paramedics examine a woman in her eighth month of pregnancy and find that her blood pressure is 100/70, her heart rate is 90, and her respirations are 20, these vital signs indicate that the woman is within normal ranges for a healthy adult.
These vital signs mean that the woman is not experiencing any serious medical complications or other problems, such as hypoxia, shock, or cardiac arrest. Her blood pressure is within the normal range of 120/80 mm Hg for healthy adults. Her heart rate is also within the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm) for healthy adults.
Her respiratory rate is also within the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute for healthy adults. Therefore, the paramedics will probably conclude that the woman is healthy and has no serious medical concerns at this point.
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After enjoying a cheeseburger and a glass of fat-free milk, where does the majority of the chemical digestion of the protein occur?a. Small intestineb Mouthc Stomachd Pancreas
Answers
After enjoying a cheeseburger and a glass of fat-free milk, the majority of the chemical digestion of the protein occurs in c. stomach.
Chemical digestion is the process by which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules by enzymes. This is in contrast to mechanical digestion, which involves the physical breakdown of food into smaller pieces.The stomach is a muscular sac-like organ that secretes gastric juice, which contains hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes like pepsin, lipase, and rennin.
Pepsin, an enzyme that is produced by cells in the stomach lining and is responsible for breaking down protein into smaller peptides, is the most important digestive enzyme found in the stomach.Therefore, the majority of the chemical digestion of protein occurs in the stomach after enjoying a cheeseburger and a glass of fat-free milk. As a result, option C is the correct answer.
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read each of the descriptions regarding the composition and properties of urine. then, click and drag each into the appropriate category to indicate whether it is true or false.
Answers
The assertion is accurate. Read each explanation of the characteristics and composition of urine. After that, drag each item into the relevant category to specify.
What is renal trauma?Renal trauma may result in damage to the renal parenchyma or renal vasculature, which may cause bleeding, as well as damage to the collecting system and potential urine leaks. The kidney is typically injured in genitourinary tract injuries, which account for 10% of all traumas. With chronic bleeding, growing perinephric hematoma, renal pedicle avulsions or substantial renovascular injuries, and rupture of the ureteropelvic junction, consider surgery or therapeutic angiography intervention. Urinary extravasation that persists may benefit from a ureteral stent.Urinary fistula, delayed bleeding, abscess, hypertension, and urinoma are examples of early sequelae that develop within a month of an injury. The most frequent consequence following renal damage is prolonged urine extravasation.Therefore,
The majority of the solute in urine is nitrogenous waste; urine is about 95% water; hematuria may suggest renal trauma; urine can be more hypertonic than blood plasma; and the odor of urine can be affected by certain foods.
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The given statement "The most abundant solute in urine is a nitrogenous waste" is true because urea is the most abundant solute.
True statement about urine as following:
The most abundant solute in urine is a nitrogenous waste - True (Urea is the most abundant solute)
Sodium chloride, potassium chloride, glucose, and uric acid are present in normal urine - True
Urine is more dense than distilled water - True
Urine is approximately 95% water - True
It is possible for urine to be hypertonic compared to blood plasma - True
Hematuria may indicate trauma to the kidneys - True
Normal urine is alkaline - False (Normal urine is slightly acidic)
The odor of urine can be influenced by different foods - True
False statement about urine as following:
Clear urine indicates dehydration - False (Clear urine usually indicates proper hydration)
Bacterial infections of the urethra may cause a sweet, fruity odor in urine - False (Sweet, fruity odor usually indicates presence of ketones due to diabetes)
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quiz about undesirable and altered immunity?
Answers
Undesirable and altered immunity refer to states where the immune system fails to respond appropriately to foreign invaders, attacks healthy tissues, or is intentionally suppressed, leading to negative health outcomes.
What is undesirable and altered immunity?Undesirable and altered immunity refers to a state in which the body's immune system is either overactive or underactive, leading to negative health outcomes.
In some cases, the immune system may fail to respond appropriately to foreign invaders such as viruses, bacteria, and other pathogens, leaving the body vulnerable to infections and diseases.
This is known as immunodeficiency, which can be caused by genetic factors, certain medications, or underlying health conditions such as HIV/AIDS.
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The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time?
A. Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation
B. Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation
C. Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation
D. Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation
Answers
The nurse, while developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant, should inform the patient about when she can expect to feel the fetus move. The correct answer is B. Between 16 and 20 weeks' gestation.
During this period, the patient may begin to experience a sensation called "quickening," which refers to the first fetal movements that the mother can feel. This exciting milestone in pregnancy is an important indicator of the fetus's growth and development. The exact timing of when the mother will feel these movements can vary depending on factors such as the mother's body type, the position of the fetus, and whether or not it is her first pregnancy. First-time mothers might not feel these movements until closer to 20 weeks, while those who have been pregnant before may recognize them earlier.
It is essential for the nurse to include this information in the teaching plan to ensure the patient understands what to expect during her pregnancy journey and can recognize the normal progress of her baby's development. Being aware of when to anticipate feeling the fetus move can help alleviate any anxiety or concerns the patient may have and allows her to better monitor her pregnancy.
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When assessing a toddler's language development, what is the standard against which you measure language in a 2-year-old?
A) He should say two words plus "ma-ma" and "da-da."
B) He should speak in two-word sentences ("Me go").
C) He should be able to count out loud to 20.
D) He should say 20 nouns and 4 pronouns.
Answers
B) When assessing a toddler's language development, the standard Against which you measure language in a 2-year-old is that they should Speak in two-word sentences, such as "Me go"
This is considered a normal developmental milestone for a 2-year-old. While a 2-year-old may be able to say "ma-ma" and "da-da" and may be Able to name some objects, the ability to speak in two-word sentences is a more important developmental milestone for assessing language Development at this age.
Counting to 20 or knowing a specific number of nouns and pronouns Would be beyond the expected language abilities of most 2-year-olds.
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Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
Answers
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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