Which of these should you never text to someone without the permission of a parents or guardian A your friend joke B your home address C your funny photo of a pet D your video of last nights sunset
Answers
Answer:
B home address
Explanation:
you never know someone intentions
Answer: B - your home address
Explanation: You shouldn’t share your home address with anyone without permission.
Related Questions
how much radiation exposure in abdominal ct scan with contrast
Answers
Answer:
A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis exposes a person to about 10 mSv. A PET/CT exposes you to about 25 mSv of radiation
Explanation:
Jana is a nursing assistant who cares very much about her patients. Jana is giving her patient Fatima a sponge bath
with Fatima's husband present, which was Fatima's request. While bathing Fatima, Jana overhears her saying how
she wished she could see her mom. Jana looks up Fatima's chart and finds her mother's phone number. Jana calls
the Fatima's mother, tells her that Jana is very sick, and suggests she come down fora visit. When did Jana most
violate her patient's rights?
P
Answers
Answer:
Jana made several mistakes/violations. The first was accessing Fatima's chart that was not relevant to her treatment. The most serious violation was making the call to Fatima's mother.
Explanation:
HIPPA violations can carry penalties for each incident that is reported. If Jana does not have a patient's explicit permission to discuss her condition with her mother, that is very serious violation that can be reported. Jana opens herself up to paying monetary fines and possible jail time.
Sadie is a 37-year-old teacher in her 20th week of pregnancy. She is 68 inches tall and weighs 195 pounds. Her pre-pregnancy weight was 180 pounds. During her first pregnancy 2 years ago, she gained 50 pounds. She gave birth to an infant weighing 9 pounds, 2 ounces. Her doctor has recommended that she keep her weight gain within the recommended range. She likes to swim but has not been exercising regularly since she found out she was pregnant. She has had morning sickness through much of this pregnancy and says that she feels better when she eats starchy foods such as white bread, potato chips, and refined pasta. She reports recent problems with constipation and is seeking ways to relieve her discomfort.
Required:
a. Calculate Sadie's body mass index (BMI) based on her pre-pregnancy weight.
b. Based on her pre-pregnancy weight, if she is carrying a single baby, how much weight should Sadie gain during her pregnancy?
c. By the 20th week of pregnancy, how much weight should Sadie gain?
Answers
(a) 29.4 is Sadie's body mass index (BMI) based on her pre-pregnancy weight.
(b) 15 to 25 lbs is the amount of weight should Sadie gain during her pregnancy if she is carrying a single baby.
(c) 6.7 lbs is the amount of weight Sadie should gain by the 20th week of pregnancy.
Adult men and women can use the body mass index (BMI), a measurement of body fat based on height and weight.
Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms (or pounds) by their height in metres squared (or feet).
High body fatness may be indicated by a high BMI. BMI does not make a body fat or health diagnosis for an individual, but it does screen for weight categories that may cause health issues.
You are about five months along in your pregnancy at 20 weeks. Most women gain between two and four pounds during the first three months, and then one pound every month until the conclusion of the pregnancy.
With the BMI of 29.4 it is suggested that one should gain 15-25 lbs of weight during the pregnancy and about 6.7 lbs weight by the 20th week of pregnancy.
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The only way to stay at an appropriate weight is to balance food intake with calories burned.
True
False
Answers
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Which of the following is generally NOT associated with a regular program of physical fitness: A. lowering of bone density, B. lowering of blood pressure, C. lowering of blood cholesterol, D. lowering of resting pulse rate
Answers
The following is often NOT linked to a regular physical fitness programme: reduction of bone density. Option A is Correct.
Exercise should include all four types: endurance, strength, balance, and flexibility, according to research. Regular physical activity is NOT likely to cause a decrease in attention span. Regular physical activity and exercise support healthy bones and muscles. It enhances general health, cardiovascular health, and respiratory health.
Maintaining a healthy weight, lowering your risk of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and various malignancies are further benefits of being active. Weight loss programmes have long focused on getting people to a particular weight. However, research has shown that weight is a poor indicator of fitness. the Body Mass Index in people. Option A is Correct.
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1.Select one claim from the background section of this assignment. Discuss whether you are in support of or against the claim and why.
2.Explain the evidence you used from either article to support your argument about the claim
Answers
it is blur I can't see the words
Which of the following is likely to view the institution of marriage as a means for consolidating power and wealth?
a. Functionalism
b. Conflict theory
c. Symbolic interactionism
d. Social constructionism
Answers
Of the options you provided, the social theory that is most likely to view the institution of marriage as a means for consolidating power and wealth is conflict theory. The answer is b.
Conflict theory argues that society is characterized by conflict and competition for resources, and that the dominant group uses institutions like marriage to maintain their power and privilege. According to this perspective, marriage is not just a personal decision, but a social and political one that involves power dynamics and inequalities. Historically, marriage has been used as a way to consolidate power and wealth among families and communities, especially through arranged marriages and dowries.
This has been particularly true for the upper classes and aristocracies, where marriage was often seen as a way to strengthen political alliances and secure economic resources. However, conflict theory also suggests that marriage can be a source of conflict and tension, especially when power imbalances and inequalities exist between partners.
Overall, conflict theory provides a critical lens through which to understand the role of marriage in society and the ways in which it can both reflect and reproduce social inequalities.
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The best way to develop gluten in YEAST breads is by:
Folding-In
Cutting-In
Kneading
Stirring
Answers
Answer:
Kneading
Explanation:
The more the dough is mixed, the more gluten is developed. This causes the dough to become elastic and stretchy, as can be seen usually in bread dough. The gluten is formed during the kneading of the bread dough. Kneading causes gluten strands to get stronger and longer.
hope this helps
Answer:
kneading
Explanation:
What are the differences and similarities between secondary and post-secondary education?
Answers
Answer: Secondary education refers to high school instruction. After earning a high school diploma or equivalent, many students choose to pursue post secondary education, such as a vocational certificate or college degree.
8. The fat we store in our bodies does many things for us EXCEPT: *
Protects your ograns.
keeps you warm.
Stores energy for later use.
Breaks down into proteins. HELPPPPP PLEASEEE
Answers
Answer:
fats cannot be broken down into proteins..that's not true
Answer:
The fats do not break down proteins,
Explanation:
They help us keep insulated, storage, and it protects any of the vital organs in our body.
The only thing it does not do is break down protein.
I hope this helps!
-No one
After assessing the physical condition and electrocardiogram (ECG) reports of a client, the primary health-care provider prescribes atropine. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this client?
1.Atrial flutter
2.Atrial fibrillation
3.Sinus bradycardia
4.Ventricular tachycardia
Answers
Answer:
3.Sinus bradycardia this is ans now bye good luck
can lunch box food warmers (hotpots) be used during very hot days?
Answers
in the late 19th and early 20th century, infectious and communicable disease was a major public health concern because of
Answers
In the late 19th and early 20th century, infectious diseases spread rapidly due to transportation, urbanization, poor sanitation, and limited medical resources.
In the late 19th and early 20th century, infectious and communicable diseases were a major public health concern due to several factors. Advancements in transportation, such as steamships and railways, facilitated the rapid spread of diseases across regions and continents. Urbanization and overcrowding in cities created favorable conditions for the transmission of diseases, as sanitation systems were inadequate and living conditions were often unsanitary.
Poor hygiene practices, limited access to clean water, and inadequate medical knowledge and resources further exacerbated the problem. There were limited or no vaccines and effective treatments for many infectious diseases at that time. These factors combined to create a fertile environment for the spread of diseases, leading to high morbidity and mortality rates and significant public health challenges.
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The correct question is:
In the late 19th and early 20th century, infectious and communicable disease was a major public health concern because of what?
How can air pollution be reduced?
A. Plant more trees
B. Burn more fossil fuels
C. Walk fewer places
D. Place more cars on the road
Answers
Hope it helps
why is it import to include all of the principles of training into an exercise program
Answers
Answer:
people have to put their bodies under additional stress when it comes to exercise. this training principles will cause long-term adaptations, making it so the body can work more efficiently to cope with this higher level of performance.
What could happen if the body is unable to maintain normal homeostatic balance?
The body will continue to function as normal.
The body can correct itself back to optimal health.
The body might suffer disease or death.
The body will not be able to work in any way.
Answers
Answer:
C!!!
Explanation:
I did this in 7th grade
Roger is about to ride a roller coaster. He is afraid of heights and is nervous about the ride. How would each of the following theories explain Roger's experience of fear on the roller coaster?
A) James-Lange
B) Cannon-Bard
C) Schachter-Singer
Answers
The James-Lange theory of emotion would explain Roger's fear on the roller coaster as a result of his physiological responses to the experience.
A) The James-Lange theory of emotion would explain Roger's fear on the roller coaster as a result of his physiological responses to the experience. According to this theory, emotions are the result of physiological arousal, which then triggers a conscious emotional response. In this case, Roger's fear would be the result of his increased heart rate, rapid breathing, and other physical symptoms of anxiety that he is experiencing in response to the roller coaster.
B) The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion suggests that emotions and physiological responses occur simultaneously and independently. In this case, Roger's fear and physiological responses to the roller coaster would occur at the same time, rather than one causing the other. According to this theory, Roger's fear and physical symptoms are separate but parallel experiences that occur together.
C) The Schachter-Singer two-factor theory of emotion suggests that emotions are the result of both physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal. In this case, Roger's fear would be the result of both his physiological arousal and his cognitive interpretation of the situation, which is his awareness that he is riding a roller coaster and that he is afraid of heights. According to this theory, emotions are the result of a combination of physiological and cognitive processes.
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how can I start off my informative essay of getting and staying healthy
Answers
bariatric surgery nutritional deficiencies and explain in detail why they may occur as a result from this type of weight loss surgery.
Answers
Bariatric surgery can lead to nutritional deficiencies due to changes in the way the body absorbs nutrients. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare team to ensure that they are getting the proper nutrition after surgery.
Bariatric surgery, also known as weight loss surgery, is a type of surgery that helps people lose weight by changing the way their stomach and small intestine handle the food they eat. While bariatric surgery can be an effective weight loss tool, it can also lead to nutritional deficiencies.
One of the main reasons why nutritional deficiencies may occur after bariatric surgery is because the surgery changes the way the body absorbs nutrients.
For example, some types of bariatric surgery reduce the size of the stomach, which means that less food can be eaten at one time. This can lead to a decrease in the amount of nutrients that the body is able to absorb.
Another reason why nutritional deficiencies may occur after bariatric surgery is because of changes in the way the small intestine handles food. Some types of bariatric surgery change the way the small intestine absorbs nutrients, which can lead to a decrease in the amount of nutrients that the body is able to absorb.
It is important for patients who have had bariatric surgery to work closely with their healthcare team to ensure that they are getting the proper nutrition. This may include taking vitamin and mineral supplements, following a specific diet, and monitoring for signs of nutritional deficiencies.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms characteristic of a myocardial infarction (mi). What priorities the nurse should establish while performing the physical assessment?
Answers
When caring for a client who is exhibiting signs of a myocardial infarction (MI), the nurse should establish priorities in the physical assessment to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
The nurse should focus on assessing the client's airway, breathing, and circulation, as well as obtaining a thorough history and conducting a comprehensive physical examination. Additionally, the nurse should prioritize the assessment of vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, and monitor for any changes in the client's condition.
Other important priorities include obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) to confirm the diagnosis of MI and assessing the client for any associated complications, such as heart failure or arrhythmias.
Finally, the nurse should provide appropriate interventions, such as administering oxygen, initiating IV access, administering aspirin or nitroglycerin as ordered, and preparing the client for transport to a higher level of care if necessary.
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What are ways to increase weight, if someone is underweight?
Answers
Answer:
"Eat more frequently.When someone underweight, he/she may feel full faster.
*Choose nutrient-rich foods.
*Try smoothies and shakes.
*Watch when you drink.
*Make every bite count."
Explanation:
Risk*
The component of physical fitness that is your muscles' ability to exert force repeatedly or for an extended period of time.
Muscular Endurance
Muscular Strength
Flexibility
Body Composition
Cardiovascular Endurance
Answers
The component of physical fitness that is your muscle's ability to exert force repeatedly or for an extended period of time is muscular endurance.
What is muscular endurance?Muscular endurance is the muscle's ability to sustain repeated contractions for a prolonged period of time. Is when the muscles need to contract in a similar pattern more than once.
Therefore, we can confirm that the component of physical fitness that is your muscle's ability to exert force repeatedly or for an extended period of time is muscular endurance.
Question:
The component of physical fitness that is your muscles' ability to exert force repeatedly or for an extended period of time.
Muscular Endurance
Muscular Strength
Flexibility
Body Composition
Cardiovascular Endurance
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How do both individual and team sports contribute to a healthy environment?
Answers
Answer:
well reworking together as a team and it helps u get through it more and by urself u have plenty of time and don't have to speed up to be healthy
Type 1 and type 2 diabetes both result in a high level of glucose in the blood.
O A. true
O B. false
Answers
Match the glands with their location in the body. in the ear canals all over the skin except the palms and soles areas with large amounts of hair apocrine gland arrowRight ceruminous gland arrowRight sebaceous gland arrowRight
Answers
Answer:
Ceruminous gland → In the ear canals
Apocrine glands → All area of the skin except the palms and soles
Sebaceous gland → Areas with large amounts of hair
Explanation:
The apocrine glands are the sweat/scent glands that produce secretions having an odor. They are located in the skin mostly under the armpits, the breast nipples, and the groin
The ceruminous gland which are sweat glands, are a class of apocrine glands that are found in the outer 1/3 of the external part of the auditory canal (subcutaneously)
The sebaceous gland is an exocrine gland that lubricates the skin by opening into the follicle of the hair to secrete sebum (an oily matter)
Answer:
apocrine gland- areas with large amount of hair
ceruminous gland- in the ear canals
sebaceous gland- all over the skin except the palms and soles
Explanation:
This is correct for plato/edmentum.
(The other person mixed up apocrine and sebaceous)
A mother brings her 15-month-old daughter to your office for evaluation of a rash and fever. She says the rash started one day and the fever developed the next day. Her daughter has had all of her vaccinations up to 10 months. The mother sheepishly admits that she hasn't had time to bring her daughter in since her 10-month check-up. On examination you see a mildly sick- appearing toddler with a 102-degree temperature. Looking at her skin you see at least 100 of a variety of papules, vesicles, and ulcers in different stages of development.
What illness prevented by proper vaccination does this toddler have?
A) Varicella (chickenpox)
B) Measles
C) Smallpox
Answers
Answer: Varicella (chickenpox)
Explanation:
The illness prevented by proper vaccination that the toddler has is Varicella (chickenpox).
Varicella is a very contagious viral infection which causes itchy, rashes on the skin. Other symptoms include headache, fever, tiredness, loss of appetite etc.
It can be spread when the person coughs or sneezes, through kissing, skin-to-skin contact, during pregnancy etc.
Process Chart: Herding the Patient
Bayside General Hospital is trying to streamline its operations. A problem-solving group consisting of a nurse, a technician, a doctor, an administrator, and a patient is examining outpatient procedures in an effort to speed up the process and make it more cost-effective. Listed here are the steps that a typical patient follows for diagnostic imaging:
Patient enters main hospital entrance
Patient takes a number and waits to be called to registration desk
Patient registers
Patient is taken to diagnostic imaging department
Patient registers at diagnostic imaging reception
Patient sits in department waiting area until dressing area clears
Patient changes in dressing area
Patient waits in dressing area
Patient is taken to exan room
Exan is performed
Patient is taken to dressing area
Patient dresses
Patient leaves
1. Create a service blueprint of the procedure and identify opportunities for improvement.
2. Describe what elements of a servicescape would make this service more palatable to the customer and efficient for the hospital staff.
Answers
1. Service Blueprint - A service blueprint is a visual representation or diagram that outlines the process of delivering a service from the customer's perspective.
Customer
Enters main hospital entranceTakes a number and waits to be called to registration deskRegistersIs taken to diagnostic imaging departmentRegisters at diagnostic imaging receptionSits in department waiting area until dressing area clearsChanges in dressing areaWaits in dressing areaIs taken to exam roomExam is performedIs taken to dressing areaDressesLeavesFrontstage
Registration deskDiagnostic imaging receptionDressing areaExam roomBackstage
Call centerSchedulingImaging equipmentSupport
Policies and proceduresTrainingFacilitiesOpportunities for Improvement
Reduce the number of waiting areas by staggering patient arrivals.Provide online registration and scheduling to reduce wait times.Create a more comfortable dressing area with privacy curtains and seating.Use a patient tracking system to reduce the number of times patients have to give their information.Train staff on how to provide excellent customer service.2. Servicescape: The servicescape is the physical environment in which the service is delivered. Elements of a servicescape that would make this service more palatable to the customer and efficient for the hospital staff include:
A comfortable and welcoming waiting area with seating, magazines, and water.A well-lit and clean dressing area with privacy curtains and seating.Exam rooms that are private and comfortable.Equipment that is easy to use and maintain.Policies and procedures that are clear and easy to understand.Staff that are friendly and helpful.1. Service blueprint and opportunities for improvement:
Patient enters main hospital entrancePatient takes a number and waits to be called to registration deskPatient registersPatient is taken to diagnostic imaging departmentPatient registers at diagnostic imaging receptionPatient sits in department waiting area until dressing area clearsPatient changes in dressing areaPatient waits in dressing areaPatient is taken to exam roomExam is performedPatient is taken to dressing areaPatient dressesPatient leavesOpportunities for improvement:
Streamline the registration process to minimize wait times.Improve communication and coordination between departments to reduce patient movement and waiting times.Optimize the workflow between the main entrance, registration desk, and diagnostic imaging department.Implement a system to notify patients when the dressing area is clear to reduce waiting time.Evaluate the efficiency of the examination process to minimize delays and enhance patient experience.2. Elements of a servicescape for improvement:
Clear and visible signage throughout the hospital to guide patients.Comfortable and well-equipped waiting areas for patient convenience.Efficient registration processes, such as self-check-in kiosks or online pre-registration options.Effective communication systems to keep patients informed about their status and next steps.Well-trained and courteous staff who can provide clear instructions and address patient concerns.By considering these improvements in the service blueprint and enhancing the servicescape, Bayside General Hospital can create a more streamlined and satisfactory experience for both patients and hospital staff.
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how can you tell that you are in a vein when using a needle and a syringe?
Answers
To identify a vein when using a needle and syringe, look for visible veins, palpate for resilience, and observe blood flashback into the syringe upon insertion. Seek professional guidance if unsure.
If you are in a vein when using a needle and syringe, there are several indicators you can look for: Visual cues: Veins are typically more visible than surrounding tissues. Look for prominent, bluish-colored vessels that run close to the skin's surface. Palpation: Gently press the area with your fingertips to feel for a "bounce back" or resilience, which indicates the presence of a vein.
Blood flashback: Once the needle is inserted into the skin, you may observe a small amount of blood entering the syringe's chamber, known as a "flashback." This confirms that you have successfully accessed a vein. It's important to note that these indicators are not foolproof, and proper training and experience are essential for safe and accurate venipuncture. If you are unsure, seek guidance from a healthcare professional.
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Select all the correct answers.
dr. paul nygard is examining a patient who is suffering from a high fever. dr. nygard identifies the problem as the patient still having fever due to an illness. he orders a blood test. what two actions should dr. nygard take next to solve the problem?
suggest the patient to research the illness they might have.
evaluate the blood test report and consult with a specialist.
redefine the problem before getting the blood test report.
ask the patient for opinions on best course of treatment.
create a treatment choice based on the blood test report.
it says to pick two
Answers
Children under 8 who are taller than 4 feet 9 inches are exempted from using an approved car seat or booster seat located in the rear seat of the car.
true
false
Answers
The statement is False.
Children under 8 who are taller than 4 feet 9 inches are not automatically exempted from using an approved car seat or booster seat. The use of car seats and booster seats is determined by the child's age, weight, and height, as well as the specific laws and regulations of the jurisdiction. These guidelines aim to ensure the safety and proper restraint of children in motor vehicles.
In many regions, the use of car seats or booster seats is required for children under a certain age, weight, or height, regardless of how tall they are. It is important to follow the guidelines and laws applicable to your specific location to ensure the safety of children while traveling in vehicles.
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