Option B).pharynx larynx trachea bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli is the correct answer.
The option that correctly lists the sequence of structures that air passes through during breathing after it enters the mouth and nose is as follows:Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.In the respiratory system, air enters the body through the mouth and nose. After air passes through these organs, it enters the pharynx, larynx, and trachea. Following the trachea, air passes into the bronchi, which lead to the bronchioles, which in turn lead to the alveoli.The airways of the respiratory system are a network of tubes and chambers that convey air to and from the lungs. The airways include the nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.Air passes through the mouth and nose before entering the respiratory system. The air then enters the pharynx, which leads to the larynx. The trachea then carries the air to the bronchi, bronchioles, and finally to the alveoli. This allows for gas exchange to occur, with oxygen entering the bloodstream and carbon dioxide being exhaled. So, option B is the correct answer.
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Which of the following explains why a breeding-soundness examination is performed?
to determine the age of the animal
to determine what traits will be passed on to offspring
to determine what genes were inherited from parents
to determine the likelihood of fertility
Answer:b
Explanation:
The statement to determine what traits will be passed on to offspring explains the breeding-soundness examination is performed.
What do you mean by breeding soundness examination?The breeding soundness examination (BSE) involves a complete and systematic evaluation of the reproductive potential of a given male, including mating ability and libido, general physical examination.
The breeding soundness exam (BSE) is much more than a “semen test.” It consists of a physical exam that should include examination of the eyes, feet and legs, teeth (if an older bull), and general overall condition.
By following out breeding system i.e., crossbreeding, selective breeding and grading up according to the need, results in improvement in production performance of the crossbred.
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PLS HELPS ANSWER___________________________________________________
Answer: t
Explanation:
This other metal is in period 6. It's ionization energy and metallic character is less than Tin (Sn) but has the same # of valence electrons as tin and has less than 100 protons. A. Germanium, Ge B. Thallium, Tl C Lead, Pb B. Indium, In This element has 4 valence electrons, and properties similar to carbon, its atomic radius is less than Germanium but larger than Phosphorus and it is more electronegative than Aluminum. A. Germanium, Ge B. Aluminum, Al C. Carbon, C D. Silicon, Si To determine if a chemical reaction has taken place look for the following clues: (Chose all that apply). A a change in energy (heat/light) B. a precipitate forms C. a gas is produced E. a change in color that is different from the original color(s) F. the substance crumbles into pieces
The metal in period 6 with ionization energy and metallic character less than Tin (Sn) but having the same number of valence electrons as Tin and fewer than 100 protons is Lead (Pb).
Lead is a metal in period 6 of the periodic table, and its properties align with the given description. It has a lower ionization energy and metallic character compared to Tin, shares the same number of valence electrons, and has an atomic number of 82, which is fewer than 100.
The element with 4 valence electrons, properties similar to carbon, an atomic radius smaller than Germanium but larger than Phosphorus, and more electronegative than Aluminum is Silicon (Si).
Silicon possesses these characteristics: it has 4 valence electrons, similar properties to carbon as both are in the same group (Group 14), its atomic radius is smaller than Germanium but larger than Phosphorus, and it is more electronegative than Aluminum.
To determine if a chemical reaction has taken place, the clues to look for are: A) a change in energy (heat/light), B) a precipitate forms, C) a gas is produced, E) a change in color that is different from the original color(s), and F) the substance crumbles into pieces. These observations can indicate that a chemical reaction has occurred.
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How much, in centimeters, would the average human fingernail grow in one year? you may use a calculator. 4.164 416.4 41.64 0.347
As a broad rule, human fingernails grow between 0.5 inches (1 cm) and 4 inches (10 cm) per year, and several items can affect this growth rate.
Where do fingernails originate?Under the cuticle, at the nail root, nails are formed. The old nail cells are pushed out as the fresh nail cells at the nail's root grow. In order to flatten and harden, these aged cells produce keratin, a protein. After that, the freshly produced nail moves along the nail bed, the smooth area under your nails. Human fingernails typically develop at a pace of about 0. Toenails typically grow at a rate of 1.6 mm (0.063 in) each month, which is about half as fast as fingernails at 3.5 mm (0.14 in) per month. Toenails take twelve to eighteen months to fully regrow, whereas fingernails take three to six months.To learn more about human fingernail grow, refer to:
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autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to: a. stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors. b. secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth. c. divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use. d. stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply.
The autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to Secrete increase elements that stimulate their very own increase.
Cancer cells should have mutations that allow them to proliferate withinside the absence of outside increase signals. To reap this, a few cancers accumulate the cappotential to secrete increase elements that stimulate their very own increase, a manner referred to as autocrine stimulation. The final alternatives do now no longer describe autocrine stimulation.
Autocrine stimulation refers to high quality autocrine secretion, which features to stimulate mobileular growth. Many of the high quality autocrine loops were tested in human colorectal carcinoma (CRC), which can be taken into consideration to play an critical position withinside the initiation and development of the cancer.
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at embryonic day 7.0 in mouse embryos, pgcs will express fragilis in reponse to ___________ secreted from the _________________.
At embryonic day 7.0 in mouse embryos, primordial germ cells (PGCs) will express Fragilis in response to bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) secreted from the extraembryonic ectoderm.
Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) are a group of growth factors that play important roles in the development and maintenance of bone and other tissues. They are a part of the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β) superfamily and are involved in various biological processes such as embryonic development, cell differentiation, and tissue repair.
BMPs were originally discovered for their ability to induce bone formation and have since been found to have a wide range of functions. They are involved in the differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into bone-forming cells (osteoblasts), as well as in the regulation of cell proliferation, migration, and apoptosis.
BMPs are also involved in the maintenance of bone and cartilage homeostasis, and disruptions in BMP signaling can lead to bone and joint disorders such as osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, and bone fractures. In addition, BMPs have been shown to play important roles in other tissues, such as the nervous system, where they are involved in neuronal differentiation and axon guidance.
BMPs have been used in various clinical applications, such as in bone regeneration and repair, spinal fusion, and joint reconstruction. They have also been studied as potential therapies for conditions such as heart disease, diabetes, and cancer.
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QUESTION 1 The age of viability occurs around 17-21 weeks of prenatal development 28-34 weeks of prenatal development 22-28 weeks of prenatal development 35-40 weeks of prenatal development 0.25 points QUESTION 2 Once implantation is complete, the developing organism is called a(n) fetus. zygote. germ disc. embryo. 0.25 points QUESTION 3 Implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterus begins immediately after conception. about one week after conception. during the period of the embryo. during the period of the fetus. 0.25 points QUESTION 4 When the zygote consists of about 100 cells and looks like a hollow ball, it is called a(n) fertilized egg embryo. fetus. blastocyst. 0.25 points QUESTION 5 Which of the following events does not occur during the period of the zygote? rapid division of the cells differentiation of cells development of body structures and internal organs implantation 0.25 points QUESTION 6 The __________ is where nutrients and wastes are exchanged between the mother and the developing organism. germ disc placenta ectoderm amnion 0.25 points QUESTION 7 During the period of __________, the developing individual becomes much larger and its bodily systems begin to work. the zygote the fetus the embryo differentiation 0.25 points QUESTION 8 Most of the body structures and internal organs develop during the period of the embryo. fetus. zygote. ectoderm. 0.25 points QUESTION 9 Jamila is 28 weeks pregnant, has gone into labor, and is worried about what will happen if her baby is born now. Jamila's baby is unlikely to survive. has a chance to survive, but may have difficulty breathing and regulating his body temperature. has a chance to survive, but will not yet be able to hear. is sufficiently developed that he has an excellent chance of survival with little risk of developmental problems. 0.25 points QUESTION 10 The age of viability refers to the time since conception. age at which a baby is expected to be born. age at which a fetus can hear sounds. age at which a fetus has a chance to surviv
1. The age of viability is between 22 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.
2. Once implantation is complete, the developing organism is called an embryo.
3. About a week after conception, the fertilized egg begins to implant in the uterus.
4. Blastocyst is a zygote which consists of about 100 cells and looks like a hollow ball.
5. Implantation does not occur during the zygote period.
6. Nutrients and waste products are transferred from the mother to the developing organism through the placenta.
7. During the fetal stage, the growing individual grows significantly, and its bodily systems begin to function.
8. Most of the internal organs and body structures develop during the embryonic stage.
9. The baby, born to Jameela at 28 weeks, is likely to survive, but may have trouble breathing and regulating body temperature.
10. The age at which the fetus is likely to survive is known as the age of viability.
The point at which a fetus has the ability to survive outside the womb is known as the age of viability, which occurs between 22 and 28 weeks of prenatal development. Embryo is the term used to describe the growing creature after implantation is complete. Usually, implantation begins a week or two after conception. Significant growth occurs during the embryonic stage, and biological systems begin to function.
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5) What is the largest hierarchical level that global warming affects?
a) organism b) community c) biosphere d) population
Answer:
C) Biosphere
Explanation:
Chapter 18 Homework
I've done this before...
The largest hierarchical level that global warming affects is the biosphere, which is in Option C, as the biosphere includes all the living organisms and their interactions with each other and with their physical environment.
What is global warming?Global warming refers to the long-term increase in Earth's average surface temperature, primarily due to the release of greenhouse gases from human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation. This increase in temperature has a range of impacts on the biosphere, including altering ecological processes, changing the distribution of species, and affecting the physical environment, and it can also have a profound impact on the distribution and abundance of species.
Hence, the largest hierarchical level that global warming affects is the biosphere, which is in Option C.
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Why is the immune system necessary in
an organism?
A. without it there would be nothing to fight off infection
B. it provides structure for the body
C. the cells transfer oxygen around the body
D. the organs in it help absorb nutrients for the body
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which human body part is the epidermis of a leaf similar to?
1 lungs
2 skin
3 blood vessels
4 heart
Answer:
skin
Explanation:
skin skin skin skin skin skin
What activation energy was used to start the chemical reaction in the burning marshmallow?
Answer:
This question is incomplete
Explanation:
This question is incomplete. However, let's understand some terms
Activation energy is the minimum amount of energy required for a reaction to proceed. Under normal condition, when the activation energy is high, it takes longer for the reaction to proceed than when it is low.
The burning of marshmallow is an exothermic reaction as it involves the transfer of heat energy into the environment.
What is the origin of mitochondria and How has mitochondria evolved?
Combining the works of other scientists with their own research, Watson and Crick discovered
that two strands of DNA join together to form a(n)
a) nucleotide.
b) X in a circle.
c) double helix.
d) covalent bond.
c) double helix. Watson and Crick combined the works of other scientists with their own research to discover the structure of DNA.
They found that DNA consists of two strands that are joined together by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases. These two strands are twisted together to form a double helix structure. The double helix structure of DNA is like a twisted ladder where the sides of the ladder are the sugar-phosphate backbones and the rungs of the ladder are the nitrogenous bases. The nitrogenous bases pair up in a specific way, with adenine always pairing with thymine and guanine always pairing with cytosine. This pairing is essential for the accurate replication of DNA during cell division. The discovery of the double helix structure of DNA revolutionized the field of genetics and molecular biology and provided a framework for understanding how DNA stores and transmits genetic information. Thus, the correct answer to the question is option c) double helix.
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The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to _______. A. osmosis B. diffusion C. sodium-potassium pumps D. symports and antiports
The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to C. sodium-potassium pump
The process of active transport makes the concentration of sodium and chloride ions lower in a cell. The concentration of sodium ions is more outside of a cell.
As a membrane is more permeable to potassium ions hence a cell has a greater concentration of potassium ions as compared to the outside of the cell.
This differentiation of ions causes a membrane potential to occur due to the concentration gradient. The sodium-potassium pump is a protein that regulates the concentration of potassium to be more inside a cell that the outside. It also regulates that the concentration of sodium ions is less inside a cell.
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In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated to:____.
a. vinyl groups.
b. methyl groups.
c. hydroxyl groups.
d. glucuronide.
In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronide.
A class of enzymes called uridine-diphosphoglucuronic glucuronosyltransferase converts bilirubin to glucuronic acid inside the hepatocyte (UDPGT).
One of the many important detoxification processes used by the human body is glucuronidation. There are several distinct UDPGT isoforms, but UDPGT1A1 is the one that is physiologically significant for bilirubin glucuronidation.
The bilirubin's propionic acid side chains are modified by the enzyme by adding two glucuronide moieties. Bilirubin diglucuronide is the most common compound created under typical circumstances.
However, the majority of bilirubin may be converted as bilirubin glucuronide if the conjugation machinery is overloaded under circumstances where there is an excessive amount of bilirubin production.
Hydrogen bonds must be broken in order for bilirubin to be converted to its water-soluble form, which is necessary for liver and kidney excretion.
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Describe how technology causes change
Answer:
technology causes change because it will lead to new conclusions in science which will lead to changes in the environment
Explanation:
Question 13 1 p High-fiber diets are associated with all of the following EXCEPT reduced secretion of intrinsic factor. reduced risk of diabetes. o reduced risk of stroke. O reduced risk of heart disease. Question 14 1 pts Clayton is a 19-year-old college student. He avoids milk, because he claims drinking the beverage upsets his stomach and gives him intestinal "gas." However, he can eat yogurt and certain types of cheese without experiencing any symptoms. Based on this information, Clayton probably has "botulism poisoning. amylase deficiency. lactose intolerance. cystic fibrosis. 1 pts Question 15 Question 15 1 pts Which of the following foods has a low glycemic index (less than 70)? Apple Banana White rice Plain white bagel 1 pts Question 16 Question 16 1 pts According to scientific evidence, which of the following actions can help reduce a person's risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus? Exercising daily Smoking less than 2 packs of cigarettes/week Drinking 2 servings of alcohol daily Taking vitamin C supplements 1 pts Question 17 MacBook Question 17 1 pts Which type of diabetes is most common in the United States? Insulin-dependent diabetes Gestational diabetes Type 1 diabetes Type 2 diabetes 1 pts Question 18 Question 18 1 pts Which of the following statements is true? A healthy person's hemoglobin A1c level is greater than 7.5%. Excessive thirst and frequent urination are signs of diabetes. People who have excess body fat are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes than type 2 diabetes. To remain healthy, your fasting blood glucose level should always be at least 140 mg/dl. 1 pts Question 19 Question 19 1 pts Adrian's diet supplies only about 5% of his daily energy needs from carbohydrates. Therefore, most of his energy intake is provided by proteins and fats. As a result of following this diet, Adrian's body may go into proteolysis. lipolysis. ketosis. glycogenesis. 1 pts Question 20 Question 20 1 pts Insulin O helps glucose enter cells. stimulates cells to break down glycogen for energy. is released during fasting periods, such as between meals. increases blood glucose levels after meals.
High-fiber diets are associated with many health benefits, including reduced risk of diabetes, stroke, and heart disease.
However, high-fiber diets are not associated with reduced secretion of intrinsic factor. The stomach produces a glycoprotein called intrinsic factor that is required for the absorption of vitamin B12.
Therefore, a high-fiber diet does not affect the secretion of intrinsic factor. Additionally, a high-fiber diet can help reduce the risk of developing type 2 diabetes, stroke, and heart disease by promoting healthy digestion, reducing cholesterol levels, and helping to regulate blood sugar levels.
Hence, it is important to include a variety of high-fiber foods in your diet to help reduce the risk of these diseases.
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What are the factors that determine
the level of harm an introduced chemical
has on the enviroment?
PLEASE ANSWER QUICKLY
Please hurry this is over due!
If you are correct I will give you all the points I possibly can and brainiest!
Which of these is NOT true about the outer core?
A) It is mostly made up of iron and nickel.
B) It is mostly liquid.
C) It has a higher temperature than the inner core.
D) Atoms within it form a powerful magnetic field.
Answer:
C. It has a higher temperature than the inner core
Explanation:
The inner core is higher in temperature then the outer core.
which elemet are metal
Answer:
ELEMENT
Neptunium
Plutonium
Americium
Curium
By definition, a metal element is an element that form positive ions and has metallic bonds. Most elements on the periodic table are metals. Examples of metal elements include iron, copper, silver, mercury, lead, aluminum, gold, platinum, zinc, nickel and tin
Organic material in soil contain a substance called humus humus is defined as
A dark organic matter that form when plant and animal
B dark organic matter that forms from granites
C dark organic matter that froms from sand
Describe the difference in MPS (and hypertrophy) with overfeeding in an untrained/obese group compared to a group of trained individuals.
In an untrained/obese group, overfeeding can lead to an increase in muscle protein synthesis (MPS) and hypertrophy, but the response may be blunted compared to a group of trained individuals.
Trained individuals generally have a higher baseline level of MPS and muscle mass, which may limit the extent of MPS and hypertrophy in response to overfeeding.
In an untrained or obese group, overfeeding can provide an excess of nutrients, including protein, which can stimulate MPS and promote muscle hypertrophy. However, several factors may affect the response to overfeeding in this group. Untrained individuals may have lower baseline levels of MPS and muscle mass compared to trained individuals, which can limit the potential for substantial increases in MPS and hypertrophy.
Additionally, obesity is associated with metabolic dysregulation, such as insulin resistance and chronic inflammation, which can negatively impact muscle protein metabolism. These metabolic disturbances can impair the anabolic response to overfeeding and limit the extent of MPS and hypertrophy.
On the other hand, trained individuals who regularly engage in resistance exercise have already established a higher baseline level of MPS and muscle mass. Their muscles are more sensitive to the anabolic stimuli of overfeeding and may exhibit a greater response in terms of MPS and hypertrophy. Trained individuals also tend to have better metabolic health, which can further enhance the muscle protein synthesis response to overfeeding.
In summary, while both untrained/obese individuals and trained individuals may experience increases in MPS and hypertrophy with overfeeding, the response in the untrained/obese group may be blunted due to lower baseline levels of MPS, metabolic dysregulation, and impaired muscle protein metabolism. Trained individuals, with their higher baseline levels of MPS and muscle mass, may exhibit a more pronounced response to overfeeding in terms of MPS and hypertrophy.
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HELLPPP!!! I HAVE TILL 12:50
3. Preventing natural evolution
Which of the following is a way that minerals are used?
a industry
b. construction
c. technology
d. all of the above
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
Ο Α
OB
Ос
OD
Answer:
Your answer is all of the above, D.
Explanation:
All of the above are ways that minerals are used.
The ways by which minerals are used are as follows:
industryconstructiontechnologyWHAT ARE MINERALS?Minerals are naturally occurring substances with a definite chemical composition.
Minerals are got from the Earth crust and they include;
iron oreGoldSilverCrude oilThese minerals are used in various ways by industries, construction companies and technology etc.
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Thermodynamics
Heat is thermal energy which is passed on or transferred from one object to another. You may have experienced the many different ways heat can transfer energy; from the rays of the sun, to flow of a breeze.
100% energy in the form of solar radiation
34% reflected from clouds & dust
02% Photosvnines
Wind 1%
Evaporating Water 23%
42% towards heating surface and atmosphere
It takes eight minutes for electromagnetic waves to transfer energy from the sun to the earth. This particular type of energy transfer is known as solar radiation.
As the radiation strikes the earth, molecules within the crust of earth begin to move. As the molecules in the earth begin to collide, the process of conduction begins. If you have ever visited the beach during the warm summer months, you have probably experienced walking on very hot sand. The hot sand is the result of the sun's rays transferring heat through the collision of molecules which is known as conduction. As the land of the earth becomes heated, the molecules in the air above the land are affected. As an air mass becomes warmer, it also becomes less dense and begins to rise. As the density changes and the air mass begin to flow, the process known as convection has begun.
Answer the following questions
1. A light was left on over night on a desk. What kind of heat was being let off from the bulb?
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Solar
2. During the summer the energy from the sun causes the black top on some roads to get so hot, the tar bubbles on the surface. What kind of energy transfer causes the molecules within the black top to move?
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Potential
3. Within the local weather report, high winds are said to be moving into the area. What type of energy is responsible for the flow of energy which creates wind?
a.
Radiation
b.
Convection
C.
Conduction
d.
Potential
4. Radiation is energy which is transferred through
a. Waves
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. movement
5. Pam places a test tube containing water over a Bunsen burner and lights it. On another sheet of paper, describe the heating process of the contents of the test tube. Within your answer be sure to:
• Identify each phase of thermodynamics, including; conduction and convection
• Describe the movement of the water molecules
1) The correct answer is c. Radiation. The heat being let off from the bulb is in the form of thermal energy, which is transferred through electromagnetic waves, or radiation.
2) The correct answer is b. Conduction. The energy from the sun is transferred to the black top through radiation, but the heat causes the molecules within the black top to move through conduction, which is the transfer of heat through collisions between molecules.
3) The correct answer is b. Convection. Wind is created by the movement of air masses, which is driven by convection, the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (in this case, air).
4) The correct answer is a. Waves. Radiation is the transfer of energy through electromagnetic waves, such as visible light, infrared radiation, and ultraviolet radiation.
5) As the Bunsen burner heats the test tube, the water molecules within the test tube begin to move faster and collide with one another, causing the temperature of the water to increase. This is an example of conduction, the transfer of heat through collisions between molecules. As the water near the bottom of the test tube is heated, it becomes less dense and begins to rise, while cooler water from the top of the test tube sinks down to take its place. This is an example of convection, the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids.
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The study of sensory memory is associated with:Select one:a. Elizabeth Loftus. b. George Miller. c. George Sperling. d. Hermann Ebbinghaus
The study of sensory memory is associated with: George Sperling. The correct option is (c).
Sensory memory refers to the initial stage of memory processing that involves the brief retention of sensory information, such as visual and auditory stimuli. George Sperling conducted several experiments in the 1960s to investigate the nature and capacity of sensory memory, including the iconic memory experiment.
In this experiment, he presented participants with a matrix of letters and asked them to report as many letters as they could remember. In some trials, he presented a tone immediately after the matrix disappeared, indicating which row of letters the participants should report.
Sperling found that participants could recall most of the letters in the cued row, suggesting that sensory memory has a large capacity, but fades quickly if not attended to or encoded further. His work contributed to the understanding of the multi-store model of memory and the role of attention in memory processing.
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human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called
The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is produced by cells around the embryo, that is, trophoblastic cells that develop into the placenta, after fertilization. Its main function is to maintain the corpus luteum during the early stages of pregnancy. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that develops after the release of an egg from the ovary, that is, after ovulation. It produces progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of pregnancy in humans.
If an egg is fertilized by a sperm, the resulting embryo secretes hCG, which signals the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone. This is necessary to prevent the lining of the uterus from shedding and to maintain the pregnancy. If the corpus luteum did not receive this signal, it would degenerate after about 12 days, and progesterone levels would decline. This would cause the lining of the uterus to be shed and menstruation to occur. The levels of hCG in a woman's blood and urine can be used to diagnose pregnancy. hCG levels rise rapidly in the first few weeks of pregnancy and can be detected by a blood or urine test. After about 10 weeks of pregnancy, hCG levels start to decline and eventually level off.
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When CFCs are exposed to high levels of UV radiation, what occurs? A. The compound breaks down into nitric oxide and ozone. B. All of these C. A chlorine breaks off and forms a free radical. D. They become ionized and stick together in clumps that become part of smog.
Answer:
C. A chlorine breaks off and forms a free radical
Explanation:
When CFCs are exposed to high levels of UV radiation in the atmosphere, the CFC molecule breaks into chlorine and forms free radicals.
These free chlorine radicals then reacts with ozone molecules and breaks the ozone atom (O3) to form chlorine monoxide and oxygen (O2) molecule.
CFCs are main cause of ozone depletion in the atmosphere.
Hence, the correct option is "C".
arrows have plastic vanes or feathers that provide stability and accuracy in flight. what is the name for these vanes or feathers? fletching nock nocking point crest
The correct option is A ; Fletching , The arrows have plastic vanes or feathers at the end of it. These are known as fletchings. The purpose of these is to shift the center of pressure (COP) backwards.
COP is the point where the pressure is supposed to be concentrated(acting) on a body similar to center of gravity (CG). While the arrow is in flight it can divert from its path due to surrounding pressure.
With the help of COP we can cancel out these unwanted motions making sure the arrow follows the desired path. The COP should always be at the opposite end of CG. Since CG in the arrow is in near the tip, fletchings are attached at the end to shift the COP towards the end and thus giving the required stability to the arrow while in flight.
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Full Question ;
Arrows have plastic vanes or feathers that provide stability and accuracy in flight. What is the name for these vanes or feathers?
fletching
nock
nocking point
crest
what is the first urea cycle intermediate that will contain the labeled nitrogen?
The first urea cycle intermediate that will contain the labeled nitrogen is Carbamoyl phosphate.
The Urea cycle is a set of metabolic pathways for the disposal of nitrogen waste in mammals, including humans. Urea cycle is also known as the ornithine cycle, it is a process in which nitrogenous waste from protein metabolism is converted into urea and excreted by the kidneys, this process takes place in the liver. It includes five intermediate steps which are, carbamoyl phosphate synthesis, citrulline synthesis, arginosuccinate synthesis, arginine synthesis, and urea synthesis.
Carbamoyl phosphate is an organic compound that is produced as an intermediate compound during the urea cycle, it is also synthesized by some organisms during the production of arginine. The carbamoyl phosphate is synthesized in the mitochondria of the liver cells, it is the first intermediate compound produced in the urea cycle that contains a labeled nitrogen. Carbamoyl phosphate is produced by the reaction between ammonia and bicarbonate, catalyzed by the mitochondrial enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I. So therefore, carbamoyl phosphate plays a vital role in the urea cycle as it serves as a nitrogen donor in the formation of citrulline.
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The first urea cycle intermediate that will contain the labeled nitrogen is carbamoyl phosphate. Carboxylic acid derivatives are the main metabolic products of amino acids. Urea cycle intermediate compounds, as well as other nitrogenous substances, are created from ammonia, which is released during amino acid catabolism and some other processes.
The urea cycle intermediate can be labeled with radioactive nitrogen, and this nitrogen can be used to determine urea synthesis activity. Carbamoyl phosphate is the first urea cycle intermediate, and it is created in the mitochondria via the condensation of bicarbonate and ammonium ion in the presence of ATP, catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthase I (CPSI).The labeled nitrogen is primarily found on the first atom of carbamoyl phosphate. The label may then move to the second atom of urea if the reaction continues, depending on the labeling method employed.
The second atom of urea comes from aspartate, which is labeled using a different method. The urea cycle is the process by which urea is produced from ammonia, and it is a vital component of nitrogen metabolism in animals and humans.
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