which of the following is true about calories? group of answer choices caloric needs stay about the same during various life stages. calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food. calories are one of the basic nutrient groups. restricted-calorie diets are always safe.

Answers

Answer 1

The true statement about calories is that calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food.

Calories are used to quantify the energy provided by the food we consume, which our body then uses for various functions such as maintaining body temperature, physical activities, and other metabolic processes.

Calories are not a nutrient group but a unit of measurement used to describe the amount of energy that the body can obtain from food.

Caloric needs vary depending on an individual's age, sex, weight, height, and activity level. Caloric needs are not the same during various life stages.

Restricted-calorie diets should be approached with caution and ideally under the guidance of a healthcare professional, as they may not be safe for everyone.

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Answer 2

The true statement about calories is that they are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food. This means that the amount of energy a food provides is measured in calories. Caloric needs, however, can vary depending on a person's age, sex, weight, and physical activity level, so choices and lifestyle can affect how many calories a person needs.

It is important to note that restricted-calorie diets are not always safe and should be approached with caution under the guidance of a healthcare professional. The physical activity is the activity which we perform in our every day life along with some planned physical exercises which can help to boost endurance and strength to the body. This leads to physical fitness.

Physical fitness can be attributed by aerobic exercises as these exercises help to increase the strength of cardiovascular system.

The physical fitness with mere gardening and low-intensity physical exercises cannot achieved. As these will not involve aerobic and muscular activities, which can boost up strength and endurance.

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Related Questions

Pain in throat and loss of voice are generally a sign of

Answers

Answer:

Laryngitis

Explanation:

Answer:

"Laryngitis is contagious if it is caused by an infection. The most common signs and symptoms of laryngitis are hoarseness, loss of voice, and throat pain. Additional signs and symptoms of laryngitis in adults may include dry, sore throat, pain with swallowing, and a feeling of fullness in the throat or neck."

A patient who is experiencing blank suffers from swallowing excess amounts of air.

Answers

When you swallow excess amount of air, the patient develops Aerophagia!
-possible causes: chewing gum, drinking carbonated drinks like soda, and smoking

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why did you copy and paste this ?
Umm are you okay!?! Also what do you mean?

There are two very common suffixes –ectomy and –itis. Shoot 10 terms with these two suffixes?

Answers

The two very common suffixes –ectomy and –it that you can combine with root words to create medical terms that you’ll encounter in medical settings.

Below are 10 terms with these two suffixes:

Ten terms with suffix -ectomy: Adenectomy - surgical removal of a gland Appendectomy - surgical removal of the appendix Cardiectomy - surgical removal of the heart Laryngectomy - surgical removal of the larynxNephrectomy - surgical removal of a kidney Oophorectomy - surgical removal of an ovaryThyroidectomy - surgical removal of the thyroid Tonsillectomy - surgical removal of the tonsils

Hysterectomy - surgical removal of the uterus Gastrectomy - surgical removal of all or part of the stomach terms with suffix -itis: Arthritis - inflammation of one or more joints Bronchitis - inflammation of the bronchial tubes Dermatitis - inflammation of the skinGastritis - inflammation of the stomach Meningitis - inflammation of the meninges of the brainOsteomyelitis - inflammation of the bone marrow and surrounding bone Tonsillitis - inflammation of tonsillitis - inflammation of the colonEncephalitis - inflammation of the brain Hepatitis - inflammation of the liver.

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A nurse emergency department is assessing a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Exhibit question) a. ask the client if she has eaten foods containing thyramine b. Give regular insulin subcutaneously to the client c. Prepare the client for electroconvulsive therapy d. administer dantrolene IV bolus to the client

Answers

Option a, asking the client if she has eaten foods containing thyramine, is not relevant to the immediate care of the client and is not a priority intervention.

A nurse emergency department is assessing a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Exhibit question) a. ask the client if she has eaten foods containing thyramine b. Give regular insulin subcutaneously to the client c. Prepare the client for electroconvulsive therapy d. administer dantrolene IV bolus to the client.
When assessing a client who has major depressive disorder, it is important for the nurse in the emergency department to determine the severity of the client's symptoms and take appropriate actions. Option a, asking the client if she has eaten foods containing thyramine, is not relevant to the immediate care of the client and is not a priority intervention. Option b, giving regular insulin subcutaneously to the client, is not appropriate as insulin is not used in the treatment of major depressive disorder.
Option c, preparing the client for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), may be a necessary intervention if the client's symptoms are severe and medication management has not been effective. ECT is a medical treatment that uses electrical currents to induce a seizure in the brain, which can help alleviate symptoms of severe depression. The nurse should prepare the client by explaining the procedure, obtaining informed consent, and ensuring that the client is medically stable.
Option d, administering dantrolene IV bolus to the client, is not indicated for the treatment of major depressive disorder and is not a relevant intervention. In summary, the nurse should prioritize interventions based on the severity of the client's symptoms and prepare the client for appropriate treatment, such as electroconvulsive therapy, if necessary.

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Night blindness is caused by interference of cone function and vitamin A deficiency.

Answers

Answer:

if this is a true or false question, it is true

if you were telling us that thanks for the information

hope I was able to help you and others :)

Explanation:

Full form of the lab essay on a patient blood specimen it example of which phase a lab testing

Answers

The full form of the lab essay on a patient blood specimen is Laboratory Information System (LIS) or Laboratory Information Management System (LIMS).

It is an example of the analytical phase of lab testing, where the blood specimen is analyzed and tested for various parameters such as complete blood count, blood chemistry, and blood coagulation factors. The results obtained from the analysis of the blood specimen are recorded in the LIS/LIMS for further processing and interpretation by the healthcare provider.

As for the phase of lab testing, the lab essay on a patient blood specimen is typically part of the analytical phase of laboratory testing. The analytical phase involves performing various tests and measurements on the patient's blood sample to obtain specific laboratory results.

This phase follows the pre-analytical phase, which includes sample collection, identification, and preparation, and precedes the post-analytical phase, which involves result validation, interpretation, and reporting.

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Consider the duties of a radiologic technologist. Which of the following is the first step in performing a diagnostic imaging examination?

A position the patient
B address patient concerns
C take images of the patient
D review image results

Answers

B.) Address patient concerns
B) address the patient’s concerns

Which of the following changes in flow rate or in solute concentrations would NOT occur if the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the blood outflow would increase or remain unchanged.
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane would increase.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase

Explanation:

If the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber, there would be increase in the blood volume comes to the outflow tube per unit time. The filtration rate across the membrane would increase because the pressure in the chamber would be greater

The osmotic concentration of proteins would not be expected to increase in the dialysate fluid because proteins generally do not pass through the membrane

what is the standards wbc for a 52 year old female? ​

Answers

Answer:

7.50

Explanation:

From a report that presents normative data for white blood cell (WBC) counts and differential leukocyte counts, based on findings from NHANESI.

which of the following have contributed to declines in tobacco use in the U.S.?

Answers

High-impact anti-tobacco media campaigns are one factor that may have contributed to the decline in cigarette smoking and the use of other tobacco products.

What made tobacco use decline in the United States?

When the surgeon general issued the first study on smoking and health in 1964, things started to change. Smoking causes lung and laryngeal cancer and is a significant risk factor for conditions like cardiovascular disease, according to a landmark report that ushered in regulations that would alter the tobacco industry.

When did tobacco use decline?

Over the past century, there have been significant changes in tobacco use behaviors. Adult smoking prevalence rates started to decline from their peak reached in 1964, following a sharp rise in cigarette use rates during the first half of the 20th century.

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In the synaptic cleft, three nursing students discussed what would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane:


1) Debra suggested that Ca++ would have to be missing to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.


2) Larry stated that Ca++ would have to be missing because it is the neurotransmitter that takes the messages from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.


3) Timothy thought that the secretory vesicles would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane since it contains the neurotransmitter responsible for taking the message from one membrane to the next.

(HELP NEEDED ASAP. THANK U SO MUCH)

Answers

Synapses are the communication links between neurons. The synaptic cleft, which is a space between the presynaptic axon terminal and the postsynaptic dendrite that is created when an action potential contacts. Thus, option C is correct.

What pre-synaptic to the post-synaptic membrane?

Timothy reasoned that since the secretory vesicles contain the neurotransmitter necessary for transferring the message from one membrane to the next.

They would have to be absent in order to stop the action potential from travelling from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.

Therefore, The presynaptic terminal, is where neurotransmitters are released from the neuron (often a spine).

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Which statement best explains the error in Anna’s chart?

Answers

pls attach a photo or somthing

Answer:

I believe it's C

Explanation:

On Edge <3

Describe how and why destin sealers are used in the restoration process

Answers

The devastation of a fire can wreak havoc on a building and significant work will be required to restore it.

A nurse instructing a client about using an insulin pump should explain that the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) increases with the use of a pump because...-The pump is removed for bathing-Insulin is injected continuously-The pump uses intermediate-acting insulin-The tubing could become occluded

Answers

The nurse should explain that the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) increases with the use of an insulin pump because the pump is removed for bathing.

The insulin pump is designed to deliver a continuous supply of insulin to the client, mimicking the basal insulin secretion of a healthy pancreas. When the pump is disconnected, there is a temporary interruption in insulin delivery, which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels if not managed properly. During this time, the client is at a higher risk of developing DKA, a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high blood glucose levels, ketone production, and acidosis.

In addition to the risk associated with removing the pump, the nurse should also educate the client about other potential factors that can increase the risk of DKA when using an insulin pump. For example, if the tubing connecting the pump to the infusion site becomes occluded, insulin delivery may be compromised, leading to hyperglycemia and ketone production. It is important for the client to regularly check the pump tubing for any kinks, blockages, or disconnections to ensure proper insulin flow.

Furthermore, the nurse should clarify that insulin pumps typically use rapid-acting insulin rather than intermediate-acting insulin. Rapid-acting insulin allows for more precise control of blood glucose levels and can be adjusted to meet the individual's needs throughout the day. The use of intermediate-acting insulin is more commonly associated with multiple daily injections rather than insulin pump therapy.

Overall, it is crucial for the nurse to provide comprehensive education to the client regarding the risks associated with insulin pump use, including the importance of maintaining continuous insulin delivery, preventing tubing occlusions, and being mindful when temporarily disconnecting the pump. By understanding these factors and implementing appropriate measures, the client can minimize the risk of DKA and effectively manage their diabetes with an insulin pump.

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Felicia is working with a patient who just had gastric bypass. while felicia helps take care of the patient after surgery, what other member of the medical team will mostl likely come visit her?

Answers

Answer:

Dietition

Explanation:

After a gastric bypass, most of the time a patient will receieve couseling and lifestyle advice from a dietition.

________ diseases are those that involve the immune system functioning erroneously, such as when the body mistakes its own healthy cells as invaders.

Answers

Auto-immune diseases are those that involve the immune system functioning erroneously, such as when the body mistakes its own healthy cells as invaders.

The immune system misidentifies a portion of your body, such as your joints or skin, as alien when you have an autoimmune disease. Autoantibodies, which are proteins released by the body, assault healthy cells. Some autoimmune disorders only affect a single organ. The pancreas is harmed by type 1 diabetes. The entire body is impacted by other illnesses like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).A disorder known as an autoimmune illness occurs when your immune system accidentally targets your body. Normally, the immune system protects the body from viruses and bacteria. It sends out an army of fighter cells to attack these foreign invaders as soon as it detects them.

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Mrs. Pederson is a 74 year old who presents for a routine blood pressure follow up visit. Her blood pressure is well controlled, but on review of systems she reports dry mouth of several years duration that has acutely worsened over the past 2 months. She quit smoking after she developed thyroid cancer that required surgery and neck radiation for cure. She has been drinking more water than usual, but it only improves her symptoms for a few minutes. She drinks wine with dinner and sometimes before bed for insomnia. On physical examination this is the appearance of her tongue:

Answers

Xerostomia is that disease or disorder which is responsible for drying of mouth.

What is dry mouth?

Dry mouth is also called xerostomia. It is refers to a condition in which the salivary glands in mouth don't make enough saliva to keep mouth wet. This disease occur often due to the side effect of certain medicines, aging issues or as a result of radiation therapy for cancer.

So we can conclude that xerostomia is that disease or disorder which is responsible for drying of mouth.

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Why would 131I be used to specifically destroy the thyroid gland and have minimal effect on other cells And tissues in the body

Answers

Answer:

The thyroid gland absorbs almost all of the iodine in the body. When radioactive iodine (RAI), also known as I-131, is given to the body as a liquid or capsule, it becomes concentrated in thyroid cells. Radiation can kill the thyroid gland and any other thyroid cells or tissues (including cancer cells) that absorb iodine, without damaging any other organs.

Explanation:

The thyroid gland is an organ that belongs to the endocrine system and its function is to synthesize hormones that are responsible for controlling the body's metabolism, this gland has an important characteristic and that is that the hormones it produces have a unique chemical composition due to They are the only hormones that contain iodine in their structure, this in turn is essential for its functioning because the body does not synthesize it and it must be consumed in the diet. When a small dose of the radiopharmaceutical iodine 131 (Sodium Iodide 131I) is consumed, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and concentrated by the thyroid gland, where it begins to destroy cancer cells in the gland. 131I quickly attaches itself to thyroid cells to destroy them, but continues to emit radioactivity for a long time: it takes 8 days to halve. The beta radiation particles of 131I, which we call radioiodine or radioactive iodine, have a range of 2mm and act for a long time in a constant way. Fortunately, the body's metabolism quickly expels iodine through the urine, so that in one day the amount of iodine has decreased considerably.

the medical term for a specialist who studies the diseases of the eye and is a medical doctor is:

Answers

This is an ophthalmologist.

Help with this problem please!! Math Allied Health

Help with this problem please!! Math Allied Health

Answers

Answer:

not completly sure but i think it .5 and .25

Explanation:

The combining form for the organ covering the body

Answers

this will be the skin i’m pretty sure

the health care provider orders the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube. when gathering the equipment for the insertion, what will the nurse select?

Answers

The nurse should select the following equipment when gathering for the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube: Single lumen nasogastric tube is a flexible tube that is passed through the nose or mouth, down the esophagus and into the stomach.

It is commonly used to feed and medicate patients who are unable to swallow or to remove substances from the stomach. The nurse should select the following equipment when gathering for the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube: Sterile gloves Lubricating jelly Sterile container or package containing the nasogastric tube Syringe and stethoscope.

Water-soluble lubricant Tissue Paper tape to secure the tube Measure to verify the length of insertion A syringe should also be available to inject air into the tube to confirm the proper placement of the tube in the stomach. The following terms are used in the answer: lumen nasogastric tube.

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whats the consistency of sperm

Answers

Healthy semen is usually a cloudy-white or grey fluid with a jelly-like consistency

the nurse provides care for a client who is prescribed propranolol. what information fond in the client's histoyr causes the nurse to hold the

Answers

the nurse provides care for a client who is prescribed propranolol. The client had asthma since childhood fond in the client's history causes the nurse to hold the client's medication.

What is propranolol?

A beta blocker called propranolol lowers blood pressure and heart rate while increasing blood flow. Angina, hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, MI prophylaxis, and other circulatory diseases are all treated with it. The treatment of anxiety and migraine headaches are examples of off-label usage. A beta blocker would be anticipated to be provided to a client who has a history of a MI.

Bronchospasm is a negative outcome. As a result, asthma is contraindicated for propranolol.

Thus, the client had asthma since childhood fond in the client's history causes the nurse to hold the client's medication.

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1. What have you learned so far in this course that will help you conduct effective health assessments?

Answers

Answer: I learned how to take a bullet out of someone.

Explanation:

In order to perform abdominal surgery without large incisions, surgeons use to be able to see.
A smaller incision in the body leads to .
In the field of cardiology, are used to open clogged arteries in the heart.

Answers

1. Laparoscopic incision?
2. Less risk for infection, shorter healing time.
3. Stent

Answer:catheter ablation? Is that what you’re asking about?

Explanation:

a 20 bp duplex with __________ content at __________ will have the highest absorbance at 260 nm.

Answers

A 20 bp duplex with high guanine-cytosine (GC) content at denatured state will have the highest absorbance at 260 nm.

The absorbance of nucleic acids at 260 nm is related to their base composition. Guanine and cytosine (GC) absorb more strongly at 260 nm than adenine and thymine (AT).

Therefore, a duplex with a higher GC content will have a higher absorbance at 260 nm. Additionally, when the duplex is in a denatured state, the individual strands separate, and the bases are more exposed, resulting in an increase in absorbance at 260 nm.
To achieve the highest absorbance at 260 nm, a 20 bp duplex should have a high GC content and be in a denatured state.

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One reason users store data and information using cloud storage is to view time-critical data and images immediately while away from a main office or location. Group of answer choices True False

Answers

True. One reason users store data and information using cloud storage is to have immediate access to time-critical data and images while away from a main office or location.

Cloud storage allows users to store their data remotely and access it from anywhere with an internet connection. This means that even when users are not physically present in their main office or location, they can still retrieve and view important data and images in real-time.

This capability is particularly beneficial for users who require immediate access to time-sensitive information while they are on the go or working remotely.

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Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by

a
unwarranted suspiciousness and mistrust of other people
b
unusual preoccupation with rules and schedules
c
instability revolving around problems of mood and thought processes
d
lack of interest in social relationships

Answers

A) Unwarranted suspiciousness and mistrust of other people
Hey will you please help me with my essay and I’ll get back to yours please ASAP
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