Answers
Histoplasma does not cause pneumonia. Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum, which is found in the soil and dust of bird and bat droppings.
Pneumonia is a serious and potentially fatal infection of the lungs that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. Pneumonia causes fluid and pus to accumulate in the air sacs in the lungs, leading to breathing difficulties.
The following are some of the most common causes of pneumonia:
Streptococcus pneumoniae, a bacterium that causes pneumococcal pneumoniaHaemophilus influenza, a bacterium that causes Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) pneumoniaLegionella pneumophila, the bacterium that causes Legionnaires' diseaseMycoplasma pneumonia, is a type of "atypical" bacteria that can cause mild pneumonia in young adults and childrenRSV (respiratory syncytial virus), is a common cause of pneumonia in infants and young children.Learn more about pneumonia at https://brainly.com/question/27242583
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Related Questions
what is the standard formula developed by the American society of anesthesiologists for payment of anesthesia services?
Answers
If one half of the DNA ladder is above sequence, what is the other side of the ladder’s DNA sequence?
Answers
Calcium regulation occurs in:
a.) Compact Bone
b.) Spongy Bone
c.) Medullary Cavity
d.) Periosteum
Answers
Answer:
I think it'smedullary cavity
Answer:
C
Explanation:
it is what it is
what are some key elements of the social model of
care?
Answers
Explanation:
1. know your loved one or client:Be aware of their lives preference and desire
2. Communicate for success
The social model of care focuses on addressing systemic barriers and promoting a society that values diversity, inclusion, and social justice. It aims to empower individuals and promote their rights, dignity, and quality of life within their social context.
Some key elements of the social model of care include:
Social inclusion: Fostering a sense of belonging and actively including individuals in all aspects of society, irrespective of their abilities or disabilities. This involves promoting equal opportunities and challenging discrimination and social barriers.Person-centered approach: Placing the person at the center of care, acknowledging their autonomy, preferences, and choices. It emphasizes the importance of involving individuals in decision-making processes and tailoring care to their specific needs and goals.Collaboration and participation: Encouraging active involvement and collaboration between individuals, their families, caregivers, and the wider community. It recognizes the value of collective efforts and partnerships in providing holistic care and support.Access to support services and resources: Ensuring equitable access to necessary support services, resources, and accommodations. This includes physical accessibility, assistive technologies, communication aids, and appropriate healthcare and rehabilitation services.Social and environmental factors: Recognizing the impact of social, cultural, and environmental factors on individuals' well-being. This includes addressing social determinants of health, promoting social cohesion, and creating inclusive environments that enable individuals to fully participate in society.To know more about social cohesion
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write down examples of the 7c's of communication
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Answer:
Clarity: Simplicity & Organization.
Conciseness: Get to the Point.
Concreteness: Specifics Instead of Generalizations.
Completeness: No Necessary Information is Missing.
Correctness: Facts & Proofreading.
Courtesy: Stepping Into Audience's Shoes.
Consideration: Scientists are People, Too
Explanation:
Do you think an MA should know how to do coding, billing and insurance verification? Why or why not?
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8. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse, family members
account for a small percentage of abuse against elders.
_True False
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Many elders experience abuse from their family. This Can happen outside of nursing homes or inside when family visits
Is 42 years old and pregnant with her first child. Her doctor thinks she ought to have a procedure called amniocentesis to harvest fetal cells for genetic analysis. He tells Mary that he will use a large needle inserted through her abdomen to obtain these cells from the amniotic fluid around the baby. He tells her that he will be able to visualize the needle so she needn't worry about sticking her baby. She decides that she still thinks it is dangerous because of the radioactivity her baby will be exposed to. Need she be concerned, is the Ultrasound dangerous to her, is it going to subject her to radiation, is it harmful to her fetus. Discuss?
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Answer: Actually, I do not think it is harmful to the Fetus. Also, the doctor would never tell the parents something that would not help the kids or even the babies. If he would tell a parent this knowing thats its gonna kill the baby.. he would go to jail and I dont think a Doctor would do that. Thats why I think It is not harmful or dangerous. I trust doctors.
for the next test cycle, another idea is to have nurse peters test the phq-9 form again with five english-speaking patients in one afternoon. this time, a back-up nurse will be available who can step in if nurse peters has to leave for any reason. what do you think of this idea?
Answers
The idea of having Nurse Peters test the PHQ-9 form again with five English-speaking patients in one afternoon, while having a back-up nurse available, is a practical approach to ensure continuity and efficiency in administering the tests.
Having Nurse Peters administer the PHQ-9 form with the support of a back-up nurse is a sound idea for several reasons.
Firstly, by conducting the tests in one afternoon, it allows for a concentrated and focused effort, maximizing the use of resources and minimizing disruptions to patient schedules. Secondly, having a back-up nurse available provides a contingency plan in case Nurse Peters is unable to complete the tests due to unforeseen circumstances. This ensures that the testing process can continue smoothly without significant delays or the need to reschedule appointments. Additionally, having the same nurse administer the tests again helps maintain consistency in the approach, minimizing potential variations in instructions or interactions that could affect the validity and reliability of the results.Overall, this idea demonstrates a proactive approach to efficiently conduct the tests while accounting for potential challenges that may arise.
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the four steps for testing a change are:
Answers
The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered.
An improvement project includes four phases: planning, preparation, execution, and closeout. In order to improve teamwork and help organizations run more efficiently, researcher Bruce Wayne Tuckman published "Tuckman's Stages" in 1965.It discussed the four developmental phases that all teams experience throughout time: training, forming, norming, and performing. Write out a work plan, share anecdotes to illustrate why the QI project is personally relevant to people, and create a team roster so everyone is aware of who is on the team and how to contact one another.
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Biological safety cabinets are used when compounding
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Select the structure for octane.
Answers
Answer:
b
Explanation:
how does smoking affects human body
Answers
Answer:
Your lungs which equals lung cancer
For five different organ systems in the human body, identify a specialized cell type found in that system.
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2. muscle cells
3. red blood cells
4. sperm cells
5. leukocyte
im not 100% sure but i hope this helps :)
Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
What are specialized cells?
Microscale cells make up the human body. Together, these elements of life act harmoniously to create the human body. While numerous cells make up basic biological components like tissues, some perform more difficult and specialized activities.
These specialized cells have been carefully created to carry out the tasks for which they were created. The distinct ways that each of these cell types is created and functions make it possible for the cell to perform the specific bodily function for which it was designed.
Within the human brain, neurons are specialized cells that convey messages. These cells are available in a variety of sizes and forms. While these cells do have certain characteristics in common with other cells, they also possess unique traits that allow them to carry out the required communication duties.
Movement is made possible by muscle cells. The banded fibers that make up these cylindrical cells enable contraction.
Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout the body, supplying it to organs that need this vital gas. These cells lack a number of components that are typically seen in cells, including as mitochondria and a nucleus.
In order to reproduce as humans, specialized sperm cells are required. The nucleus makes up the majority of these cells.
Leukocyte cells function to prevent infections in the human body. When an infection occurs, these cells locate and eliminate germs within the body.
Therefore, Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
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transmission is a term used to describe the direct or indirect transmission of a pathogen through a population. hint: this term is the opposite of the term used to describe the transmission of a pathogen from mother to offspring across the placenta.
Answers
The term used to describe the transmission of a pathogen from mother to offspring across the placenta is vertical transmission.
This type of transmission occurs when a pathogen is transmitted from a parent to its offspring during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
In contrast, transmission refers to the spread of a pathogen through a population, either directly or indirectly. Direct transmission occurs when a pathogen is transmitted from one individual to another through physical contact, such as touching or kissing. Indirect transmission occurs when a pathogen is transmitted through a nonliving object, such as a doorknob or a contaminated surface.
Vertical transmission and transmission are opposite terms as they describe two different modes of pathogen spread. Vertical transmission is a form of transmission that occurs from parent to offspring, while transmission refers to the spread of a pathogen through a population.
Understanding the modes of transmission is important for preventing the spread of infectious diseases and developing effective control measures.
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Why can't people below 16 get the coronavirus vaccine? Explain.
Answers
Answer:
they are too young.
Explanation:
identify the sources of support for you in your job
Answers
Answer:
Profit and passive income
99291, 99292, 99292, 99292the four types of medical decision making, in order of complexity from most to least complex, are as follows
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The following are listed in order of complexity, least to most difficult Simple complexity, little complexity, a moderate amount of complexity, and extreme complexity.
What constitutes making medical decisions?Medical making decisions (MDM) is the most crucial of the three elements needed to grade an E/M service and it represents the supplier's cognitive labor when seeing a patient. When establishing medical necessity, the major factor for payment, certain payers focus primarily on MDM.
What does simple medical decision-making entail?The simplest form of medical decision-making is straightforward medical decision-making. It is impossible to be ineligible. For the very, very routine meetings, including such a level 2 offices follow-up (99212) or even a level 1 small office patient, this amount of complexity is necessary (99201).
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Procedure 6-1 Coach Patients Regarding Health Maintenance Disease Prevention, and Treatment Plans while Considering Cultural Diversity Developmental Life Stages, and Communication Barriers
Answers
The healthcare provider coaches patients regarding health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans while considering cultural diversity, developmental life stages, and communication barriers.
How does the healthcare provider coach patients regarding health maintenance?The healthcare provider engages in effective patient education to coach patients on various aspects of health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans. They take into account the diverse cultural backgrounds of patients, understanding that cultural beliefs and practices may influence health behaviors and preferences.
They also consider developmental life stages, tailoring the information and approach to suit the specific needs of different age groups.
Moreover, the healthcare provider recognizes communication barriers that may exist, such as language differences, low health literacy, or limited access to healthcare resources. They employ appropriate strategies to overcome these barriers, such as using interpreters, providing culturally sensitive materials, and using plain language to enhance understanding.
By addressing cultural diversity, developmental life stages, and communication barriers, the healthcare provider ensures that patient education is inclusive, effective, and tailored to individual needs, promoting better health outcomes and patient engagement.
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which character of the 12 step program distinguishes it from other programs
Answers
Medicare Part D covers
A. occupational therapy visits.
B. hospital inpatient stays.
C. physician surgeries.
D. prescription drugs.
Answers
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Medicare Part D, the prescription drug benefit, is the part of Medicare that covers most outpatient prescription drugs.
Can the pupillary response be inhibited?
Answers
The pupillary response may be inhibited by problems with the photomotor reflex and/or specialized drugs.
What does pupillary reaction mean?The pupillary light reflex or photomotor reflex is part of a standard neurological examination. It evaluates the constriction reflex of the pupil, called miosis, in view of the incidence of direct light in the eye to be tested.
With this information, we can conclude that Pupillary response varies the size of the pupil of the eye via the iris dilator muscle, which dilates in response to a stressor.
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the patient's heparin is infusing at 28 ml/hr on an infusion pump. the bag of fluid is mixed 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml d5w. what hourly dose of heparin is the patient receiving?
Answers
The hourly dose of heparin the patient is receiving can be calculated as follows:40 units/ml * 28 ml/hr = 1,120 units/hr
First, we need to determine the concentration of heparin in the solution, which is 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units/ml.
Next, we can calculate the volume of heparin the patient is receiving per hour by multiplying the concentration of heparin (40 units/ml) by the flow rate (28 ml/hr):
40 units/ml * 28 ml/hr = 1,120 units/hr
So, the patient is receiving an hourly dose of 1,120 units of heparin. It is important to regularly monitor the patient's response to the heparin infusion, including frequent monitoring of their blood coagulation status and any potential side effects, to ensure that the patient is receiving an appropriate and safe dose.
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What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?
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Answer:
Explanation:
I don’t get any answer
the nurse is caring for a client after cardiac surgery. what laboratory result will lead the nurse to suspect possible renal failure?
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A serum BUN of 70 mg/dL will lead the nurse to suspect possible renal failure.
Following heart surgery, these four laboratory findings should always be evaluated. Included should be serum osmolality (N = >800 mOsm/kg). A BUN level of more than 21 mg/dL is considered abnormal, and one of more than 60 mg/dL is a sign of renal failure. It is necessary to produce more urine than 30 mL each hour. The normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.005-1.030. The range of normal serum creatinine levels is 0.5-1.2 mg/dL.
The blood is filtered by the kidneys, which also eliminate poisons. These poisons are transported to the bladder, where micturition removes them. Renal failure refers to the inability of the kidneys to eliminate toxins from the body.
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Lack of the spleen in 48-years-old male is typical for
Answers
Answer:
lack of blood supply
Explanation:
Which of the following is occurring during ventricular diastole?
(a) The AV valves are closed
(b) The SL valves are open
(c) Ventricular ejection
(d) The ventricles are passively filling
(e) The ventricles are passively filling and atria are contracting.
Answers
During ventricular diastole, the correct option is (e) The ventricles are passively filling and the atria are contracting.
During ventricular diastole, the ventricles are relaxed and undergo relaxation and filling. At this time, the atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles. This is known as atrial systole or atrial contraction. The AV valves (tricuspid and mitral valves) are open to allow blood flow from the atria into the ventricles. The SL valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) are closed during ventricular diastole since the ventricles are not actively contracting.
Therefore, the correct answer is (e) The ventricles are passively filling, and the atria are contracting.
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In general, a ________-minute wait is accepted by most patients.
30
40
50
20
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
20
(K12) Question 1 (1 point)
How does a fungus get food?
Question 1 options:
A. both autotroph and heterotroph
B. autotroph
C. Neither. It doesn't need food!
D. heterotroph
Answers
Answer:
D. Heterotroph
Explanation:
Fungi can't make their own food/energy like plants, they must extract energy from other living or dead things.
Why is anaphylaxis dangerous?
A
The immune system stops working, leaving a person open to infection.
B
The histamine released during anaphylaxis depletes the person's energy levels.
n
The inflammation and smooth muscle contraction can make breathing difficult.
D
The lymphatic system collapses during anaphylaxis.