Drugs that are needed to be discontinued before surgery to decrease the risk of venous thromboembolism are:-
-Vitamin C
-Oral contraceptive drugs
-Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
The term "venous thromboembolism" (VTE) refers back to the development of a blood clot (thrombus) in a vein which could flow away from its website of starting place and tour through the blood, a circumstance known as an embolism.
Deep vein thrombosis, which most frequently influences the legs, is when a thrombus paperwork there. Evaluates the evidence supporting the effectiveness of number one preventative measures and venous thromboembolism risk. It offers guidelines for the clinically and economically great ways to decrease the chance of venous thromboembolism whilst taking into consideration affected person options and capacity dangers associated with numerous VTE prophylaxis alternatives.Learn more about venous thromboembolism here:-
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What do cosmetologists do? Select all that apply.
Cut and style hair.
Diagnose skin cancers.
Perform cosmetic treatments.
Study the immune system.
Apply makeup.
Ans: A, C, E
Answer:
a, c, and e
Explanation:
Cosmetology is the art and science beautifying the hair, nails, and skin. A cosmetologist is an expert in applying cosmetic procedures, therapies, and treatments to beautify one's outer appearance., and implementing cosmetic treatments to people's hair, skin, and nails.
shortly after administering an iv medication, the person you are caring for starts to complain of itching and feeling flushed. on assessment, you notice hives have begun to form on their chest. what is your best intervention?
In a clinical situation, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider or follow established protocols and policies for managing adverse reactions to medication.
However, based on general principles of nursing care, here are some possible interventions that may be appropriate in this scenario:
Stop the administration of the IV medication immediately, if it is still ongoing.Assess the person's vital signs and respiratory status to ensure there are no signs of anaphylaxis or severe allergic reaction, such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the face or tongue, or a drop in blood pressure.Notify the healthcare provider and report the observed symptoms, including the itching, flushing, and hives, as well as any changes in vital signs or respiratory status.Stay with the person and provide reassurance and emotional support. Keep them calm and encourage deep breathing.Administer any prescribed medications or interventions as ordered by the healthcare provider, such as antihistamines or epinephrine, if appropriate.Document the incident thoroughly, including the timing, symptoms, interventions, and response to treatment, in the person's medical record.It is important to remember that the specific interventions and management for an adverse reaction to medication may vary depending on the individual, the type of medication, and the severity of the reaction. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider and following established protocols is essential for appropriate and safe care.
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Grady has an inflamed knee from doing a lot of physical exercise the day before. He stops by the pharmacy to find a drug to relieve the inflammation and asks the pharmacist to recommend a drug. The pharmacist asks Grady if he has a history of peptic ulcers. Which best describes why the pharmacist needs to know this?
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-drug interaction by taking aspirin, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking aspirin, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-drug interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
Answer: So the pharmacist can prescribe him something that won't upset the stomach acids in his stomach the causes the ulcers
Explanation:
Answer: A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication
Explanation: I have a peptic ulcer
Which factor is difficult to assess in a cost–benefit analysis?
a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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You are providing care to a patron who started choking on some food. The victim becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do first
The victim becomes unresponsive than firstly you should lower the victim to the ground and begin CPR starting with chest compressions.
Choking is a true medical emergency that requires fast, appropriate action by anyone available to save a choking person's life. Choking can beget a simple coughing fit, but complete blockage of the airway may lead to death.
Cardiopulmonary reanimation (CPR) is an exigency procedure conforming of casket condensing frequently combined with artificial ventilation in an trouble to manually save complete brain function until farther measures are taken to restore robotic blood rotation and breathing in a person who's in cardiac arrest.
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how knowledge of histologyvan help develop regenrative
Answer:
Histology is the science responsible for studying all of the fundamental aspects of organic tissues.
the loss of dopamine receptors caused by chronic cocaine abuse is equivalent to:
The loss of dopamine receptors caused by chronic cocaine abuse is equivalent to downregulation or decreased expression of dopamine receptors.
Prolonged exposure to cocaine can lead to adaptations in the brain's reward system, specifically affecting dopamine signaling. Dopamine receptors, which are responsible for receiving dopamine signals, can become less abundant or less sensitive due to long-term cocaine use.
This downregulation of dopamine receptors contributes to the development of tolerance and the need for higher doses of cocaine to achieve the desired effects. It also plays a role in the withdrawal symptoms and cravings experienced during cocaine addiction.
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Full Question: the loss of dopamine receptors caused by chronic cocaine abuse is equivalent to: __________
what is a chicken nugget?
Why is marijuana illegal in so many states?
Answer:
Majority of pot smokers were minorities, including African Americans, and that marijuana had a negative effect on these “degenerate races,” such as inducing "violence" or causing "insanity"
Explanation:
Which tissue is found directly underneath epithelium?
Answer:
The basement membrane
Explanation:
what is tiling of soil and why it is important
For a food to be a "good source" of a nutrient it must contain more than 30% of the Daily Value for that nutrient per serving.
A. True
B. False
B. False - To be a good source, a nutrient must contain 10-19% of the Daily Value per serving. A requirement is the smallest amount of a nutrient that maintains a defined level of health. Numerous factors, including age and sex, influence an individual's nutrient needs.
Water. Water is probably the most important essential nutrient that a person needs. A person can only survive a few days without consuming water. Experts advise adult consumers to consume adequate amounts of calcium, that is, 1,000mg or 100%DV in a daily 2,000-calorie diet. This advice is often given in milligrams (mg), but the Nutrition Facts label only lists a %DV for calcium. A healthy diet includes the following:
Fruit, vegetables, legumes (e.g. lentils and beans), nuts, and whole grains (e.g. unprocessed maize, millet, oats, wheat, and brown rice).
At least 400 g (i.e. five portions) of fruit and vegetables per day (2), excluding potatoes, sweet potatoes, cassava, and other starchy roots.
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Define the principal criteria that might be used for locating each of the following facilities:
hospital – minimize distance traveled, response time, labor supply and skills, communications capability, and accessibility to target population and good roads
chemical factory – water supply, transportation availability; labor costs and skills, tax incentives, zoning laws, regulatory policies, not close to population centers
fire station – distance to business, response time, multiple communication capabilities, proximity to key buildings such as schools and high rise buildings, and housing centers
coffee shop– closeness to high density traffic areas such as skyscrapers, city downtowns; good highway access, convenient, safe area, adequate utilities, plenty of parking spaces, drive-in service window for speed
regional automobile parts warehouse – transportation access, land costs, taxes, labor supply and skills, zoning laws, building and inventory taxes, minimize distance input and outbound goods travel
Q: A good answer to someone offering you ADHD medicine is:
If someone offers you ADHD medication, it's important to consider the potential risks and benefits of taking it.
The decision to take medication should be made in consultation with a healthcare professional who can evaluate your individual needs and determine the most appropriate treatment options.
If you are not diagnosed with ADHD, it's important to remember that taking medication intended for someone else can be dangerous and even illegal. It's also important to consider whether or not medication is necessary for managing symptoms. Non-pharmacological treatments like therapy, exercise, and lifestyle changes can be effective for some people.
If you do have ADHD and are considering medication, it's important to understand the potential side effects and how it may interact with other medications you are taking. Ultimately, the decision to take medication is a personal one and should be made with careful consideration of your individual needs and circumstances.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the adrenal gland?
a surgeon is supervising two residents in two adjoining outpatient procedure rooms. one patient has the removal of a soft tissue tumor of the shoulder. the surgeon left after the removal while the resident performed the repair. the surgeon then supervised another resident. the resident had prepped the patient for surgery. the surgeon was present for the repair of an inguinal hernia and left before the closure was complete. what procedures are billed by the surgeon? a. nothing is billed, because the teaching surgeon left before the procedures were completed. b. the excision of the soft tissue tumor removal. c. the excision of the soft tissue tumor removal and the hernia repair. d. the hernia repair.
'The excision of the soft tissue tumor removal' was billed by the surgeon.
What exactly is tumor?
A tumor is basically an abnormal growth of cells. It can be either benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous). Benign tumors are common and do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors can spread to other parts of the body and cause serious health problems.
The surgeon is the one responsible for supervising the procedure, and their presence is required for the excision of the soft tissue tumor removal. Therefore, the surgeon bills for the excision of the soft tissue tumor removal. The surgeon does not bill for the repair of the inguinal hernia as they left before it was completed, so the resident performing the repair would be the one responsible for billing for it.
Hence, option B is correct.
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explain why a scientist must conduct trials in humans before this procedure becomes a widespread medical treatment
Answer:
testing on animals and on humans are different
Explanation:
If the testing through animals and/or artificial means turns out well and safe, then it is safe for human testing to work out how it will affect humans since we have a different physiology from animals.
Answer:
Scientists need to repeat studies many times to prove their hypothesis. This single study only shows an effect in mice. The effect in humans may differ, so scientists need to conduct trials in humans to see whether the results are the same.
Explanation:
i got it from the official site where the question originated from, it was the sample answer, youre welcome, and thank you to the person below/above my answer, because their question is also right. <3B r a i n l y e s t ?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Answer:pogchamp am i right
Explanation:
Because of the size and number of kidney stones present, Mr.
Wilkinson was unable to pass the kidney stones. Describe a treatment available for Mr. Wilkinson. When Mr. Wilkinson was discharged from the hospital, he was given a list of dietary limitations. What might this list have included?
Explanation:
One treatment available for Mr. Wilkinson would be a procedure called shock wave lithotripsy, which uses shock waves to break up the kidney stones into smaller pieces that can be passed more easily. Another treatment option would be ureteroscopy, where a small scope is used to remove the stones from the kidney or ureter.
The list of dietary limitations given to Mr. Wilkinson may have included a restriction on foods high in oxalates, such as spinach, beets, and nuts, as these can increase the risk of kidney stones. He may also have been advised to limit his intake of animal protein, salt, and sugary beverages, and to drink plenty of water to help flush out the remaining kidney stones.
Prefixes, Roots, and Suffixes
Identifying Prefixes
Which of these word parts are examples of prefixes?
a. artho
b. inter-
c. -iosis
d. tensi
e. -oma
f. tri-
g. poly-
Answer:
B. Inter-
F. Tri-
G. Poly-
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Gene Matson, a 75-year old male, was brought to the hospital by his son following the acute onset of left-side numbness and weakness that began one hour prior to admission. His son stated that two weeks prior to admission Gene had a single, 12-hour episode of garbled speech and left-side and arm weakness. Following the first episode, the right carotid angiogram was performed and showed a narrowing of the carotid at about mid-way. Questions: 1. What abnormality does the angiogram show? What kind of lesion a "narrowing" may represent? 2. Relate the findings in the angiogram to the patient's past and present neurological problems in terms of: a. How the vascular lesion could lead to neurological problems. b. What specific blood vessel in the brain must have been affected by the process "a" to account for his symptoms. Past medical history of Mr. Matson: The patient has a history of moderate hypertension treated with calcium channel blockers. History of hypercholesterolemia also. Mr. Matson smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for forty years, and drank approximately four beers per day for severe years. Physical Exam: Temperature: 37 degrees Celsius Pulse 72 Respiration rate: 12 Blood pressure 170/100 Neurological exam: Showed left-sided hemiplegia (paralysis on one side) and hemianesthesia (numbness on one side) Question: 1 . What are pertinent aspects of the patient's past medical history that are risk factors for his current medical problem? 2. Damage to which lobe(s) accounts for the patient's sensory and motor deficits? 3. Give an explanation for why the damage to the right side of the brain may cause sensory and motor problems on the contralateral (opposite) side of the body. 4. Is there a surgical procedure that might have prevented the current episode? if so, what is the procedure called?
The narrowing of the left carotid artery led to the reduction of blood supply to the left side of the brain, which caused the left-side numbness and weakness.
1. The angiogram shows a narrowing in the carotid at about mid-way. This narrowing of the carotid represents a stenosis lesion.
2. How the vascular lesion could lead to neurological problems:
When the stenosis or narrowing lesion happens, it reduces the blood supply to the brain.
The brain is dependent on a continuous and adequate supply of blood to work properly, and a reduction of blood supply to the brain may cause neurological problems such as left-side numbness and weakness.
b. What specific blood vessel in the brain must have been affected by the process "a" to account for his symptoms: The left hemisphere of the brain must have been affected by the narrowing of the carotid artery.
The narrowing of the left carotid artery led to the reduction of blood supply to the left side of the brain, which caused the left-side numbness and weakness.
1. Mr. Matson's medical history that could have increased his risk factors for his current medical problem includes smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and moderate hypertension treated with calcium channel blockers.
2. Damage to the right parietal and temporal lobes accounts for the patient's sensory and motor deficits.
3. The damage to the right side of the brain causes sensory and motor problems on the contralateral (opposite) side of the body because the crossing over of the sensory and motor fibers happens in the medulla oblongata.
When the right side of the brain is affected, the left side of the body is affected.
4. Yes, the surgical procedure that might have prevented the current episode is a carotid endarterectomy (CEA).
This procedure removes the buildup of fatty plaque from the inside of the carotid artery before it can dislodge and cause a stroke.
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a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily. what course of action should the nurse take in order to prevent legal complications
To prevent legal complications when a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily, the nurse should:
Familiarize themselves with relevant laws and regulations.
Ensure proper documentation.
Follow proper procedures.
Respect the client's rights.
Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team.
Continuous monitoring and reassessment.
In order to prevent legal complications when a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily, the nurse should take the following course of action:
Familiarize themselves with relevant laws and regulations: The nurse should have a thorough understanding of the legal framework governing involuntary admissions and mental health treatment in their jurisdiction. This includes being knowledgeable about applicable mental health acts, policies, and procedures.Ensure proper documentation: Accurate and detailed documentation is crucial in the mental health setting. The nurse should meticulously document the client's condition, reasons for the involuntary admission, assessments, interventions, and any significant changes in the client's status. This documentation should be timely, objective, and reflect the client's best interests.Follow proper procedures: The nurse should strictly adhere to the established procedures and protocols for involuntary admissions. This involves obtaining necessary legal authorizations and completing required forms or documentation as per institutional guidelines.Respect the client's rights: Even though the client is admitted involuntarily, they still have rights that must be respected. The nurse should ensure that the client's rights to confidentiality, dignity, privacy, and autonomy are protected. Any interventions or treatments should be conducted with the client's informed consent, or in accordance with legal provisions for involuntary treatment.Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team: Mental health care involves a multidisciplinary approach. The nurse should collaborate with the client's treatment team, including psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers, and legal professionals, to ensure that all aspects of the client's care align with legal requirements and ethical standards.Continuous monitoring and reassessment: Regular monitoring and reassessment of the client's condition are essential. The nurse should promptly identify and report any changes or concerns to the appropriate healthcare professionals, ensuring timely interventions and treatment modifications.By following these actions, the nurse can help prevent legal complications and ensure that the client's rights and legal requirements are upheld during their involuntary admission in the mental health unit.
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If a perinate is documented as having sepsis without documentation of congenital or acquired, what is the default?
Answer:
congenital
Explanation:
If a perinate is documented as having sepsis without documentation of congenital or community acquired, the default is congenital and a code from category P36 should be assigned.
A 20 - year - old woman has had worsening fatigue for the past year . On examination her mucus membranes are pale . No hepatosplenomegaly is present . Her CBC shows a Hgb of 7.1 g / dl . , Het 19.9 % , MCV 67 fl , platelet count 190,000 / uL . , and WBC count 5,400 / uL . There is no history of drug ingestion . Which of the following is the most likely etiology for her findings ?
A. Cobalamin deficiency
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Iron deficiency
A. Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency is the most likely etiology for her findings.
What is vitamin B12 deficiency?Vitamin B12 deficiency is a condition in which the body does not have enough vitamin B12 to function properly. Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient that helps to produce red blood cells, maintain the nervous system, and support the production of DNA.
A deficiency in vitamin B12 can cause a wide range of symptoms, including fatigue, weakness, constipation, nerve damage, loss of appetite, weight loss, and a type of anemia called megaloblastic anemia.
There are several causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency:
Malnutrition: not getting enough Vitamin B12 in the diet, people who follow a vegan or vegetarian diet, have a higher risk of developing a deficiency as vitamin B12 is mainly found in animal foods.Lack of intrinsic factor: Some people don't produce enough intrinsic factor, which is a protein that helps the body absorb vitamin B12 from food.Gastrointestinal disorders: such as Crohn's disease, celiac disease, bacterial growth, or surgery that affects the stomach or small intestineMedications: Long-term use of certain medications such as proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and metformin can interfere with the absorption of vitamin B12Learn more about Vitamin B12, here:
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A 4-year-old boy was seen two weeks ago by his pediatrician because his father was concerned about him being very clumsy lately. The boy also has a hard time running, climbing stairs and he walks on tiptoes. There is a strong family history of muscular dystrophy. They are here today to go over the results of a muscle biopsy and EMG results. A confirmed diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy was made. The pediatrician wrote a prescription for physical therapy, and leg braces.
The 2022 ICD-10-CM Diagnostic code for this type of disease involving the nervous system is G71.01.
What is ICD-10-CM code?This is known as morbidity classification which classifies diagnosis and reasons for visits to healthcare facilities.
The boy has muscular dystrophy as a result of defects in the nervous system with the diagnosis for such being G00-G99 thererby making G71.01 the most appropriate choice.
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1. Describe the major bones and bony landmarks of the human skeleton.
Answer:
An example of a bony landmark is the head of the humerus and femur. These heads make up ball and socket joints of the shoulder and hip Hard surface forms are also known as bony landmarks—parts of bones (ridges, bumps, depressions) that are positioned close to the skin, creating visual landmarks on the surface form
Explanation:yw
A cell lacking mitochondria would be incapable of what?
Question 47 options:
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Lactic acid fermentation
c)
Aerobic metabolism
d)
Hydrolysis
Answer:
A cell lacking mitochondria would be incapable of aerobic metabolism. Aerobic metabolism is the process by which cells use oxygen to produce energy. This process takes place in the mitochondria, so a cell without mitochondria would not be able to produce energy through aerobic metabolism.
Glycolysis and lactic acid fermentation are both anaerobic processes, meaning they do not require oxygen. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction that breaks down molecules using water. None of these processes require mitochondria, so a cell lacking mitochondria would still be capable of glycolysis, lactic acid fermentation, and hydrolysis.
So the answer is (c).
You need to prepare 65 ml of 60% soda/syrup ‘prescription’ you use the 80% soda solution and the syrup solution (0% strength) that you have in inventory. How many ml of each solution do you need to create this final solution?
Answer:
16.25 mL
Explanation:
Since we are mixing from the syrup in the inventory, we can say that the syrup in the inventory must be equal to that in the final solution. Thus, we will use the dilution equation to solve for the Initial volume;
Dilution equation is;
V₁C₁ = V₂C₂
Where;
V₁ is initial volume
C₁ is initial concentration or initial molarity
V₂ is final volume
C₂ is final concentration of final molarity
We are given;
C₁ = 80% = 0.8
C₂ = 60% = 0.6
V₂ = 65 mL
Making V₁ the subject in the dilution equation, we have;
V₁ = (V₂C₂)/C₁
V₁ = (65 × 0.6)/0.8
V₁ = 48.75 mL of inventory syrup
a nurse is in the process of implementing ebp on the unit. which process should the nurse prioritize if utilizing the stetler model?
When implementing evidence-based practice using the Stetler Model, the nurse should prioritize the "Evaluation" phase. This phase involves assessing the impact and outcomes of the implemented EBP. It allows the nurse to make informed decisions for further practice changes.
If a nurse is implementing evidence-based practice (EBP) on the unit and utilizing the Stetler Model, the process that the nurse should prioritize is the "Evaluation" phase. The Stetler Model is a widely recognized framework for the implementation of EBP, consisting of three phases: "Preparation," "Implementation," and "Evaluation."
The "Preparation" phase involves identifying and appraising the evidence, adapting it to the local context, and assessing the readiness of the unit for change. During this phase, the nurse gathers relevant research and evaluates its applicability to the unit's setting and patient population. The nurse also assesses the resources, barriers, and facilitators to implementation.
The "Implementation" phase focuses on putting the evidence into practice. The nurse develops and implements an action plan, educates the staff, and monitors the implementation process. This phase involves actively engaging the healthcare team, addressing resistance to change, and promoting collaboration and communication.
However, the most crucial phase that the nurse should prioritize in the Stetler Model is the "Evaluation" phase. In this phase, the nurse assesses the impact and outcomes of the implemented EBP. Evaluation involves collecting data, measuring outcomes, and comparing them to the desired goals and expected outcomes. The nurse analyzes the findings, identifies areas for improvement, and determines whether the EBP has achieved the desired results.
The evaluation process is essential as it provides feedback on the effectiveness of the implemented EBP. It allows the nurse to determine if any adjustments or modifications are necessary to optimize outcomes. Through evaluation, the nurse can identify barriers or challenges that may have affected the implementation and use the findings to guide future practice changes.
In conclusion, when utilizing the Stetler Model for implementing EBP, the nurse should prioritize the "Evaluation" phase. This phase enables the nurse to assess the impact and outcomes of the implemented EBP and make informed decisions for further improvement and practice changes.
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