The prevention of osteoporosis should begin young adults, to increase the bone mass to provide additional protection from osteoporosis.
Osteoporosis is a systemic skeletal disorder characterized by low bone mass, micro-architectural deterioration of bone tissue, bone fragility, and an increased risk of fracture. It is the most common cause of broken bones in the elderly. The vertebrae in the spine, forearm bones, and hip bones are among the most commonly broken bones.
There are usually no symptoms until a bone is broken. Bones can weaken to the point where a break occurs under minor stress or spontaneously. After the broken bone heals, the individual may experience chronic pain and a reduced ability to perform normal activities.
Osteoporosis can occur as a result of lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower estrogen levels, and after Andropause due to lower Testosterone levels.
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The technician is asked to make 8 oz of a 50% solution of Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA). ingredients available: Isopropyl Alcohol 70% and water. How many milliliters of water are needed?
Answer:
118.296 ml of water
Explanation:
Given that;
v/v% concentration = volume of solute/volume of solution * 100
volume of solution = 8 oz
v/v% concentration = 50%
50 = volume of solute/8 * 100
volume of solute = 50 * 8/100
volume of solute = 4 oz
Volume of water needed = Volume of solution - volume of solute
Hence
8 oz - 4 oz
Volume of water needed = 4 oz
1 oz = 29.574 ml
4oz = 4oz * 29.574 ml/1 oz
= 118.296 ml of water
Does Someone Want To Freestyle With Me
Answer:
sure :)
Explanation:
ribbit,
tsu-chan (^◡^)
Answer:I’m gonna live my life like a king all this bling, all these racks,all the stacks. (Get that bag), I’m pushin p gonna keep it real, No Nas but my flow is steel.
Explanation:
What is the difference is Licensure, Regulation, and Accreditation?
Answer:
Licensure is about getting the legal right to practice or serve in a specific role. Accreditation is about enabling a facility to have the respect of its industry peers. Another critical distinction between licensing and accreditation is who they apply to. A license applies to a single individual looking to practice
Answer:
Licensure is the act of granting authority by the state. Each state has agencies responsible for issuing and renewing licenses to health care professionals.
Registration means that you have graduated from an accredited school and have passed a standardized national exam administered by a nongovernmental agency.
Accreditation is an educational institution that is recognized by an outside agency, such as national board or commission, as having standards that qualify graduates for professional practice.
Explanation:
_____is another medical term that means urination; micturition.
Which of the following local anesthetics, without vasoconstrictors, is/are useful in dentistry?
a. Prilocaine
b. Mepivacaine
c. All options listed
d. None of the options listed
Local anesthetics without vasoconstrictors, that are useful in dentistry are prilocaine and mepivacaine.
The correct answer is C
Lidocaine, prilocaine, and mepivacaine solutions without vasoconstrictors can be used safely in hypertensive patients. appealed to dental sellers to choose anesthetic products for hypertensive patients by considering their cardiovascular effects to provide patient comfort and safety.
Prilocaine works as a local anesthetic that works with sodium ions which are needed for muscle movement so that the muscles relax, and the recovery process is fast.
Mepivacaine is a local anesthetic that is often used for dental surgery. This drug is also used as a spinal or epidural anesthetic. This medication works by blocking nerve impulses from sending pain signals to your brain.
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The best use of fluroescein stain in an eye examination is to check for
Answer:
The best use of fluroescein stain in an eye examination is to check for corneal injuries.
Explanation:
The fluorescein stain test is an eye examination performed by the ophthalmologist to detect corneal lesions, but it is also useful for finding foreign bodies in the eye.
This test consists of placing an orange dye on the eye surface, then applying a blue light to detect corneal lesions, which turn blue-green when present.
1) Knowing that risk of falls are greater for some patient groups, "How Might We" improve, including educating patients and families about the risk of falls in an effort to reduce the total amount?
Things to Consider:
DEFINE THE PROBLEM: (i.e.: Generating and Conceptualizing)
DETERMINE THE SOLUTION: (i.e.: Moving through Conceptualizing to Optimizing)
IMPLEMENT THE SOLUTION (i.e.: Moving through Optimizing to Implementing)
DEFINE THE PROBLEM:
The problem is the increased risk of falls among certain patient groups. Falls can lead to injuries, decreased mobility, and longer hospital stays. To address this, we need to improve patient and family education about the risk of falls and preventive measures.
DETERMINE THE SOLUTION:
Conduct a thorough assessment: Identify patient groups that are at a higher risk of falls, such as older adults, individuals with certain medical conditions, or those on specific medications. Assess their specific needs and challenges regarding fall prevention.Develop educational materials: Create clear, concise, and visually engaging educational materials that explain the risk factors and consequences of falls. Provide practical tips and strategies to reduce the risk, such as maintaining a clutter-free environment, using assistive devices, and engaging in appropriate physical activities.Engage healthcare providers: Collaborate with healthcare providers to reinforce fall prevention education during patient visits. Providers can incorporate fall risk assessments into routine care and discuss preventive measures with patients and their families.Involve families and caregivers: Educate family members and caregivers about the risk of falls and their role in prevention. Provide resources and training on assisting patients in fall prevention strategies, proper use of assistive devices, and recognizing early signs of fall risk.IMPLEMENT THE SOLUTION:
Disseminate educational materials: Make the educational materials easily accessible to patients, families, and healthcare providers. Distribute printed materials in clinics, hospitals, and community centers. Utilize digital platforms, such as websites, patient portals, and mobile apps, to provide online access to educational resources.Conduct educational sessions: Organize workshops or group sessions to provide in-person education on fall prevention. These sessions can be conducted in healthcare settings, community centers, or senior centers. Consider including interactive elements, demonstrations, and Q&A sessions to enhance engagement.Integrate education into discharge planning: Incorporate fall prevention education into the discharge process for hospitalized patients. Ensure that patients and their families receive information about fall risks, prevention strategies, and available resources upon leaving the healthcare facility.Monitor and evaluate effectiveness: Continuously assess the impact of the education efforts by tracking fall rates and collecting feedback from patients, families, and healthcare providers. Adjust the educational materials and approaches based on the feedback received to improve their effectiveness.By following these steps, healthcare organizations can improve patient and family education about the risk of falls, empower individuals to take preventive measures, and ultimately reduce the total number of falls among at-risk patient groups.
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in your mouth, the food mixes with saliva and is mechanically broken into smaller pieces. We call this process
Answer:
We call this process: chemical digestion
Which of the following is an acceptable example of additional documentation?
A. Proof of Volunteer work at a local civic center
B. An award won at the local chili cook -off
C. A list of hobby's like canoeing or golf
D. A photo of yourself
Answer:
A
Explanation:
That shows you care about your community.
1.Which blood type allele(s) is DOMINANT? А
В
Both Type A and Type B
О
2.red blood cells are removed from blood that is going to be donated because they can contain viruses and/or releases toxic substance into the recipient of the donation.
True or false
Question 20 of 69
Time Remaining
40:32
A patient presents after an intentional overdose of propranolol approximately 2 hours ago. The patient has severe hypotension and bradycardia. IV
fluids and vasopressors are initiated. What nursing assessment findings indicate the treatment has been effective?
An intentional overdose of propranolol can cause severe damage to the patient such as severe hypotension and bradycardia, so that after the procedures we can make a nursing assessment indicating that the treatment was effective, we need to know that.....
Overdose of Propranolol
Symptoms of overdose may include
BradycardiaHypotensionAcute heart failure and bronchospasm.Bronchospasm can normally be reversed by bronchodilators such as salbutamol. Larger doses may be required and should be titrated to clinical response.
General treatment should include:
Careful monitoringTreatment in an intensive care unitUse of gastric lavageActivated charcoalA laxative to prevent absorption of any drug still present in the gastrointestinal tract,Use of plasma or plasma substitutes to treat hypotension and shock.BradycardiaBradycardia is irregular or slow heart rhythm, usually less than 60 beats per minute. At this rate, the heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to your body during activity or exercise.
With this information, we can say that it is necessary for the nurse to see if the heart rate is higher. If damage to the heart's electrical system is causing the heart to beat slowly, the patient may need an implantable cardiac device called a pacemaker.
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Mary has three little balls she throws 1999 of them away how many does mary have now?
Answer:
3-1999 gives you your answer
Explanation:
how klebsiella become resistant to the antibiotic ciprofloxacin i need citation
These are some of the ways that Klebsiella can become resistant to the antibiotic ciprofloxacin:
MutationGene transferHorizontal gene transferWhat are the processes?Mutation: Klebsiella bacteria can mutate, which means that they can change their DNA. This can lead to changes in the bacteria's genes, which can make them resistant to ciprofloxacin.
Gene transfer: Klebsiella bacteria can transfer genes to each other. This can happen through a process called conjugation, in which one bacterium physically transfers its DNA to another bacterium. If the transferred gene makes the recipient bacterium resistant to ciprofloxacin, then the recipient bacterium will also become resistant to ciprofloxacin.
Horizontal gene transfer: Klebsiella bacteria can also acquire genes from other bacteria, such as from environmental bacteria. If the acquired gene makes the Klebsiella bacterium resistant to ciprofloxacin, then the Klebsiella bacterium will also become resistant to ciprofloxacin.
Citations:
Klebsiella pneumoniae resistance to ciprofloxacin: mechanisms and clinical implications: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4679205/
Ciprofloxacin resistance in Klebsiella pneumoniae: mechanisms and clinical impact: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3670663/
Emerging resistance of Klebsiella pneumoniae to ciprofloxacin: a global perspective: https://www.nature.com/articles/srep31292
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Complete question:
how does klebsiella become resistant to the antibiotic ciprofloxacin (I need citation)
Why is it important for the medical assistant to understand medical insurance coding?
It is important for the medical assistant to understand medical insurance coding because it provides a foundation for the data on the claim form.
What is medical insurance coding?Medical billing employs these codes to generate insurance claims and patient bills by extracting billable data from the medical record and clinical documentation. The building blocks of the healthcare revenue cycle are created when medical billing and coding are combined with the process of creating claims.Medical billing and coding, which is a collection of procedures used to classify the healthcare services rendered to patients, has an impact on both patient billing and the kind of care that patients get.Learn more about Medical billing here:
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Some neurological disorders affecting older adults may affect which of the following?
Answer: Weakness, numbness, poor balance, stroke, Parkinson's , and seizures. Neurological disorder can also cause memory loss.
The universal, or Tofflemire, retainer holds the matrix band snugly in position. It is most often positioned in which area?
The tofflemire retainer is a mechanical type of retainer that is positioned from the buccal surface of the tooth which is being restored.
What is tofflemire retainer?The tofflemire retainer model matrix holder is a commonly used device in the restorative dentistry to attach the matrix band onto the tooth. Tofflemire is a metal tool with an active part on which the matrix band is placed in order to be attached to the tooth to fix it in the same position.
Tofflemire retainer is used to engage the ends of a matrix band or strip to hold it in a position around the tooth that is being prepared for a dental restoration. The primary function of the matrix band is to restore the anatomic proximal contours and contact areas.
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Congenital Galactosemia typically appears only in infants because with maturation, most children develop another enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Thus, in the United States infants are screened for galactosemia. Galactosemia can be confused with lactose intolerance but galactosemia is a considerably more serious condition because consumption of galactose can cause permanent damage to their bodies. What dietary changes should be made
Answer: The dietary changes that should be made is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Explanation:
Congenital Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase(Gal-1-PUT).
Galactose is necessary for the formation of cerebrosides, of some glycoproteins and , during lactation, of milk. Excess is rapidly converted into glucose by Gal-1-PUT. The symptoms of galactosemia only become apparent if the infant is taking milk or milk containing products. This will lead to a rise in plasma galactose concentration.
Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. Since it's a condition that occurs at or before birth, infants are screened by identification of galactose with thin layer chromatography and by demonstrating a deficiency of Gal-1-PUT activity in erythrocytes.
If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Therefore, dietary changes should be made which is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Which of the following is not a function of the subcutaneous layer of skin ?
which of the following is NOT A FUNCTION of the subcutaneous layer? lubricates body surfaces.
state three qualities of a good drinking water
Answer:
Color – pure water is colorless; colored water can indicate pollution.
Turbidity – pure water is clear and does not absorb light.
Taste and odor – pure water is always tasteless and odorless.
Explanation:
what type of study did dan buettner and his research team use to identify the blue zones? (
Dan Buettner and his research team used census data to identify the blue zones.
When they started researching the areas of the world where people live the longest, explorer Dan Buettner and his team of demographers, biologists, and anthropologists may have had similar thoughts.
People consistently live to be 100 years old in Blue Zones, which are regions of the world where life expectancy is highest. In comparison, the CDC reports that the average life expectancy in the US is currently 77 years. Five such Blue Zones were determined by Buettner and his group.
In spite of statistics showing that most adults wish to improve their health practices, more than 90% of people often give up on diets after the first seven months, 70% discontinue their gym memberships after just two years, and more than 30% report having symptoms of anxiety and sadness.
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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
retrospective studies show that HIV was present in humans as early as
a.) 1981
b.)1970's
c.)1959
d.)1937
2) A 68-year old female is experiencing left heart failure. Physical exam reveals elevated blood
pressure most likely caused by:
A) Stress hormones promoting increased cardiac contractility
B) Diastolic dysfunction
C) SANS compensation for decreased cardiac output
D) Reflex tachycardia
E) Cardiotoxic effect of catecholamines and angiotensin
A 12-year-old child experiences high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding. Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur. What disease should be considered and what is the treatment
Explanation:
Given:
Here a 12-year old child experineces high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding.Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur.
The objective is to identify the disease and the treatment for the disease
Solution:
The child is experiencing infective endocardits.
Treatment with aqueous penicillin or ceftriaxone is more effective foe most infections caused by streptococci. The combination of penicillin or ampicillin with gentamicin is appropriate for endocarditis caused by enterococci that are not highly resistant to penicillin intial empiric therapy in patients with suspected endocrditis should include plus in an aminoglycoside
The valve replacement is considered in selected patients with infectious endocarditis
The common congental defects that cause hearts murmurs include holes in the heart or cardiac shunts which is known as septal defects.
The disease that should be considered is infective endocarditis whose treatment can be based on antibiotics.
Infective endocarditis is a type of infection in the internal heart tissue called the endocardium.This disease (infective endocarditis) may be caused by different harmful microorganisms (.e.g, bacteria, fungi, etc), which in this case could have entered into the body through the skinned knee.Infective endocarditis can be treated by using proper antibiotics to kill harmful microorganisms.In conclusion, the disease that should be considered is infective endocarditis whose treatment can be based on antibiotics.
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State the risk factors for Graves disease and why
Answer:
Risk factors
Family history. Because a family history of Graves' disease is a known risk factor, there is likely a gene or genes that can make a person more susceptible to the disorder.
Sex. ...
Age. ...
Other autoimmune disorders. ...
Emotional or physical stress. ...
Pregnancy. ...
Smoking.
What is cetirizine hydrochloride and pseudoephedrine hydrochloride?
Cetirizine and pseudoephedrine is an antihistamine and decongestant combination used to treat the symptoms of seasonal or annual allergies.
Cetirizine, often known as Zyrtec, is a second-generation antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis, dermatitis, and urticaria. It is administered orally. The effects usually start within thirty minutes and persist around a day. Cetirizine is an antihistamine medication that relieves allergy symptoms. It is used to treat the following conditions: hay fever. conjunctivitis (red, itchy eye) (red, itchy eye).
Pseudoephedrine is an antihistamine that is used to treat nasal or sinus congestion caused by the common cold, sinusitis, hay fever, and other respiratory allergies. It is also used to treat ear congestion caused by inflammation or infection of the ear. It is possible to have nausea, vomiting, difficulty sleeping, dizziness, headache, or anxiousness. Inform your doctor or pharmacist right once if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.
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the nurse is caring for a client is scheduled for chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant. which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
The client's statement that "The baldness is transient" shows that more instruction is required.
When does chemotherapy begin treating cancer?For stage 4 malignancies, systemic pharmacological therapies including chemotherapy or targeted therapy are frequently used. A clinical trial that offers novel therapies to aid in the treatment of stage 4 cancer is frequently a possibility. The five most prevalent malignancies' current treatment options are listed below.
Can chemotherapy be used to treat cancer?Chemotherapy can totally eradicate cancer from your body, or it might lessen your symptoms and improve your quality of life. Additionally, chemotherapy can improve the efficacy of other treatments like surgery or radiation therapy.
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why is it important for jessica to have her blood levels of the antiepileptic medications checked on a regular basis
Answer:Blood tests are often checked before starting an antiepileptic drug (AED). Blood tests may be done again after you have been taking the seizure medicine for a while, especially if there’s been a change in dose or if you have a change in how you feel.How often blood tests are done depends on each seizure medicine, the need for monitoring, and other health problems you have or medicines you take. The frequency of testing also varies from doctor to doctor and even country to country.
The frequency of blood tests to check for side effects depends on the medicine you take. Many of the older seizure medicines need more monitoring than the newer ones.
Blood tests may be done before starting a drug then periodically once you are on the medicine. Some medicines may need blood tests every few weeks or months when starting the medicine. After a person is used to the medicine, these blood tests may be needed only once in a while or if problems develop. Other medicines, especially some of the newer ones, need blood test monitoring much less often if at all.
Blood tests to measure the amount of medicine in your system can also vary. Again, blood levels of the older medicines are done more often to help guide changes in doses. Well-established ranges for blood levels are available for the older drugs, but not as much for newer seizures medicines. For some of the newer seizure medicines, tests for blood levels may not be available or helpful in adjusting doses of a medicine.
Explanation:Blood tests may be done to check how much medicine is in your body, usually called drug or AED levels. (AED stands for antiepileptic drugs)
Blood tests may also be used to see how your body is tolerating the medicine. The types of blood test will vary depending on what possible side effects may be seen with your seizure medicine. These blood tests may include levels of electrolytes (substances in the body such as sodium and potassium), kidneys and liver function, and blood cell counts (such as white blood cells, red blood cells, platelet counts).The best way to tell if a medicine is working is to talk to you and your family. How often seizures occur and if you have any side effects that bother you is often more important than a blood test. This information comes from you and your family, not a test.
The blood level helps the doctor judge if the medicine dose is high enough, too high, or if it may be time for a change. It’s a piece of information that is looked at together with how you feel. The doctor or nurse will also want to do a ‘neuro exam’ that can help pick up side effects of medicines. So remember:
The blood level is only a guide. Some people will do well at low levels of medicine. Other people may need higher amounts.
Results of a blood level need to be looked together with other information.
USADA recommends that athletes submit their applications for a TUE at least before their scheduled competition.
The statement is not true. The United States Anti-Doping Agency (USADA) does recommend that athletes submit their applications for Therapeutic Use Exemptions (TUEs) well in advance of their scheduled competition. However, the specific timeframe may vary depending on the circumstances and the anti-doping organization's regulations.
USADA advises athletes to submit their TUE applications as soon as they become aware of the need for a prohibited substance or method due to a legitimate medical condition. This allows sufficient time for the review process, which includes evaluating the medical documentation and ensuring that the TUE criteria are met.
Thereofre, it is essential for athletes to familiarize themselves with the specific TUE requirements and timelines set by their respective anti-doping organizations.
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Bioenergetics, homeopathic medicine, and yoga are what form of cancer treatment options?
a. complimentary and alternative therapies
b. bio-medicine
c. naturopathic
d. non considered valid therapies in the U.S.
Bioenergetics, homeopathic medicine, and yoga are considered option A. complementary and alternative therapies in cancer treatment.
What are Complementary and Alternative therapies?
Complementary and alternative therapies are also called CAM therapies. These are diverse healthcare treatments that are not a part of mainstream medicine. The use of complementary and alternative therapies in treating cancer is widespread. The purpose of using CAM therapies is to enhance the effectiveness of conventional cancer treatments and improve the quality of life of cancer patients.
A variety of complementary and alternative therapies can be used to manage cancer-related symptoms such as stress, anxiety, depression, nausea, and pain. Bioenergetics is a CAM therapy that claims to use energy to stimulate the body's natural healing process. It focuses on improving the flow of energy in the body by identifying and removing energy blocks. This therapy uses various techniques such as breathwork, bodywork, and meditation to increase energy flow. Homeopathic medicine is a CAM therapy that uses highly diluted substances to stimulate the body's natural healing process. It is based on the principle of "like cures like," which means that a substance that causes symptoms in a healthy person can cure those symptoms in a sick person.
Yoga is a CAM therapy that originated in ancient India and is used to promote physical, mental, and emotional well-being. It combines physical postures, breathing techniques, and meditation to improve flexibility, strength, and balance while reducing stress and anxiety.
There is no conclusive evidence that complementary and alternative therapies can cure cancer. Still, they may be helpful in managing symptoms, reducing treatment-related side effects, and improving quality of life. Therefore the correct option is a
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