Reviewing the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-V) criteria for schizophrenia, the most accurate is A minimum of two or more defining symptoms must appear for at least one month during the first six months of schizophrenia.
Reason: According to the DSM-V, schizophrenia lasts at least six months and consists of two or more distinctive symptoms (such as delusions, hallucinations, disordered speech, and hyperactive or catatonic conduct) and negative symptoms for at least one month (e.g., diminished emotional expression, alogia, or avolition).
What is DSM-5 Schizophrenia?The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) states that a number of cognitive, behavioral, and emotional dysfunctions are present in schizophrenia. A group of symptoms that are linked to decreased social and occupational functioning must be present in order to make a diagnosis. Individuals with the disease will differ greatly in many characteristics, though.
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Within the cell, the cleanup crew is/are the
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) nucleus
C) lysosomes
D) cytoplasm
Within the cell, the cleanup crew is/are the C) lysosomes.
Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing various enzymes that function primarily in breaking down and recycling cellular waste and debris. They are considered the "waste disposal system" of the cell. These organelles digest excess or worn-out cell components, bacteria, and other foreign particles that enter the cell. This process is essential for maintaining cellular health and proper functioning.
Lysosomes are produced by the endoplasmic reticulum (A) and further processed in the Golgi apparatus. They are not to be confused with the endoplasmic reticulum, which is involved in protein and lipid synthesis, or the nucleus (B), which houses genetic material and controls cellular activities. Additionally, lysosomes are distinct from the cytoplasm (D), which is the fluid matrix that fills the cell and contains various cellular structures.
In summary, (option c) lysosomes serve as the cell's cleanup crew by breaking down and recycling waste materials, contributing to the overall health and efficiency of the cell.
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A 7 year old, 58# Lab arrives in your hospital for an examination. She has been
diagnosed with pyoderma, secondary to allergies. The doctor has asked you to
prepare an injection that this dog is going to need. Provide your calculations
below:
An injection of Prednislone Acetate 1mg/kg SQ. The drug is supplied
in 50mg/ml solution.
The dog will need 0.526 ml of the Prednisolone Acetate solution.
To calculate the dosage of Prednisolone Acetate for the 7-year-old, 58-pound (lbs) Lab, we need to convert the weight from pounds to kilograms, as the dosage is given in milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg).
Convert the weight from pounds to kilograms:
58 lbs ÷ 2.2046 (conversion factor for pounds to kilograms) ≈ 26.31 kg
Calculate the dosage based on the weight:
1 mg/kg x 26.31 kg = 26.31 mg
So, the dog will require an injection of approximately 26.31 mg of Prednisolone Acetate.
Next, we need to determine the volume of the 50 mg/ml solution required to administer the calculated dosage.
Use the concentration and dosage to calculate the volume:
The dosage required (mg) ÷ Concentration of the solution (mg/ml) = Volume required (ml)
26.31 mg ÷ 50 mg/ml ≈ 0.526 ml
Therefore, the dog will need approximately 0.526 ml of the Prednisolone Acetate solution.
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Yalll been vb no knights
Answer:
free branliest?
Explanation:
What is the correlation between ketone levels with insulin value in a diabetic patient?
In diabetic patients, low insulin levels are associated with higher ketone levels, indicating the body's reliance on fat metabolism for energy. Regular monitoring of insulin and ketone levels is crucial for effective diabetes management and preventing complications.
In diabetic patients, there is an inverse correlation between ketone levels and insulin values. When insulin levels are low, such as in uncontrolled diabetes or during periods of insulin deficiency, the body's cells are unable to effectively take up glucose for energy. As a result, the body starts breaking down fats as an alternative source of energy, leading to the production of ketone bodies.
Ketone bodies, specifically beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate, are byproducts of fat metabolism. Their presence in the blood signifies that the body is utilizing fats for energy instead of glucose. Higher ketone levels are commonly seen in conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or during periods of prolonged fasting.
Insulin plays a critical role in regulating glucose metabolism. It allows glucose to enter cells and promotes its utilization for energy. When insulin is deficient or ineffective, as in type 1 diabetes or poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, glucose cannot enter cells, leading to hyperglycemia. In response, the body increases fat breakdown, resulting in elevated ketone levels.
Therefore, in diabetic patients, low insulin values are associated with higher ketone levels. Regular monitoring of both insulin and ketone levels is essential for managing diabetes effectively. Elevated ketone levels can indicate a state of metabolic imbalance and the potential for diabetic complications such as DKA. Managing insulin levels through appropriate insulin therapy and lifestyle modifications can help control blood glucose levels and prevent excessive ketone production in diabetic patients. It is important for diabetic patients to work closely with healthcare professionals to monitor and manage both insulin and ketone levels to ensure optimal diabetes control and prevent complications.
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A health professional who observes that the patient is normal refers to the findings as
Answer:Professionalism also involves confidentiality, continuity, trust, honesty and compassion. ... The report agreed that professionalism in healthcare can be defined as: “A set of values, behaviours, and relationships that underpins the trust the public has in doctors.The primary rationale for professionalism and collaboration is to promote patient safety. Health care is delivered by teams of professionals who need to communicate well, respecting the principles of honesty, respect for others, confidentiality and responsibility for their actions.
Explanation:
hope you have a nice night also hope this helps ❤️❤️
Professionals in healthcare and medicine is described as "a collection of beliefs, behaviors, and connections that supports the public's faith in doctors," according to the paper.
Patient care is the key motivation for expertise and teamwork.
Teams of professionals offer health care, and they must communicate effectively while adhering to the ideals of honesty, regard for others, confidentially, and accountability for their activities.Learn more:
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Which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics? A. unconventional B. conventional C. preconventional D. postconventional
Answer:
D. postconventional
Explanation:
Edg
Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).
What is Kohlberg's theory?Kohlberg's theory focuses on the thought process that occurs when one decides whether a behavior is right or wrong. Therefore, the theoretical emphasis is on how one decides to respond to a moral dilemma, not what one decides or actually does.
There are different levels of this theory which are as follows:
Stage 1: Obedience and punishment
Stage 2: Self-interest.
Stage 3: Interpersonal accord and conformity
Stage 4: Authority and maintaining social order
Stage 5: Social contract
Stage 6: Universal ethical principles.
Pre-conventional levelConventional levelPost conventional levelThe right behavior of the individual, in his opinion at the post conventional level, is therefore never a means to an end, but always an end in itself, not everyone reaches this level.
Thus, Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).
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Define the terms of bacterial arrangements below.
a.Strepto-
b. Diplo-
C.Staphylo-
d. Tetrads-
e.Sarcinae-
Answer:
a. twisted chain
b. bacteria cells that are joined in pairs
c. A group of bacteria that cause a multitude of diseases
d. "groups of four"
e. A genus of bacteria found in various organic fluids
Explanation:
Hope this is what you were looking for!
The terms "bacterial arrangements are defined, such as "strepto-," which is a prefix used to describe a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in a chain or series of cells. Diplo is when a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in pairs. Staphylo is when a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in a cluster or grape-like structure. Tetrads are bacterial arrangements in which the cells are arranged in groups of four cells. Sarcinae is a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in a cuboidal packet of eight cells.
What are bacterial arrangements?Bacterial arrangements refer to the pattern or structure in which bacterial cells are organized when viewed under a microscope. These arrangements are determined by the way that the bacterial cells divide and remain attached to each other as they grow and multiply.
Hence, the terms "bacterial arrangements are defined, such as "strepto-," which is a prefix used to describe a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in a chain or series of cells. Diplo is when a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in pairs. Staphylo is when a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in a cluster or grape-like structure. Tetrads are bacterial arrangements in which the cells are arranged in groups of four cells. Sarcinae is a bacterial arrangement in which the cells are arranged in a cuboidal packet of eight cells.
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What might a person whose greatest motivation in dietary choices is convenience be most likely to eat? Blended smoothie with milk; yogurt; sliced bananas, strawberries, peaches, and avocado; and flax seed TV dinner Grilled fresh vegetables Homemade lasagna Homemade chocolate chip cookies
Answer: TV dinner
Explanation:
I assume it would take the least amount of time to cook, and it’s pre-made
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) should be administered when? What four areas does the DDST focus on? Give two (2) examples of each.
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is an instrument for the early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years to identify children who may require intervention. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.
The personal-social domain involves social behavior and interactive play. Here are two examples of personal-social domain items: follows a moving object with their eyes and offers a toy to an adult to be shared.The fine motor-adaptive domain focuses on a child's eye-hand coordination, small muscle development, and precision. Here are two examples of fine motor-adaptive domain items: imitates vertical strokes with a pencil or crayon and stacks blocks or rings.
The language domain covers the development of vocabulary, syntax, and grammar. Here are two examples of language domain items: points to named body parts and says two words besides "mama" and "dada."The gross motor domain covers the development of posture and movement. Here are two examples of gross motor domain items: walks on their tiptoes and walks up steps with assistance.
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is a developmental instrument used for early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.
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Select the accessory organs that deposit secretions directly into the duodenum. (Select multiple)AppendixGallbladderJejunumStomachSalivary GlandsPancreas
The accessory organs that deposit secretions directly into the duodenum are:- Pancreas
- Liver (through the bile ducts)
The salivary glands, stomach, jejunum, appendix do not deposit secretions directly into the duodenum. The gallbladder does not deposit secretions directly into the duodenum, but it stores and releases bile produced by the liver, which does deposit secretions directly into the duodenum through the bile ducts.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes, such as amylase, lipase, and proteases, which are essential for the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The liver produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine.
Overall, these accessory organs play important roles in the digestive process, and their secretions are necessary for the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.
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What are four possible barriers to the promotion and uptake of health initiative information within the Maori community?. For each one, suggest ways in which these barriers could be overcome.
Answer:
1. Language and Cultural Barriers:
Barrier: Language and cultural differences can undermine the conveyance of health information to the Māori community, especially if information is predominantly available in English.
Solution: Provide health initiative information in both English and Te Reo Māori. Furthermore, ensure it is culturally appropriate and sensitive. Involve Māori language experts and cultural advisors to ensure accurate translation and cultural relevance.
2. Lack of Trust and Representation:
Barrier: Historically, the Māori community experienced mistrust and marginalization from healthcare systems. This led to skepticism and lower engagement with health initiatives.
Solution: Engage and involve Māori community leaders, organizations, and health professionals in designing and delivering health initiatives. Ensure meaningful representation of Māori perspectives and values. Promoting trust and partnerships can eliminate these barriers.
3. Access and Equity:
Barrier: Limited access to healthcare services, geographical distance, and socioeconomic disparities can sabotage the promotion and uptake of health initiatives within the Māori community.
Solution: Implement initiatives that address health equity. These could include mobile health clinics, community outreach programs, and targeted initiatives in areas with higher Māori populations. Enhance accessibility by offering transportation options, utilizing digital technologies, and ensuring affordable healthcare services.
4. Cultural Relevance and Empowerment:
Barrier: Health initiatives that do not align with Māori cultural values, beliefs, and practices may not resonate with the community, resulting in lower engagement and uptake.
Solution: Involve Māori community in the planning and implementation of health initiatives. Integrate cultural protocols, values, and practices into program design. Emphasize a holistic approach to health incorporating Western and traditional Māori healing practices. Tailor messaging and communication strategies per Māori cultural preferences and communication channels.
Explanation:
Which of the following body systems provides the body the body with the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
Answer:
I believe it would be the respiratory system.
Explanation:
iron deficiency anemia is common in the post six month old infant and the toddler. why does this happen? what food sources should be served to correct this problem?
Iron deficiency anemia is a common condition in infants and toddlers because they are going through a rapid growth phase and require iron to support their development.
Additionally, the amount of iron stores that they receive from their mothers during pregnancy starts to decrease around 6 months of age. If their diet does not provide enough iron, this can lead to iron deficiency anemia.
Infants and toddlers need approximately 11 mg of iron per day, which can be provided by a variety of foods. Iron-rich foods that can be incorporated into the diet include:
Red meat such as beef, lamb, or pork
Poultry such as chicken or turkey
Fish such as salmon or tuna
Legumes such as lentils, beans, and chickpeas
Iron-fortified cereals and grains such as oatmeal or bread
Dark green leafy vegetables such as spinach or kale
To enhance the absorption of iron, it is recommended to pair these foods with foods rich in vitamin C, such as citrus fruits or tomatoes.
Breastfed infants should receive iron supplements starting at 4 months of age, and iron-fortified formula should be given to formula-fed infants. Toddlers who do not consume enough iron-rich foods may also require a daily iron supplement.
It is important to consult with a healthcare provider or a registered dietitian to ensure that infants and toddlers are receiving adequate nutrition and iron intake to support their growth and development.
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preschool children should be encouraged to try new foods to build a dietary pattern with a variety of nutrient-dense foods. if a child is reluctant to try a new food, what is the best response?
Preschool children should be encouraged to try new foods to build a dietary pattern with a variety of nutrient-dense foods. if a child is reluctant to try a new food, then the new experiments should be made to corporate in their diet.
What is the most important nutrient for a child ?Proteins are the most important nutrient for any child for the bone formation.
Diet should be corrected in order to get the proper nutrients in order to maintain the healthy body and proper growth of the body. If the child is not sufficiently getting the nutrients then the nutrients will be put inside the new dishes that are the taste for the individual.
A dietary pattern will be executed inside the body so as to increase the metabolism and change the absorption patterns of the dietary supplements with the absorption criteria.
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Match the age group with the recommended therapeutic consideration
A nurse is initiating a peripheral IV infusion punctures the skin and selected vein and observes blood return in the flashback chamber of the IV catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform next?
a. secure the catheter to the skin with a transparent dressing
b. lover the catheter until it is almost flush with the skin
c. advance the catheter about 1/4 inch into the vein
d. remove the stylet slowly from the lumen of the catheter
Option. d. The nurse should remove the stylet slowly from the lumen of the catheter after observing blood return in the flashback chamber of the IV catheter.
This is important to prevent the stylet from puncturing the vein wall or causing damage to the vein. Once the stylet is removed, the catheter can be secured to the skin with a transparent dressing and advanced about 1/4 inch into the vein if needed. Lowering the catheter until it is almost flush with the skin is not necessary and may cause infiltration or dislodgement of the catheter. It is important for the nurse to follow proper technique and protocols to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
When initiating a peripheral IV infusion, after the nurse punctures the skin and selected vein and observes blood return in the flashback chamber of the IV catheter, the appropriate next step is to advance the catheter about 1/4 inch into the vein (option c). This ensures the catheter is properly placed within the vein. Afterward, the nurse can secure the catheter to the skin with a transparent dressing (option a), ensuring proper catheter stabilization. The other options, lowering the catheter until almost flush with the skin (option b) and removing the stylet slowly from the lumen of the catheter (option d), are not the correct immediate actions.
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When a doctor writes you a prescription, ...
A. it does not mean you can go on with all your usual activities.
B. you can start taking doses and go on with all your usual activities.
C. you can go on with your usual activities after a couple weeks.
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
You can start taking doses and go on with all your usual activities.
When a doctor writes you a prescription, you can start taking doses and go on with all your usual activities.
The correct answer is option B.
What does it mean to validate a prescription?This includes making sure that the prescription is successfully written and that it carries all of the necessary statistics. Your exercise might be regular along with your occupational position and completed underneath the regulatory and moral frameworks set up inside the context of current legislation.
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the client obtained an order for 1 liter of fluid to be drunk over 8 hour period. how many cups should the client drink each hour?
Answer:
I'm sorry I don't answer
- PREVENTING NEEDLESTICK INJURIES
1. True or false, safer phlebotomy equipment such as needles with single handed safeties and self-
blunting tips has reduced needlestick injury by 82 percent.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True it is safer
Explanation: Hopefully this helps you and can you please mark it as brainliest so I could help others
the national institute of health ranks health care disparities as third among its top five priorities. t or f
The statement that the national institute of health ranks health care disparities as third among its top five priorities is true.
The term health disparities is collectively used to describe the health issues of racial and ethnic minorities, poor people, and other disadvantaged groups. Mortality rate and morbidity also comes under this. Health is an important part of an individual which must be enhanced through nutritional diet and means. Government has the responsibility of improving the health status of it citizens who cannot afford healthy food. Research is fundamental to the understanding and ultimate correction of health disparities. Hence appropriate steps need to be taken by the government and inter governmental organizations to help and assist these people and provide them with healthy living condition and nourished food.
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the nurse finds the client lying on the floor. the nurse calls the registered nurse, who checks the client and then calls the nursing supervisor and the primary health care provider to inform them of the occurrence. the nurse completes the incident report for which purpose?
The ethics of care and feminist ethics both promote a philosophy that focuses on understanding relationships, especially personal narratives.
What is primary health?
Primary health care enables health systems to support a person's health needs – from health promotion to disease prevention, treatment, rehabilitation, palliative care and more. This strategy also ensures that health care is delivered in a way that is centred on people's needs and respects their preferences.PHC is a whole-of-society approach to health that aims at ensuring the highest possible level of health and well-being and their equitable distribution by focusing on people's needs and as early as possible along the continuum from health promotion and disease prevention to treatment, rehabilitation and palliativeThe five principles of primary health care are: - Accessibility; - Public participation; - Health promotion; - Appropriate skills and technology; and - Intersectoral cooperation. The goal of nursing practice is to improve the health of clients.To learn more about health care refers to:
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Your umbilicus (bellybutton) is (anterior/posterior) to your tushy.
Sue has Type 1 diabetes, meaning she does not produce any insulin. Her parents give her 1 unit of insulin for every 15 grams of carbohydrate they feed her. Just before her afternoon snack of Cereal, Granola, Prepared (0.25 cups), how many units of insulin should they prepare to inject
Answer:
1 unit.
Explanation:
According to nutrition information provided by the USDA, 0.25 cups of Granola contain roughly 14 grams of carbohydrates. Since Sue needs to take 1 unit of insulin for every 15 grams of carbohydrates, her parents should prepare to inject her with 1 whole unit for her afternoon snack.
19. A parent is concerned with the interpersonal skills of her 12-year-old son. Based on interpersonal theory, the nurse should asks:
Answer:
Do you have any outstanding medical issues?
Explanation:
Always be cautious around kids
What does conventional theory argue?
Finally, a theoretically endless number of trials led to normalized frequency distributions.
The traditional theory was put forth by whom?In the 1930s, Arthur Holmes presented the Convectional Current Theory. The potential of convection currents acting in the mantle portion was suggested. These currents are produced as a result of thermal variations in the mantle part brought on by radioactive materials.
What makes electron theory different from conventional theory?Electron current refers to the movement of electrons. The negative terminal releases electrons into the positive terminal. Positive charge carriers are thought to be the cause of current flow in conventional current, also known as just current. Normal current moves from the positive terminal to the negative terminal.
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A nurse is administrating a parenteral medication to a patient. The patient asks the nurse why the medication is being administered using this route instead of an enteral route. How should the nurse respond to the patient?
Answer:
With politeness and explain why the route you are doing is why you chose it.
Explanation:
A patient has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain. Which one of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?
-platelet count
-template bleeding time
-prothrombin time
-activated partial thromboplastin time
The most likely test to be abnormal in a patient taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain is the template bleeding time.
Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can affect the ability of platelets to stick together and form a clot, which can result in prolonged bleeding time. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and activated partial thromboplastin time are not typically affected by aspirin use.
In a patient who has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain, the test most likely to be abnormal is the template bleeding time. Aspirin affects platelet function and can prolong bleeding time, but it does not typically alter platelet count, prothrombin time, or activated partial thromboplastin time.
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the nurse is providing care for a client who had a biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch 2 days ago. how should the nurse best address the client's risk for postoperative venous thromboembolism?
The nurse should assist the client with ambulating as early and often as possible to best address the client's risk for postoperative venous thromboembolism. The correct answer is option(a).
A blood clot in a vein causes a disorder known as venous thromboembolism (VTE). Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism are examples of VTE (PE). A blood clot in a deep vein, typically in the lower leg, thigh, or pelvis, causes DVT.
Ambulation increases circulation, which can aid in preventing the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. Walking increases blood flow, which helps wounds heal more quickly. A crucial intervention in the prevention of VTE is early ambulation. For the prevention of postoperative VTE, coumadin is not utilized. Not venous thromboembolism, but breathing exercises can avoid respiratory problems. The client's skin integrity is preserved by repositioning.
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The nurse is providing care for a client who had a biliopancreatic diversion with a duodenal switch 2 days ago. How should the nurse best address the client's risk for postoperative venous thromboembolism?
a. Assist the client with ambulating as early and often as possible
b. Administer coumadin PO as prescribed
c. Assist the client with performing deep breathing and coughing exercises
d. Reposition the client at least every 2 hours while in bed
Também chamado de Pseudociência, o Negacionismo Científico tem utilizado Técnicas de Negação em três Áreas bastante comuns, a vacina, as sementes transgênicas e o aquecimento global. Leia os textos a seguir e identifique qual Técnica foi usada em ambos os casos para negar os fatos relatados. Negacionistas de vacinas: se o governo pode obrigar você a vacinar seus filhos, então, isso levará a um controle total do governo sobre o seu corpo e todos nós seremos microchipados; Negacionistas do aquecimento global: os cientistas nem sequer conseguem prever como vai estar o tempo amanhã, então, como podemos confiar no que dizem sobre o clima? A) Falsos especialistas. B) Falácias lógicas. C) Expectativas irreais. D) Seleção a dedo. E) Teorias da conspiração.
Answer:ad
sda
Explanation:
ada
Explain in details how one can hear the clapping of the hands. (15 marks)
It is possible to hear the clap of hands due to the vibration created by the contact between the hands.
How does that turn into sound?By clapping one hand against the other, the individual creates vibrations.Vibrations are transferring energy to the surrounding environment.Energy is carried by air in the form of sound waves.The sound wave enters the ear, allowing everyone to hear their sound.In short, it is possible to hear the clapping of hands through the sound waves that are created by the energy of vibrations. These sound waves travel through the air at an extremely fast speed and that is why we hear the sound at the moment when the clapping of hands is performed.
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