Answers
The cortex of the adrenal glands produces corticosteroids, which are further divided into glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgenic sex hormones.
What is corticosteroids?They are frequently used to treat a variety of illnesses known as steroid-responsive disorders and dermatoses.
Corticosteroids are a double-edged sword in that they can have significant benefits with a low incidence of side effects when used in the right dosage and for a short period of time, but the wrong dosage, duration, or hasty withdrawal after prolonged administration can have disastrous consequences.
All medical specialties use corticosteroids. The essential characteristics of this class of medications are reviewed in this activity, along with their broad indications and contraindications, methods of administration, adverse event profile, practical aspects of the pharmacokinetics of various molecules, monitoring requirements, and strategies to maximize benefits and minimize side effects.
Therefore, The cortex of the adrenal glands produces corticosteroids, which are further divided into glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgenic sex hormones.
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Related Questions
What are appropriate ways to communicate written, verbal, and electronic communication
Answers
What device measures oxygen saturation of arterial blood.
Answers
Explanation: is a device that is usually placed on a fingertip. It uses light beams to estimate the oxygen saturation of the blood and the pulse rate. Oxygen saturation gives information about the amount of oxygen carried in the blood.
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HELP!!!
TCS foods should be stored for a maximum of 14 days at 41 degrees F.
False
True
Answers
TCS foods should be stored for a maximum of 14 days at 41 degrees F.
TRUE
or
FALSE
TRUE It's because it won't expired in 1 - 2 Days\(\rm \color{skyblue} \: Thank \: You\)
Only seven days are allowed for ready-to-eat TCS food to be stored at 41 °F (5 °C) or lower. Some bacteria can develop to harmful amounts after this point.
What is TCS food and its role?TCS foods, or time/temperature control for safety foods, are those products. To prevent the growth of bacteria that cause illness, TCS foods need to be kept at specific temperatures and times.
Some foods, usually referred to as potentially hazardous foods, need to be kept at a specific temperature and duration to maintain their safety (PHF).
These foods must be stored at particular temperatures and times to avoid the growth of hazardous microorganisms or the production of poisons.
Therefore, it is true that TCS foods should be stored for a maximum of 14 days at 41 degrees F.
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Given a 20% w/v solution of chlorhexidine gluconate, what volume is required to make 400 mL of a 2% w/v solution?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
A 2% w/v solution contains 2 g in 100 mL, or 8 g in 400 mL.
Create injury 10-12 response cards, simple electronic index cards that describe the symptoms of common injuries and basic first aid procedures.
Answers
Answer:
Ouch! I Just Tripped and Rolled Over My Ankle
If you’re still able to walk, albeit a bit uncomfortably, then relax: It’s not a fracture but simply a sprain. That means a ligament has been stretched or, in more severe cases, torn. About 65 to 75 percent of ankle injuries fall into this category, says David A. Porter, M.D., Ph.D., an orthopedic foot and ankle surgeon at Methodist Sports Medicine, in Indianapolis. Reduce any swelling as soon as possible with RICE: rest, ice, compression, and elevation (recline on a chair and raise your ankle to above hip level). Ice in 10- to 20-minute intervals, with 10-minute breaks in between, for a few hours. Continue RICE intermittently (or whenever you feel pain) for the next few days, and wear only sneakers. The soreness and swelling should go away within a week or at most four weeks. (During this time, the doctor may send you for physical therapy.) If your ankle swells dramatically within the first hour after the injury (for instance, it may look as if a golf ball—size lump is lodged under your skin, or the entire ankle area may be puffy and purple) and you find it almost impossible to walk, you may have a more serious sprain or fracture. See your doctor within 48 hours. He may prescribe physical therapy and outfit you with a walking boot or a brace or, in the case of a broken bone, recommend surgery or a cast.
Creating complex medical terminology often requires
combining many types of word parts to create the
necessary meaning. Terms like electroencephalograph
are composed of four or five word parts that require
special forms of word parts in order to create a usable
term
A root word with an added vowel at the end that makes
it easier to pronounce when combined with a suffix that
begins with a consonant is known as a
Answers
Answer:
combining form
Explanation:
Answer
1, 2, 3 ( drop down menu )
Explanation:
What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?
Answers
Answer:
geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Explanation:
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If the hand cart that the delivery person is using to transfer food from the truck to the restaurant is supplied with food debris which action would prevent cross contact from the hand cart
Answers
The delivery person that transfers food from the truck to the restaurant, can prevent cross-contamination by washing the cart every time.
Cross Contamination:
The physical movement of harmful microbes such as bacteria and viruses from one person, thing, or place to another.
Prevention of cross-contamination can save the population many foods born diseases. The cross-contamination can be prevented by,
Washing the hands, and avoiding touching unnecessary surfaces or things during food handling.Use the sterile cart, or utensils to avoid cross-contamination.Always cover the food, while they are not in use.Therefore, the delivery person that transfers food from the truck to the restaurant, can prevent cross-contamination by washing the cart every time.
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Many family members of people suffering from Alzheimer’s or some other form of dementia try to care for their relative for as long as possible. There are many advantages of having a close relative care for a mentally challenged loved one, but there are often disadvantages or difficulties as well. Describe some of the factors to consider when deciding whether or not to care for a relative with dementia. At what point should the relative consider a professional care situation such as assisted living or a nursing home’s dementia care center? Think about such considerations as respect for the dignity of the person with dementia as well as positive social interactions with caregivers and others when forming your answer.
Answers
Answer:
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In which part of the circulatory system do body tissues exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide with the blood?
1. the heart
2. the arteries
3. the veins
4. the lungs
5. the capillaries
Answers
Answer:
5. the capillaries
Explanation:
Capillaries: These blood vessels connect very small arteries (arterioles) and veins (venules). Capillaries have thin walls that allow oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients and waste products to pass into and out of cells
If an 1800-kcalorie diet contains 100 grams of fat, the percentage of kcal from the fat is: a. 20 %. b. 35 %. c. 50 %. d. 65 %.
Answers
Answer:
It should be about 5.4% which adds up to about 100.8 calories. None of these answer options appear to be consistent with that
Explanation:
1,800*0.20=360 kcals
1,800*0.35=630 kcals
Anything higher than those values is much too high for fat intake.
The Dietary Reference Intake for fat in adults is 20% to 35% of total calories from fat. The 100 grams of fat will produce a percentage of 50% of kcal.
Fats are the essential nutrient, which is required by humans. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats yield calories or energy to carry out vital functions in the body.
Each gram of protein and carbohydrate yield 4 calories, whereas fats yield 9 calories per gram.
Given:
Kcal of diet = 1800
Fat in diet = 100 grams
We know that,
1 gram of fat = 9 calories
100 gram of fat =\(100 \times 9\) = 900 calories
The 900 calories are half of the total calorie intake of the diet. Thus, the 100 gram fat will yield 50% of the calories in the diet.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C.
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An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
10. Which of the following are keys to thinking critically? (Check all that apply)
✓ Define your terms
✓ Tolerate uncertainty
✓ Consider other interpretations
Statistical analysis
Experimenter effects
Don't oversimplify
Ask questions
Avoid emotional reasoning
Answers
Answer:
Avoid emotional reasoning
Statistical analysis
Define your terms
Ask questions
Consider other interpretations
Explanation:
Emotional reasoning causes one to act solely on their feelings, making the conclusion inaccurate
Statistical Analysis is reasonable and valid. It can help you think reasonably
Defining your terms makes you decide what you are okay and not okay with.
Asking questions makes it easier to find answers. Nothing wrong with that.
Considering other point of views besides your own can give you a new outlook, and close discernment.
explain the difference between the brand name and the generic name.
Answers
The generic name of assigned by the manufacturer who develops the drug. The brand name of the drug is what it is marketed under.
What is generic and brand name drug?Every medicine has 2 names: a brand name, from the pharmaceutical company that markets the medicine. a generic name, which is the medicine's active ingredient that makes it work.
A generic drug is a medication with the exact same active ingredient as the brand-name drug, is taken the same way and offers the same effect.
The difference between brand name and generic drugs is in the circumstances of producing the drugs. While brand name drug refers to the name giving by the producing company, generic drug refers to a drug produced after the active ingredient of the brand name drug.
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What are the drivers of the healthcare industry's focus on patient satisfaction and on employing resources in an effective manner? Discuss various patient satisfaction evaluation tools, how they affect funding, and physician salaries. Discuss CMS's value on patient satisfaction and how it affects reimbursement. Summarize succinctly in a conclusion/summary paragraph.
Answers
Patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive.
The healthcare industry focuses on patient satisfaction and employing resources in an efficient manner to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. The following are the drivers of this focus:
Changing Payment Models: Healthcare providers' reimbursement is increasingly tied to quality and patient satisfaction scores. This motivates providers to focus on improving patient satisfaction to maintain financial stability.Competition: Healthcare organizations must compete with one another to attract patients and maintain market share. Patients are more likely to choose providers who have a reputation for providing high-quality care and positive patient experiences.Patient-Centred Care: The healthcare industry is shifting towards a more patient-centred approach to care, which requires providers to focus on the individual needs and preferences of their patients. This approach involves involving patients in decision-making, providing education and support, and fostering trust and communication.Various patient satisfaction evaluation tools include surveys, focus groups, and direct feedback from patients. These tools allow healthcare organizations to gather data on patients' experiences and identify areas for improvement. The data is used to guide quality improvement initiatives, staff training, and resource allocation decisions.
Positive patient satisfaction scores may attract additional funding from investors or donors. Additionally, physicians with high patient satisfaction scores may receive bonuses or salary increases.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ties reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores. CMS has implemented the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey, which measures patients' perceptions of their hospital experience. Hospitals must meet specific benchmarks to receive full reimbursement from Medicare. Therefore, organizations that perform poorly on the HCAHPS survey may receive lower reimbursement rates, which can impact their financial stability.
In conclusion, patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive. Additionally, CMS has implemented programs that tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores, which further incentivizes healthcare organizations to prioritize patient satisfaction.
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1. In what school-related situations would inattentional blindness likely cause problems? Describe
the situation.
Answers
Answer:
The term "inattentional blindness" was first coined by psychologists Arien Mack, Ph.D., and Irvin Rock, Ph.D., who observed the phenomenon during their perception and attention experiments. "Because this inability to perceive, this sighted blindness, seemed to be caused by the fact that subjects were not attending to the stimulus but instead were attending to something else.
Explanation:
You believe you are paying attention to the road, but you miss the automobile swerving into your lane of traffic because you were distracted, which leads to a collision.
What Is Inattentional Blindness?
When a person fails to perceive an obvious but unexpected visual stimulation in their field of vision, they are said to be inattentional blind (Simons & Chabris, 1999).
This momentary unawareness is probably caused by the plethora of visual stimuli that demand attention.
When a child is focused on an object or an event, they typically miss out on other information. Inattentional blindness is the name for this frequent occurrence.
We used a motion task to investigate the developmental variation of inattentional blindness and to investigate the age-related degree of these phenomena.
Therefore, high mental work load likely cause problems.
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Alex jordan's herniated disk did not respond to physical therapy or other treatment, so her orthopedic surgeon performed a/an to remove a fragment of the disk
Answers
lex Jordan's orthopedic surgeon most likely performed a surgical procedure called a discectomy to remove the fragment of the herniated disk.
What is hernia?A hernia is a condition where an organ or tissue bulges through a weak spot or tear in the surrounding muscle or connective tissue that holds it in place. Hernias can occur in various parts of the body, but they most commonly occur in the abdominal wall, resulting in a visible bulge or lump under the skin. There are several types of hernias, including inguinal hernias, which occur in the groin area; femoral hernias, which occur in the upper thigh; umbilical hernias, which occur at the belly button; hiatal hernias, which occur in the upper stomach area; and incisional hernias, which occur at the site of a previous surgical incision. Hernias can be caused by a variety of factors, including weakness in the muscles or connective tissue due to age, injury, or surgery, as well as chronic coughing, straining during bowel movements, or heavy lifting. They can be treated with surgery to repair the hernia and prevent further complications.
Here,
A discectomy involves removing the portion of the intervertebral disc that is causing pressure on the spinal cord or nerve root, thereby relieving the associated pain and other symptoms. It is a common surgical treatment for herniated discs that do not respond to non-surgical treatments like physical therapy, medication, or epidural injections.
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Answer:
percutaneous discectomy
Explanation:
PEDIATRIC CALCULATIONSExample: A child weighing 76 lbs. is ordered to receive 150 mg of Clindamycin every six (6) hours. The recommended pediatric dose is 8-20 mg / kg / day in four divided doses.The Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets.1. What is the weight in kg
Answers
Complete question: A child weighing 76 lbs. is ordered to receive 150 mg of Clindamycin q6h.
The pediatric drug handbook states the recommended dose is 8-20 mg/kg/day in four divided doses.
The Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets.
1.) What is the weight in kg?
2.) What is the safe total daily dose?
3.) Is the prescribed dose safe?
4.) Calculate the number of tablets to give.
Answer:
1.) 34.55 kgs
2.) 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day
3.) YES
4.) 1.5 tablets
Explanation:
Paediatric calculations are performed by medical personnel using the child's weight to avoid medication errors. Clindamycin is a broad spectrum antibiotics which is used for the treatment of different infections both in adult and children. It's dosage should be properly calculated by the medical personnel to avoid drug abuse and serious adverse effects.
1.) To calculate the body weight of the child from pound( lbs) to Kilogram ( kg):
1 kg = 2.2 lbs
Therefore 76 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 34.55 kgs
2.) To determine the safe total daily dose:
The recommended pediatric dose is 8-20 mg / kg / day in four divided doses.
Therefore, safe total daily dose: 34.55 x 8 = 276.36 mg
34.55 x 20 = 690.91 mg
safe dosage range: 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day
3.) To determine if the prescribed dose is safe is:
150 mg x 4 doses/day = 600 mg/day;
Since 600 mg/day is within the safe dosage range which is 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day, the prescribed dose is SAFE.
4.) To determine the number of tables to give:
Note that the Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets. But the child is ordered to receive 150mg of Clindamycin. Therefore the number of tablets to receive is;
150 ÷ 100 = 1.5 tablets.
In what respects does epidemiology differ from clinical medicine?
Answers
Answer:
Epidemiology and clinical medicine are both fields of study related to health and disease, but they differ in several key respects:
Scope and Population-level Focus: Epidemiology is the study of health and disease patterns in populations, typically at the community, regional, national, or global level. It focuses on understanding the distribution, determinants, and patterns of health and disease in populations, including factors such as risk factors, prevalence, incidence, and outcomes. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and management of individual patients at the level of the individual or small groups of patients.
Study Design and Methods: Epidemiology typically employs observational study designs, such as cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies, to investigate the relationships between exposures (such as risk factors) and health outcomes in populations. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, often involves randomized controlled trials (RCTs), systematic reviews, and other experimental designs to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions or treatments in individual patients.
Emphasis on Population Health and Prevention: Epidemiology places a strong emphasis on population health and disease prevention. Epidemiologists study patterns of disease occurrence and work to identify and understand risk factors and determinants of health in populations, with the goal of informing public health policies and interventions to prevent disease and promote health at the population level. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, focuses on diagnosing, treating, and managing diseases in individual patients, with the goal of improving the health outcomes of individual patients.
Role in Public Health and Policy: Epidemiology plays a critical role in public health practice, as it provides evidence for the development of public health policies and interventions to improve population health. Epidemiologists work closely with public health agencies and policymakers to identify and mitigate health risks, monitor disease trends, and develop strategies for disease prevention and control. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, is primarily concerned with providing individual patient care and is typically not directly involved in the development of public health policies.
Data and Analysis: Epidemiology often involves the analysis of large datasets, such as population-based surveys, health records, and other epidemiological databases, to identify patterns and trends in health and disease at the population level. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, primarily relies on individual patient data, including medical history, physical examinations, and laboratory tests, to diagnose and treat diseases in individual patients.
Overall, while both epidemiology and clinical medicine are important fields of study related to health and disease, they differ in their scope, study designs, methods, emphasis on population health, role in public health and policy, and data analysis approaches. Understanding these differences is crucial for accurately interpreting and applying findings from both fields in healthcare practice and public health interventions.
Explanation:
The meaning of analysis is
A. absence of a whole
B. to dissect.
C. a cutting apart.
D. a separating into parts.
Answers
Answer:
the answer is C. a cutting apart
Good asceptic technique protects healthcare workers, as well as
patients from contamination. List 3 practices that asceptic
technique includes:
Answers
Three practices that aseptic technique includes are:
handling surgical equipment assisting with a vaginal delivery of a babydealing with dialysis cathetersWhat is aseptic technique?Aseptic technique refers to the use of practices and procedures to prevent pathogen contamination. It entails following the strictest rules to reduce the risk of infection. Aseptic technique is used by healthcare workers in surgery rooms, clinics, outpatient care centers, and other health care settings.
The aseptic technique has four major components: barriers, patient equipment and preparation, environmental controls, and contact guidelines. During a medical procedure, each plays an important role in infection prevention.
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You are the administrator of LTC facility in Ontario and it has come to your attention that IR was not filled out for the injury that patient sustained from improper transfering technique A. You ensure that you speak to all your staff and coach them to follow P and P about incident reports B. You fill and IR yourself and forget about this oversight C. Your fire the staff members involved in this incident
Answers
As the administrator of an LTC (Long-Term Care) facility in Ontario, you have become aware that an incident report (IR) was not completed for a patient's injury resulting from improper transferring technique.
To address this matter, it is essential to take appropriate action. The recommended course of action is to engage in open communication with all staff members and provide coaching on the significance of adhering to the facility's policies and procedures concerning incident reports. By doing so, you proactively address the issue, emphasizing the importance of accountability and adherence to protocols. This approach aims to prevent similar incidents in the future and fosters a culture of safety and responsibility within the LTC facility.
Option A, which focuses on education and training rather than punitive measures, aligns with the best approach to enhance patient safety and well-being in the facility.
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how long does covid stay on surfaces and fabrics 2022
Answers
The length of time that COVID-19 can survive on surfaces and fabrics can vary depending on several factors, including the type of surface or fabric, temperature, humidity, and other environmental conditions.
However, as of my knowledge cutoff in September 2021, it was known that COVID-19 can survive on surfaces for up to several days under certain conditions.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the virus that causes COVID-19 can survive on some surfaces and objects for hours to days. The length of time varies depending on the surface or object, as well as the environmental conditions.
Studies have shown that the virus can survive for up to 72 hours on plastic and stainless steel surfaces, up to 24 hours on cardboard surfaces, and up to 4 hours on copper surfaces.
Regarding fabrics, research has shown that the virus can remain infectious for up to 24 hours on clothing materials such as cotton and polyester. However, it is worth noting that the risk of transmission from contaminated surfaces and fabrics can be minimized through frequent cleaning and disinfection, as well as regular hand hygiene practices.
As of now, I am not updated on any specific findings related to the length of time that COVID-19 can survive on surfaces and fabrics in the year 2022.
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During service hot food should be held at a minimum temperature of
Answers
Answer:
60 celcius
Explanation:
.Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?
A.
Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound.
B.
Tape the occlusive dressing on two sides only to create dual flaps for relief pressure build-up.
C.
Tape the dressing securely on three sides.
D.
Use a porous material such as a 4double prime′′ by 4double prime′′ gauze pad.
Answers
The proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound is described by option C: Tape the dressing securely on three sides.
An occlusive dressing is used to seal an open chest wound, preventing air from entering the chest cavity, which could lead to a tension pneumothorax. By taping the dressing securely on three sides, you create a one-way valve effect that allows air to escape from the chest cavity while preventing additional air from entering the wound.
1. Clean the area around the wound to remove any debris or contaminants.
2. Choose a non-porous material, such as plastic or foil, for the occlusive dressing. It should be larger than the wound.
3. Apply the dressing over the wound, ensuring it fully covers the area.
4. Tape the dressing securely on three sides, leaving the fourth side open to create a one-way valve effect.
Proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound involves using a non-porous material and taping it securely on three sides, allowing for a one-way valve effect that prevents air from entering the chest cavity while permitting air to escape.
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I am not sure I am entirely correct. The question says the statements that are correct. Can someone double-check me! Any help is appreciated :)
Answers
discuss the physiological reasons why we get old
Answers
Answer:
its normal we get old we are living beings its a natural process
i hope its helps you
Which element increase in a community as a direct result of gang activity
Answers
Answer:
The causes that originate the existence of youth gangs are similar to those that originate drug addiction, such as lack of communication and Page 26 16 understanding between parents and children, family disintegration, bad company and abandonment in which many young people live.
Explanation:
Gradually reduce your relationship with other known gang members. The less you are in the area, the better. Look for activities that keep you busy and away from that area. » I get a job in another neighborhood. Even if it is a part-time job, it will help you while breaking off the relationship with the gang.
The infant is placed on the ambulance stretcher and responds with a groan when stimulated and has a temperature of 36.3 C (97.3 F)
Choose matching definition
1. Administer a second dose of adenosine at 0.2 mg/kg (maximum second dose 12 mg)
2.
- Assess and support the airway, oxygenation and ventiliation
- Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram if practical
- Attach a continuous electrocardiographic monitor/defibrillator and a pulse oximeter
3. Pulls the ribs slight inward
However, forcefully contracting the diaphragm results in a large drop in pressure within the chest, retracting
4.
- Monitor and support ABCs
- Establish IV/IO access
- Monitor heart rate, blood pressure, and pulse oximetry
- Call for assistance if needed
Answers
The correct answer is option 4. It describes a set of steps to take when responding to a medical emergency. These steps involve monitoring and supporting the patient's airway, heart rate, breathing, and circulation (ABCs).
When establishing intravenous or intraosseous access, monitoring heart rate, blood pressure, and pulse oximetry, and calling for assistance as needed. "Monitor and support ABCs" refers to monitoring and supporting the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. The airway should be assessed to ensure that it is open and clear, and oxygen should be provided if needed to support breathing. The patient's circulation should be monitored by checking for signs of pulse, heart rate, and blood pressure.
"Establish IV/IO access" refers to establishing intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) access for the administration of medications or fluids. IV or IO access allows for rapid administration of medications or fluids in case of an emergency.
"Monitor heart rate, blood pressure, and pulse oximetry" refers to monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their physiological status. Heart rate is the number of times the heart beats in a minute, blood pressure is the pressure of blood against the walls of arteries, and pulse oximetry is a measure of the oxygen saturation in the blood.
"Call for assistance if needed" means that if additional resources are required to manage the patient, such as additional medical personnel or equipment, they should be requested. This is important in order to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate care in a timely manner.
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Respond to the following three problems. Show your work for any calculations performed. Each accurate and complete response is worth 20 points.
Problem 1. Formulate your answer based on the below information. The intensity of care delivered dropped from a budgeted case mix of 0.90 to an actual case mix of 0.85. What dollar effect did this have on actual costs?
You have been asked by management to explain the variances in costs under your inpatient capitated contract. The following data is provided. Use the following data to calculate the variances.
Budget
Actual
Inpatient Costs
$12,568,500
$16,618,350
Members
42,000
42,000
Admission Rate
0.070
0.095
Case Mix Index
0.90
0.85
Cost per Case (CMI = 1.0)
$4,750
$4,900
Problem 2. Based on the information below, what rate must be set to generate the required $80,000 in profit in the preceding example?
You have been asked to establish a pricing structure for radiology on a per-procedure basis. Present budgetary data is presented below:
Budgeted Procedures
10,000
Budgeted Cost
$400,000
Desired Profit
$80,000
It is estimated that Medicare patients comprise 40 percent of total radiology volume and will pay on average $38.00 per procedure. Approximately 10 percent of the patients are cost payers. The remaining charge payers are summarized below:
Payer
Volume%
Discount%
Blue Cross
20
4
Unity PPO
15
10
Kaiser
10
10
Self Pay
5
40
50%
Problem 3. What is the amount of variance that is attributed to the difference between the budgeted and actual wage rate per hour?
Use the following data to calculate the variances.
The following information has been prepared for a home health agency.
Budget
Actual
Wage Rate per Hour
$16.00
$17.00
Fixed Hours
320
320
Variable Hours per Relative
Value Unit (RVU)
1.0
1.1
Relative Value Units (RVUs)
1,000
1,200
Total Labor Hours
1,320
1,640
Labor Costs
$21,120
$27,880
Cost per RVU
$21.12
$23.23
Budgeted costs at actual volume would be $25,344 ($21.12 × 1,200), and the total variance to be explained is $2,536 Unfavorable ($27,880 - $25,344). Be sure to specify whether the variance is favorable or unfavorable.
Answers
Answer:
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Explanation:
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