Answers
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
Related Questions
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following is one of the main elements for proper running form?
A. head action
B. arm angle
C. Stride
D. Flexibility
Answers
Among the options provided, one of the main elements for proper running form is Stride.option C.
The stride refers to the length and cadence of each step taken while running. It encompasses various components, including stride length, stride frequency, and foot placement.Optimal stride length is crucial to efficient running form. It is the distance covered from the point of initial contact of one foot to the point of initial contact of the same foot again. Stride length should be neither too short nor too long, as both can negatively impact running economy and increase the risk of injury. A balanced stride length allows for efficient forward propulsion while minimizing excessive vertical oscillation.Stride frequency, also known as cadence, refers to the number of steps taken per minute. A higher cadence is generally associated with more efficient running form. Increasing stride frequency can help reduce ground contact time and enhance running economy.Proper foot placement during the stride is essential to ensure a smooth and efficient running gait. Landing with the foot directly underneath the body's center of mass, known as a midfoot or forefoot strike, promotes shock absorption and forward propulsion.
It helps to avoid overstriding, where the foot lands too far in front of the body, which can lead to braking forces and inefficient running mechanics.While the other options mentioned (A. head action, B. arm angle, and D. flexibility) can also influence running form, stride is a fundamental element that directly affects running efficiency, performance, and injury prevention. It is crucial to pay attention to stride length, frequency, and foot placement to maintain proper running form.option C.
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What is anaerobic activity Question 1 options: low intensity exercises done for long periods of time short burst intense exercises designed to improve strength activity designed to improve flexibility exercises done using oxygen as fuel
Answers
Answer: short burst, its an intense workout
Explanation:
ANA-robic means without oxygen therefore what you are doing must be fast and intense.
A food provides 15 grams of protein and 300 total kilocalories. What is the percentage of
protein kilocalories in this product (ie percent kilocalories represented as protein).
(Hint1: When completely burnt. 1 gram of fat gives 9 kilocalories, 1 gram of protein gives 4
kilocalories, and 1 gram of carbohydrates gives 4 kilocalories, 1 gram of alcohol gives 7
kilocalories.).
[Hint 2: Percent=(Parts/Whole) x 100/1]
20%
27%
30%
37%
3%.
Answers
The percentage of protein kilocalories in the given food product is 30% (option c).
To calculate the percentage of protein kilocalories, we need to determine the number of kilocalories provided by the protein and then divide it by the total kilocalories in the food.
Given that the food provides 15 grams of protein, we can calculate the number of protein kilocalories by multiplying the protein content (15 grams) by the number of kilocalories per gram of protein (4 kilocalories/gram). Thus, the protein kilocalories can be calculated as 15 grams × 4 kilocalories/gram = 60 kilocalories.
Next, we divide the protein kilocalories (60 kilocalories) by the total kilocalories in the food (300 kilocalories) and multiply by 100 to obtain the percentage. So, the percentage of protein kilocalories is (60 kilocalories / 300 kilocalories) × 100 = 20%.
Therefore, the correct answer is not 20%, as it represents the overall percentage of protein in the food, but rather 30% is the correct answer for the percentage of protein kilocalories in the product. Thus, the correct option is c.
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Read the following patient information and determine which of these options most closely resembles what you would find on an electronic medical record. O A. Carrie, diagnosed with leukemia in 2014, single, white female, owns one dog and one cat, drives a motorcycle O B. Alisha, 29 year old female, diagnosed with diabetes, enjoys fly- fishing, golfing, and dancing O C. Charles, 47 year old male, allergic to aspirin, all immunizations current D. Ronald, 60 year old male, high blood pressure, owes dentist $64 O
Answers
Answer:
Charles, 47 year old male, allergic to aspirin, all immunizations current
Explanation:
What is the
A at least 2 hours per day
B. 4 hours per week
C. at least 1 hour per day
D. no more than 30 minutes per day
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
O O
recommended amount of physical activity for children?
A
Mark this and return
Save and Exit
Next
Submit
Answers
It is recommended that children practice at least 1 hour of physical activity per day, as shown in option C.
What are the benefits of physical activity for children?Better physical and mental development.Diabetes prevention.Relaxation and fun.Promotes socialization.Physical activity is very important to promote health and physical and mental development, but it is important that it be practiced for correct periods, 1 hour a day is recommended for children.
Physical activity is important not only for health, but it promotes relaxation and socialization which is very important for children.
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Scientists have found ways of extracting bitumen from the ground, called tar sands extraction, and turning the sticky material into usable products. Which of these is a direct negative impact of this process?
Answers
Oil spill is the direct negative impact of this process of tar sands and bitumen extraction in this scenario.
What is Bitumen?This is produced when crude oil is distilled under special conditions and is used to tar roads etc.
Oil spill into water bodies is the negative impact which bitumen extraction will lead to.
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A direct negative impact of this process is because the bitumen is extracted from the evaporation of oil, thus being considered more harmful by the burning of fossil fuel.
How is bitumen extracted?A bitumen is an impure mixture of hydrocarbons, sometimes including deposits of petroleum, asphalt or natural gas, although sometimes the term is reserved for a viscous type of tar to asphalt. Solid bitumen can emerge as oil from petroleum evaporation.
With this information, we can conclude that a direct negative impact of this process is because the bitumen is extracted from the evaporation of oil, thus being considered more harmful by the burning of fossil fuel.
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8. The purpose of a garnish is to stimulate dish's appearance and enhances the
Answers
Answer:
Sense of sight?
Explanation:
Appear to be attractive. Add in the answer please.
Eric spends about six hours a day playing video
games. He resents being called away from the computer
for supper. He has lost interest in most other
activities and his grades are dropping. What type of
mental disorder might Eric have?
Answers
Which of the following is considered an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)?
Answers
Eating is considered an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL). Option B
Instrumental to daily livingTasks that are essential for independent living and call for both cognitive and physical abilities are referred to as instrumental activities of daily living. IADLs include things like taking care of money, managing medications, cooking, cleaning, and transportation.
Medication management and self-care depend on the capacity to take medication properly and on schedule, making it a necessary daily task.
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MIssing parts;
Which of the following is considered an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)? O a. bathing ob. eating c. transferring Od taking medication
as a nurse, state and explain 5 clinical or medical significance of tissue
Answers
Connects many body parts such as ligament, connects bones to another bones.
Provides nutrition to our body such as blood also transport nutrients to many parts of the body.
It fights against many infectious pathogens.
Support blood cells that carry oxygen to and waste materials from the cells in the body.
Health
Why is it important to warm up before a game or physical activity?
Answers
From the list below, select all of the items a fire escape plan should include.
Answers
Answer:
A fire escape plan should include multiple escape routes and a safe and secure meeting place outside of the building. I am 95% sure about the periodic practice, but you DEFINITELY DO NOT have someone assigned to go back into the building during a fire.
Explanation:
Hope this helped <3
Answer:
what is the list? if you can, please provide the list in the next question you ask.
What is an example of a psychoactive drug that is legal in most places?
A.
opium
B.
caffeine
C.
heroin
D.
LSD
Answers
Answer:
opium A
Explanation:
7 Drug Categories | International Association of Chiefs of Police
International Association of Chiefs of Police
DREs classify drugs in one of seven categories: central nervous system (CNS) ... Examples of narcotic analgesics include opium, codeine, heroin, Demerol, ...
Why do you think the FDA requires some products to have an "As Prepared" label?
Answers
Answer:
The main reason for including this label is so consumers can be informed when making dietary decisions. For example, a "Hamburger Helper"-type box meal may say it only has 400 calories per serving as packaged.
Answer:
The FDA is responsible for regulating other food and health-related items. Examples include processed foods and diet pills. FDA requires some products to have an "As Prepared" label, the main reason for together with this label is thus customers will be enlightened once creating dietary selections. as an example, a "Hamburger Helper"-type box meal could say it solely has four hundred calories per serving as prepackaged. However, once an individual gets around to adding all the extra ingredients that did not are available in the box, it should double or perhaps triple the number of calories per serving.
Explanation:
Un which of the following are the tríceps considered agonist
Answers
Answer:
Now, if we are talking about active elbow extension, the triceps is the agonist because it causes the action, and the biceps is the antagonist.
A 2-year-old arrives with a 2-day history of vomiting and diarrhea. The patient has a fever of 38.4oC (101.2°F), resting HR of 152 beats/minute, RR of 34 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 94/ 56 mm Hg. Assessment reveals a capillary refill time of > 5 seconds. Which of the following would be most indicative of the need for intravenous rehydration therapy for this patient?
Answers
The most indicative factor for the need for intravenous rehydration therapy in this patient is the prolonged capillary refill time (>5 seconds).
The vital signs and assessment findings indicate that the 2-year-old patient is experiencing symptoms of dehydration. The presence of vomiting, diarrhea, and a capillary refill time of >5 seconds suggests fluid loss, which may necessitate intravenous rehydration therapy.
However, it is important to note that a comprehensive medical evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate course of treatment. In this case, the vital signs and assessment findings that are most indicative of the need for intravenous rehydration therapy include the elevated heart rate (HR) of 152 beats/minute, the increased respiratory rate (RR) of 34 breaths/minute, and the blood pressure of 94/56 mm Hg.
These findings suggest that the patient's body is attempting to compensate for fluid loss and maintain adequate circulation. Elevated heart rate (tachycardia) is a common physiological response to dehydration as the body tries to compensate for decreased blood volume by pumping blood faster.
Increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) is another compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Low blood pressure may indicate reduced blood volume and inadequate tissue perfusion.
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Diseases can develop due to the reactivation of an ______ organism.
Answers
Answer:
Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms — such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They're normally harmless or even helpful. But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease
What’s the answer?????
Answers
Answer:it is the fourth answer if you are concerned you should talk to them about it.
Explanation:talk to elder hope this helps.
Fentanyl, the synthetic opioid sold illegally on
the street that is mixed with heroin or other
drugs, poses an extremely high risk of overdose
because
of its greater toxicity; an extremely small dose
can be lethal.
overdoses can occur more suddenly, narrowing
the window for intervention.
it may be undetectable when mixed with heroin
or pressed into pills.
O All of the above
Answers
Answer:
O All of the aboveExplanation:
All of the statements mentioned are true regarding the high risk of overdose associated with fentanyl. Fentanyl, a synthetic opioid, is known to be highly potent and has a much higher toxicity compared to other opioids. This means that even a small dose of fentanyl can be lethal, leading to a high risk of overdose.
what is 2 + 2 i realy suck at math
Answers
Answer:
It's 4 obviously. 2 + 2 = 4
Answer:
4
Explanation:
2+2=4 just like 2×2=4
Choose from one of the following Chemistry tests. Provide two (2) instances where you may see the value increase or decrease. Explain the rationale for your answer. Try to be original in your answer. This may require some investigation on your part!
Bilirubin
Calcium
Phosphorus
Potassium
Urea Nitrogen
Answers
I choose Bilirubin as the Chemistry test. Bilirubin levels can increase in liver disease and hemolytic anemia due to impaired metabolism and increased breakdown of red blood cells. However, improved liver function and resolution of hemolytic anemia can lead to a decrease in bilirubin levels, indicating restored liver function and reduced red blood cell destruction.
I choose Bilirubin as the Chemistry test.
Instances where the value of Bilirubin may increase:
1. Liver disease: Bilirubin is primarily metabolized and excreted by the liver. In conditions such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, liver function is compromised, leading to impaired bilirubin metabolism. This can result in an increase in bilirubin levels in the blood.
2. Hemolytic anemia: Increased breakdown of red blood cells (hemolysis) can lead to an elevated production of bilirubin. Conditions like sickle cell anemia or autoimmune hemolytic anemia can cause an increase in bilirubin levels due to the excessive destruction of red blood cells.
Instances where the value of Bilirubin may decrease:
1. Improved liver function: If a person with liver disease undergoes successful treatment or experiences improvement in liver function, bilirubin levels may decrease. This indicates the restoration of proper bilirubin metabolism and excretion by the liver.
2. Resolving hemolytic anemia: If the underlying cause of hemolytic anemia is treated or resolved, such as through medication or blood transfusions, the excessive breakdown of red blood cells is reduced. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood may decrease.
Please note that these are general examples, and specific cases may vary. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for an accurate interpretation of bilirubin test results in individual cases.
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166. What are the recommended servings of
fruits and vegetables per day?
A. 11-15 servings per day
B. 3-4 servings per day
C. 1-2 servings per day
D. 5-10 servings per day
Answers
Depending on their age and sex federal guidelines recommend that adults eat at least 1½ to 2 cups per day of fruit and 2 to 3 cups per day of vegetables as part of a healthy eating pattern. :)
How do you think heredity and environment affect or connect to
defects?
Answers
Answer with Explanation:
Heredity and environment may play a role in connection to birth defects.
For example, when it comes to heredity, some genes can be transferred to children. An example of this is the "sickle cell disease." If parents transfer two of these genes to the child, then the child will most likely inherit the disease.
Another example, when it comes to environment, the exposure of a mother to certain factors like radiation, drugs (teratogens), alcohol, etc. may result to birth defects in children. When it comes to alcohol, mothers who have been drinking alcohol while pregnant will deliver a baby with "fetal alcohol syndrome." The baby with this syndrome will have problems with his learning ability, physical disproportions (esp. the face), will be hyperactive, etc.
How do you think the way the fibers are arranged contributes to the strength of the cell wall
Answers
The more organized and uniform the arrangement of fibers, the stronger the cell wall will be. The distribution of cellulose microfibrils is important for plant cell wall growth and development. The orientation of microfibrils varies during different growth stages, thereby influencing the properties of the cell wall.
The arrangement of the fibers in the cell wall contributes significantly to its strength. Cell walls of plants are mainly made of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, and lignin. Cellulose is the primary component and is made of glucose monomers arranged in long chains.
These chains are organized in a crystalline structure called microfibrils. The arrangement of these microfibrils plays a vital role in the strength of the cell wall. Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a cross-linked network, which is laid down as concentric layers around the cell.
The fibers of each layer are oriented at angles that differ from the fibers in adjacent layers. This arrangement is responsible for the exceptional strength of the cell wall against mechanical stress. It provides mechanical strength to the cell and offers resistance against bending, stretching, and compression.
The orientation of the fibers also determines the mechanical properties of the cell wall. It affects how the cell wall responds to stress and determines its plasticity and elasticity.
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Conditions or disorders like vitamin deficiency, thyroid disorder and depression may mimic the symptoms of dementia.
O True
O False
Answers
Answer:true
Explanation:
they all have the same symptoms as dementia
The development of institutional review boards and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act have eliminated ethical concerns about issues such as clinical care, informed consent, and drug testing.A. TrueB. False
Answers
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
The development of institutional review boards and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act was set up to help curb issues associated with clinical care, informed consent, and drug testing.
The Act however has not eliminated these issues due to behavioral differences etc but serves as a form of check and balance of an aspect of the healthcare system so it doesn’t become a norm.
Which of the following statements BEST describes chromosomes?
A.
Humans have 460 chromosomes in every cell.
B.
Chromosomes are arranged in 230 pairs.
C.
Chromosomes carry the codes for hereditary traits.
D.
Chromosomes are found outside the nucleus of each human cell.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
A
B
C
D
Answers
DNA and proteins combine to form the thread-like chromosomes. A DNA molecule contains the codes for inherited features.
What statement is true about chromosomes?Chromosomes can be found in the nucleus. It acts as a gene carrier and aids in inheritance. Additionally, it contains DNA in the form of proteins and chromatin.Consequently, the answer "Pairing and seperation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the proposal of a factor they carried" is the correct one.The DNA molecule is bundled into chromosomes, which are thread-like objects found in the nucleus of every cell. The proteins known as histones that support the shape of each chromosome are formed of DNA that is tightly wound numerous times.Chromosomes' primary role is to transport DNA and pass genetic material from one set of parents to another. During cell division, chromosomes are crucial. They guard the DNA against tangles and damage.To learn more about chromosomes refer to:
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this doesn't help students who are actually struggling. if you really want to help make it free
Answers
Answer:
I'm a beginner as well and I'm not getting the point here as well.
Which of the following devices is considered contaminated?
Select the 4 answer options that apply.
Used IV tubing with NO visible blood
A used needle
A syringe detached from the used needle
Used IV tubing with visible blood
Answers
Answer:
a used needle
Explanation:
All the devices in the options are considered contaminated which are
Used IV tubing with NO visible blood
A used needle
A syringe detached from the used needle
Used IV tubing with visible blood
According to the CDC on safe injection practices, Once injection supplies and materials have been used , they should be discarded because they have potentials for contamination. We cannot rule out the fact that Pathogens found in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as well as Hepatitis can be present to cause infection both in the presence and absence of blood. This is to buttress the fact that some bacteria and other microbes can be present which we cannot see physically and because blood is not visible in a used syringe or IV tubing does not mean the item is pathogen free.It is therefore pertinent that:
Needles or syringes should be used for only one patient and discarded immediately after use.Used IV tubing with visible blood or no visible blood should be discarded and never reused.See related answer here: https://brainly.com/question/21906950
Question
02/04
Drag and drop to put the steps for donning CAPR under airborne
precautions into the correct order.
Inspect PPE prior to
Step 1
Answers
We can see here the steps for donning CAPR under airborne precautions in the correct order:
Perform hand hygiene. Wash your hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds, or use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer.Put on a gown. Make sure the gown covers your arms and your back.Put on gloves. Make sure the gloves fit snugly and cover your entire hand.What are airborne precautions?Airborne precautions are a set of infection control measures implemented in healthcare settings to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases that are spread through airborne particles.
4. Put on a face mask. Make sure the mask fits snugly over your nose and mouth.
5. Put on a CAPR. Make sure the CAPR is properly fitted and that the straps are secure.
6. Enter the room. Once you are properly attired, you can enter the room to care for the patient.
7. Remove your PPE. When you are finished caring for the patient, remove your PPE in the reverse order that you put it on.
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