What organism lives in oregon and is considered one of the most dangerous creatures?
Answers
There are a few organisms that could be considered dangerous in Oregon, but one of the most notable is the western black widow spider (Latrodectus hesperus).
This species of spider is found throughout much of the western United States, including Oregon, and is known for its venomous bite. While black widow spiders are not aggressive and generally only bite when provoked or threatened, their venom can cause a range of symptoms, including muscle pain, cramps, spasms, and in severe cases, respiratory failure and death. It's important to note, however, that bites from black widow spiders are relatively rare and can often be avoided through simple precautions, such as wearing gloves when working outside or in areas where spiders may be present.
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Related Questions
What do ultimate explanations of behavior focus on?A. The physiological aspects of behaviorB. Appropriate experimental methods when studying behaviorC. The anatomical aspects of behaviorD. How displays and other types of behavior have changed through time or evolvedE. Genetic neurological and hormonal mechanisms of behavior
Answers
The ultimate explanations of behavior focus on genetic, neurological, and hormonal mechanisms of behavior. Correct alternative is E.
The ultimate explanations of behavior refer to the study of evolutionary factors that contributed to a particular behavior of an organism. It answers why certain behaviors are selected by natural selection. The answer to the question is that the ultimate explanations of behavior focus on genetic, neurological, and hormonal mechanisms of behavior.
It is a study of evolutionary factors that contribute to the behavior of an organism.
Therefore Correct alternative is E (genetic, neurological, and hormonal mechanisms of behavior.)
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Which of the following refers to the loss of guanine in an intact double-helical DNA molecule?
a. depurination
b. tautomer
c. deamination
d. replication slippage
e. oxidative damage
Answers
The loss of guanine in an intact double-helical DNA molecule is known as depurination. Option A is correct.
Spontaneous depurination refers to the loss of a purine base (adenine or guanine) from the DNA molecule. If a stretch of DNA undergoes spontaneous depurination, it can lead to the formation of an apurinic site, also known as an "AP site" or "abasic site." An AP site is a DNA lesion where a purine base is missing.
The resulting mutant sequence will depend on how DNA replication or repair mechanisms handle the AP site. During DNA replication, if the AP site is encountered, DNA polymerases may insert a random nucleotide opposite the lesion, leading to a point mutation. For example, if the missing purine base was adenine, DNA polymerase may insert a random nucleotide like thymine (instead of the correct complementary base, thymine).
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Three different groups of bees were allowed to exit their hive and collect pollen at different times of day. At the end of a month, the amount of honey produced is measured.
What is the dependent variable in this investigation?
Answers
These plants have free-living gametophytes and free-living sporophytes. The sporophyte generation is dominant and larger than the gametophyte generation. There is one type of spore, and the gametophyte generation grows outside of the spore wall. Which plant or plants am I describing? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) 000000000 Ferns Cycads Selaginella Lycopodium Conifers Ginkgo Hornworts Mosses Angiosperms 3 pts Liverworts
Answers
The correct answers are: Ferns, Hornworts, Mosses, and Liverworts.
The plants that fit the given description are:
Ferns: Ferns have free-living gametophytes and free-living sporophytes. The sporophyte generation is dominant and larger than the gametophyte generation. Ferns produce one type of spore, and the gametophyte generation grows outside of the spore wall.Horworts: Hornworts also have free-living gametophytes and free-living sporophytes. The sporophyte generation is dominant and larger than the gametophyte generation. Hornworts produce one type of spore, and the gametophyte generation grows outside of the spore wall.Mosses: Mosses have free-living gametophytes and free-living sporophytes. The sporophyte generation is dominant and larger than the gametophyte generation. Mosses produce one type of spore, and the gametophyte generation grows outside of the spore wall.Liverworts: Liverworts also have free-living gametophytes and free-living sporophytes. The sporophyte generation is dominant and larger than the gametophyte generation. Liverworts produce one type of spore, and the gametophyte generation grows outside of the spore wall.Therefore, the correct answers are: Ferns, Hornworts, Mosses, and Liverworts.
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What is the net gain of atp at the end of glycolysis?
Answers
At the end of glycolysis, two ATP molecules are produced as a net gain.
An anaerobic process called glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. It involves the conversion of two pyruvate molecules from glucose. To start this process, two ATP molecules are required.
As a result of glycolysis, four ATP molecules, two NADH molecules, and two molecules of pyruvate are produced. The two ATP molecules produced are used to offset the two ATP molecules that were initially used. This results in a net gain of two ATP molecules at the end of glycolysis.
The NADH molecules produced can be used in the electron transport chain to produce more ATP molecules. Therefore, glycolysis is a crucial metabolic pathway that produces energy in the form of ATP.
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sally wants to lose weight by only eating rice for all her meals. explain why is not advisable for her to do so for a prolonged period time
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Which is a difference between a compound light microscope and a scanning electron microscope? A: the scanning electron microscope can view the internal part of a cell, while the compound light microscope views the surface of a cell. B: The scanning electron microscope specimens can be stained for contrast, while the compound light microscope specimen appears black and white. C: the scanning electron microscope is used for dissections, while the compound light microscope is not. D: The scanning electron microscope uses an electron beam and a layer of gold to view the surface of the cell, while the compound light microscope uses light and lenses.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Because the scanning electron microscope uses an electron beam instead of a light beam to form an image, and the compound microscope uses lens and light.
The lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere has undergone a large increase in temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases. State the name of this temperature zone layer.
Answers
Answer:
Troposphere
Explanation:
The layer which has faced a large increase in temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases is named the stratosphere.
What are the causes of the greenhouse effect?The greenhouse effect is the outcome of the presence of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere absorbing ultraviolet radiations reflected from the earth's surface. This result in rising in the temperature of the planet.
The cause of the greenhouse effect is deforestation which leads to rising in temperature as trees help to maintain the temperature of the earth. The burning of fossil fuels and industrial waste also leads to an increase in greenhouse gases.
Therefore, the stratosphere is the layer of the atmosphere that gets affected due to the presence of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
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what happens to an ecosystem if its river is destroyed
Answers
Answer:
the earth will eventually crack amd form a new river and the clouds will precipitate and cause water for the stream of the river
Answer:
If the river was to be destroyed it would take away many native plants and water to farms, homes, businesses, and schools that are local can be taken away.
Explanation: Rivers nourish entire ecosystems and give habitat to native plants and animals.
Annie wants to find out if having a substance dissolved in water changes the temperature at which the liquid boils. She prepares two samples of water with equal volumes. She dissolves 3.0 grams of salt in the first sample, and uses the second sample of pure water for a control group. She then heats each sample until it boils and records the temperature while it is boiling.
Answers
Answer:
The dependent variable is: the temperature at which liquid boils.
Explanation:
The Dependent variable in a study or research is the variable that is measured after the modification or change in the particular research independent variable.
In this case, the independent variable is the treatment that liquid or water get which is the addition of 3 gm salt, and in the response to this treatment change in the boiling point of the liquid will be the dependent variable.
Thus, the correct answer is - the temperature at which liquid boils.
Answer:
the temperature at which the liquid boils
Explanation:
Please help me with this!!
Answers
The answers to the table are genotype, phenotype, trait, heredity, chromosome, allele, in that sequence.
How does a chromosome explain work?
a component that can be found in a cell's nucleus. Proteins and DNA are arranged into genes on a chromosome. There are typically 23 pairs of chromosomes in each cell.
What is a chromosome's primary purpose?
DNA may be precisely duplicated during these cell divisions thanks to chromosomes. So, once more. Our cells' nuclei include chromosomes, which enable precise DNA duplication during cell division. This guarantees that our internal processes go smoothly and effectively.
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Organisms from which kingdom are most likely to chemically digest their food outside their bodies?
Answers
Answer:
i think it is fungi
Explanation:sorry if i am wrong
increases in insulin increase co2 production in liver and brain but not adipose tissue true or false?
Answers
The correct answer is false. Insulin speeds up glucose transport across cell membranes and promotes glycogen synthesis and slows down glycogen breakdown.
Adipokines, proinflammatory substances, and free fatty acids are released by adipose tissue, an endocrine organ that affects both glucose and lipid metabolism. These substances reduce muscle ATP synthesis and glucose metabolism, encourage the synthesis of harmful lipid metabolites, and change insulin signaling. Insulin affects adipose tissue in two ways: 1) by increasing glucose absorption and triglyceride synthesis, and 2) by reducing triglyceride hydrolysis and the release of FFA and glycerol into the bloodstream. Elevated plasma FFA levels have been demonstrated to impair muscle insulin signaling, promote hepatic gluconeogenesis, and impair glucose-stimulated insulin response. Adipose tissue insulin resistance, which is the impaired suppression of lipolysis in the presence of high insulin levels, has been linked to glucose intolerance.
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13) A fruit fly can have normal wings (wild type) or vestigial wings (mutant). The vestigial phenotype is the result of a recessive condition. A researcher has a fruit fly with wild-type wings
and a fruit fly with vestigial wings. However, the researcher is unclear about the genotype of the wild-type fruit fly. If the two flies are test crossed, which results in progeny files would
indicate that the wild-type fruit fly was heterozygous?
A) 14 wild-type flies, 15 vestigial-winged flies
B) 28 wild-type flies and 1 mutant with a new phenotype
29 wild-type fies
D) 29 vestigial-winged flies
Answers
Answer:
A. 14 wild-type flies, 15 vestigial-winged flies
Explanation:
Because a fruit fly can have normal or vestigial wings, when the test cross occurs, there will be 28 wild-type flies and 1 mutant fly with a new phenotype if one parent is heterozygous, as in option B.
What is "test cross"?A test cross is a genetic cross used to determine the genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype, here, the wild-type fruit fly has a dominant phenotype, but its genotype is unknown, so after crossing it with a fruit fly that has a recessive phenotype, different genotypes will be seen. If the wild-type fruit fly is heterozygous, it will carry one copy of the wild-type allele and one copy of the vestigial allele, so after the test cross, 28 wild-type flies and 1 mutant with a new phenotype will be seen.
Hence, when the test cross occurs, there will be 28 wild-type flies and 1 mutant with a new phenotype when one parent is heterozygous, as in option B.
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What supplies energy used to synthesize carbohydrates during the Calvin cycle?
Answers
What advantage do invasive species of plants have over native species?.
Answers
Creating a successful online lead-generation strategy how to generate online business leads.
Answers
Use AI and sales automation to power all lead generation strategies. Provide presentations and demos to customise the user experience. Make more of an impact with video marketing. To promote material that generates leads, use your professional network.
A website that blogs publishes articles that can be audio, video, text, or photos. Blogging increases leads for internet businesses by adding value to the offering.
Lead generation: What is it?
The goal of lead generation is to increase consumer interest in a company's commodities, services, and products so that the business may build a customer base and make money.
Blogging is a less expensive and long-term approach that may be utilised in business because it generates traffic to the websites of the company, gives the customer value, and encourages them to convert.
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Ontario is one of Canada’s __________.
A.
territories
B.
provinces
C.
states
D.
major cities
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A
B
C
D
Answers
Answer:B
Ontario is a Canadian province bounded by Manitoba to the west, Hudson Bay to the north, Québec to the east, and New York, the Great Lakes, Michigan and Minnesota to the south.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The net effect of the effector is to shut off the original ________, or reduce its intensity, during the negative feedback mechanism to restore homeostasis.
Answers
Based on the knowledge of homeostasis, the net effect of the effector is to shut off the original stimulus or reduce its intensity, during the negative feedback mechanism to restore homeostasis.
What is an effector?
An effector is a part of a control system which serves as means of giving response to a stimulus.
Release of the effector by the control system results in inhibition of stimulus or a minimization of the effect of the stimulus in order to maintain homeostasis.
Therefore, the net effect of the effector is to shut off the original stimulus or reduce its intensity, during the negative feedback mechanism to restore homeostasis.
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Which will experience greater acceleration ?
(hint: think about the mass on this one)
A. equal acceleration
B. the bowling pin
C. the bowling ball
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
According to Newton's second law, when the same force is applied to two objects of different masses, a. the object with greater mass will experience a great acceleration and the object with less mass will experience an even greater acceleration.
A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. The base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters.
What is the surface area of the tetrahedral die to the nearest ten square millimeters?
Answers
A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid with the base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters has the surface area of the tetrahedral die is approximately 1350 square millimeters to the nearest ten square millimeters.
A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. The base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters. What is the surface area of the tetrahedral die to the nearest ten square millimeters?Surface area of tetrahedral dieTo find the surface area of the tetrahedral die, we need to first calculate the area of the triangular faces and then add them up.
The surface area of a tetrahedral die can be calculated as follows:Surface area of a tetrahedral die = Sum of the areas of all its triangular faces.Area of an equilateral triangle. A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. An equilateral triangle is a triangle where all its sides and angles are equal. The area of an equilateral triangle is given by the formula:Area of an equilateral triangle = (√3/4) * a² where a is the length of each side of the equilateral triangle. Substituting a = 26mm,Area of the equilateral triangle = (√3/4) * 26²= 338 mm².
The tetrahedral die has four equilateral triangular faces. So, its surface area can be calculated by adding the area of each triangular face. Therefore,Surface area of the tetrahedral die = 4 × area of the equilateral triangle= 4 × 338= 1352 mm²= 1.4 × 10³ mm²Therefore, the surface area of the tetrahedral die is approximately 1350 square millimeters to the nearest ten square millimeters.
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use the drop down menu to complete the statements about meiosis
Answers
Meiosis is the cell division event that results in gametes. The process of meiosis occurs during the formation of reproductive cells and results in four haploid cells called gametes. To mantain the correct number of chromosomes in the offspring, male and female gamete contain half the number of chromosomes as somatic cells. During fertilization, gametes fuse to form a new diploid cell called a zygote.
What is meiosis?
Meiosis is a cell division process that produces gametes from germ cells.
Through Meiosis, a diploid cell (2n) produces four haploid daughter cells (n). After DNA replication there are two meiotic phases.
The first one is a reductive phase, in which homologous chromosomes separate. In the second phase, the cell suffers a new, not reductive division.Note about the answer: I could not find the menu options, so I provide the same information in my own words.
The process of meiosis occurs during the formation of reproductive cells or gametogenesis and results in four haploid cells called gametes.
To mantain the correct number of chromosomes in the offspring, male and female gamete contain half the number of chromosomes as somatic cells.
During fertilization, gametes fuse to form a new diploid cell called a zygote.
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Pls help...Henry is studying a family of tree frogs that have poisonous skin, and he finds one frog with a mutation for the poison feature. Which of these statements about the tree frog with the mutation is true?
a
There will be no change to the frog’s poison.
There will be no change to the frog’s poison.
b
The frog must be more poisonous than other frogs.
The frog must be more poisonous than other frogs.
c
The frog must be less poisonous than other frogs.
The frog must be less poisonous than other frogs.
d
There must have been a change in the frog’s genes.
There must have been a change in the frog’s genes.
Answers
Answer:
D. There must have been a change in the frog’s genes.
Hi, if you don’t mind, could you mark brainliest? Im trying to rank up. Thank you so much.
Answer:
Explanation:There must have been a change in the frog’s genes.
Final line filters for instrument air shall be rated for a minimum of _____ efficiency at ______ micron.
Answers
Final line filters for instrument air shall be rated for a minimum of 99% efficiency at 0.01 micron.
The purpose of final line filters for instrument air is to remove any remaining contaminants, including moisture and oil, before the air is used in sensitive instruments and equipment. A 99% efficiency rating means that the filter is able to remove 99% of particles at the specified size of 0.01 micron.
This high level of filtration is necessary to ensure the purity of the air and prevent damage to equipment. It is important to regularly check and replace these filters as needed to maintain their effectiveness. Failure to use the appropriate filter or to properly maintain them can result in costly repairs or downtime.
Therefore, it is crucial to follow manufacturer specifications and industry standards for the selection and installation of final line filters for instrument air.
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Segments of DNA that contain the code for specific proteins are called:
nucleotides
RNA
chromosomes
genes
Answers
Answer: the answer is D. Genes
Answer:
GenesExplanation:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) segments called genes are responsible for carrying out specified protein activities in one or more types of bodily cells.
__________________
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In a group of Syrian hamsters, some individuals have straight fur and others have wavy fur. In this group, the gene for the fur texture trait has two alleles. The allele for wavy fur (f) is recessive to the allele for straight fur (F).
Complete the Punnett square below to show all possible genotypes of the offspring from a cross between two Syrian hamsters.
Answers
Answer:
Therefore the genotype would be;FF 25% Homozygous straight furff 25% Homozygous wavy furFt 50% Heterozygous mixExplanation:
Genotype describes the combination of alleles that an individual has for a certain gene
-----hope it helps =)
Can someone help me?
Answers
Vestigial structures provide evidence for the evolutionary past of organisms as they show how organisms relate to other organisms.
Vestigial structures are similar to homologous structures in that they provide evidence for evolutionary relationships but they are different in that vestigial structures are no longer in use organisms where they are found.
What are vestigial strucures?Vestigial structures are anatomical features that appear to have no purpose in a specific organism but are present because they served a purpose in the organism's evolutionary ancenstors.
An example of a vestigial structure is the coccyx in humans which once served as a tail.
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Which best describes a bacteriophage
Answers
Bacteriophages are a special class of viruses that infect and spread only within bacteria.
Bacterium refers to bacteria, while "phage" means to eat or devour. Together, these two words form the term "bacteriophage". Highly specialized viruses called bacteriophages attach to the surface of bacterial cells and introduce their genetic material into the host bacterium.
Once the bacteriophage's genetic material enters the bacterial machinery, it causes it to make multiple copies of the phage particles. The host bacterium is eventually killed, and freshly produced phages are freed to infect additional bacterial cells. Nature is full of bacteriophages, which are important for managing bacterial populations and building microbial communities.
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True/False: the most significant player regulating icf composition is plasma membrane.
Answers
The statement "the most significant player regulating icf composition is plasma membrane" is false because the plasma membrane primarily regulates the composition of the extracellular fluid (ECF), not the intracellular fluid (ICF).
The main player regulating the composition of the ICF is the cell membrane, which is selectively permeable and controls the movement of ions and molecules into and out of the cell.
The cytoplasmic membrane also contains various transporters, pumps, and channels that actively maintain the concentration of ions, such as Na+, K+, Ca2+, and Cl-, in the ICF.
In addition, intracellular organelles, such as the mitochondria, also play a role in regulating the composition of the ICF by maintaining a concentration gradient across their membranes.
Overall, the ICF is tightly regulated to maintain a specific balance of ions and molecules necessary for the proper functioning of the cell. Therefore, the statement is false.
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False. The plasma membrane is important in maintaining ion concentrations across the membrane, but the most significant player in regulating intracellular fluid (ICF) composition is the cell membrane itself.
The lipid bilayer of the cell membrane is selectively permeable and allows certain molecules to enter or leave the cell while preventing others from doing so, thus maintaining the proper balance of ions and other molecules within the cell. Additionally, transporters and channels embedded in the cell membrane actively regulate the movement of ions and molecules in and out of the cell.
The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable membrane that separates the intracellular environment from the extracellular environment. It plays a critical role in regulating the ionic composition of the intracellular fluid (ICF) by controlling the movement of ions into and out of the cell.
The plasma membrane contains a variety of ion channels, pumps, and transporters that allow specific ions to move across the membrane. These proteins are highly regulated and can respond to changes in the cell's environment to maintain the appropriate balance of ions in the ICF.
While the plasma membrane is an important player in regulating ICF composition, other factors also play a role. For example, the activity of intracellular enzymes and organelles can affect the concentration of ions in the ICF. Additionally, the movement of ions across the plasma membrane is influenced by factors such as concentration gradients, electrochemical gradients, and the presence of other ions or molecules.
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The following describes the evolution of similar growth forms in species that are not closely related due to the independent response of each species to similar selection pressures (i.e. similar environmental conditions, etc.)? Convergence Divergence
Mutation Genetic Drift Gene Flow
Answers
The term that describes the evolution of similar growth forms in species that are not closely related due to the independent response of each species to similar selection pressures is convergence. (option a)
Convergence is a process in evolutionary biology where organisms evolve similar traits or characteristics due to similar selection pressures, but they are not closely related and do not share a recent common ancestor. For example, the wings of birds, bats, and insects have all evolved independently but share similar functions because they all needed to adapt to similar environmental conditions (i.e. flying). Hence the term that describes the evolution of similar growth forms in species that are not closely related due to the independent response of each species to similar selection pressures is convergence. (option a)
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