Quinolone antibiotics is medication can damage the cartilage of children.
What is Quinolone antibiotics ?
The first quinolone antibiotics appeared in the early 1960s, and they had adverse pharmacokinetic qualities and a narrow spectrum of activity. Improved quinolone analogues with a broader scope and higher efficacy have been produced over time as a result of the discovery of new quinolone antibiotics. Quinolones are now often used to treat a range of illnesses. Quinolones are broad-spectrum antibiotics with activity against mycobacteria, anaerobes, and both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. They do this by interfering with the enzymes DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, preventing the production of nucleic acids by bacteria, and breaking bacterial chromosomes. However, due to abuse of these medications, bacteria have developed resistance to quinolones, just like they have to other antibacterial substances.
The chromosomal modifications and/or plasmid gene uptake that change the topoisomerase targets, modify the quinolone, and/or limit drug accumulation by either decreased uptake or higher efflux are the mechanisms causing quinolone resistance. The progress of this class of antibiotics in terms of potency, pharmacokinetics, and toxicity is discussed in this overview, along with the mechanisms of resistance that lessen the efficacy of quinolones against bacteria. Future generations of quinolone antibiotics with improved activity against resistant pathogens may employ the recommended approaches.
Quinolone antibiotics are usually not approved for use in children due to cartilage defects found in the weightbearing joints of juvenile animals given fluoroquinolones.
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Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.
-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.
-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.
A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.
-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.
-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.
-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.
-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.
-
Middle layer of the meninges.
-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body
The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
What is the blood brain barrier?This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.
Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
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One way that HIV destroys key immune cells is by "___" viral particles, rupturing the cell wall.
A.) replicating
B.) budding
C.) transcribing
D.) cleaving
How do I know how much weight I gain during pregnancy?
Most will gain 2 to 4 pounds (1 to 2 kilograms) during the first trimester, and then 1 pound (0.5 kilogram) a week for the rest of the pregnancy.
because the second and third trimesters are both around thirteen weeks, you would count on to advantage the same amount in each one. but, for lots girls, weight gain slows or stops within the final month. due to this, maximum ladies gain the maximum weight throughout their 2nd trimester of being pregnant.
pregnancy hormones force this unique sample of fat accrual. Even worse information? For the common pregnant girl, a fifth or extra of the fat she profits is going to her upper thighs.
most ladies benefit weight in the course of pregnancy, so this will be what your doctor became referring to. The introduced weight is spread flippantly in the course of your body, consisting of to your face.
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explain why a scientist must conduct trials in humans before this procedure becomes a widespread medical treatment
Answer:
testing on animals and on humans are different
Explanation:
If the testing through animals and/or artificial means turns out well and safe, then it is safe for human testing to work out how it will affect humans since we have a different physiology from animals.
Answer:
Scientists need to repeat studies many times to prove their hypothesis. This single study only shows an effect in mice. The effect in humans may differ, so scientists need to conduct trials in humans to see whether the results are the same.
Explanation:
i got it from the official site where the question originated from, it was the sample answer, youre welcome, and thank you to the person below/above my answer, because their question is also right. <3Each agency must report yearly to the OMB on its FISMA compliance activities. An agency also must send a copy of their yearly report to each of these agencies with the exception of:______.
Answer:
Details about actual IT system.
Explanation:
The FISMA compliance report is widely shared. It is agreed not to report accurate details of IT system as these report may be used by criminals and they can learn about the system weaknesses by reading the report. The OMB has said that agencies should not include excessive information about their IT systems. Some agencies may have IG who reviews the information about the controls and carryout his evaluations to make controls better.
The main post-mortem of omphalitis cases is
a.
unabsorbed of the yolk sac
b.
unabsorbed of the crop
c.
enlargement of the liver
d.
swallow of the spleen
Answer:
c
Explanation:
enlargement of the liver
In your own words explain the steps into creating a vaccine.
55 points
2. Every resident eats the same meal prepared the same way.
True
False
Patents grant a temporary monopoly, and can therefore raise drug prices. Given that, why are drug patents beneficial?
a. A. If drug prices are too low, consumers will think they are ineffective and won't use them.
b. B. Insurance companies want drug prices to be high so they can charge higher premiums to consumers.
c. C. Without a patent, a new drug could be easily replicated by competitors, and the innovator would receive no profits. Thus, there would be no incentive to spend effort making the new drug.
d. D. Consumers enjoy paying higher prices for drugs that improve their quality of life.
The main reason drug patents are beneficial is without a patent, a new drug could easily be copied by competitors, and the innovator would not receive any profits (Option C).
Patents provide temporary monopoly rights to the innovator, giving them exclusive control over the production and sale of the drug for a certain period of time. During this time, the innovator can recoup their research and development costs and make a profit. This financial incentive encourages pharmaceutical companies to invest in the expensive and risky process of developing new drugs. Without patents, it would be difficult to attract the funding and resources necessary for drug research and development.
Option A is not a strong argument for drug patents because low prices do not necessarily indicate ineffectiveness. Moreover, drug patents are not directly related to consumer perception of effectiveness. Option B does not provide a valid reason for drug patents as it suggests that insurance companies benefit from high drug prices, but it does not explain how patents contribute to this. Option D is not a valid reason for drug patents as it does not address the core issue of innovation and incentives for drug development. Consumer enjoyment of paying higher prices does not outweigh the importance of encouraging research and development in the pharmaceutical industry.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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Studies suggest that N2O contribute to the release of endorphins, which inhibit neurotransmission across the neuro junctions, producing _____. 1. Euphoria 2. Analgesia 3. Anesthesia 4. Sedation
Answer:
2. Analgesia
Explanation:
They produce a chemical that blocks the neurotransmitter called. Substance p which is responsible for transmitting impulses that elicit pain reflexes to the spinal cord
, Which of the following electrolytes could form a precipitate if mixed closely together? A. Potassium chloride and potassium phosphate
B. Potassium chloride and calcium gluconate
C. Calcium gluconate and potassium chloride
D. Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate
E. Calcium chloride and magnesium sulphate
Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate will given precipitation. The correct option is D.
What is precipitation reaction?Precipitation is the process of changing a dissolved substance from a super-saturated solution to an insoluble solid in an aqueous solution. Precipitate refers to the produced solid.
Sometimes, combining a solution having a certain cation (a positively charged ion) with another solution containing a specific anion will result in the formation of an insoluble combination (a negatively charged ion). Precipitate refers to the solid that separates.
When the calcium and phosphate concentrations were high enough, calcium phosphate precipitation happened in every system. Precipitation will be given calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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The vaginal discharge of a woman with a typical Trichomonas vaginalis infection is:______.
Jack finds any mention of male femininity offensive. His therapist suggests that, in actuality, this may be Jack's way of reducing anxiety from his true fear of being a homosexual. If so, according to Freud, what defense mechanism is Jack using?
Answer:
According to Freud, the defense mechanism that Jack is using is called projection. Projection is a psychological defense mechanism in which an individual unconsciously attributes their own thoughts, feelings, or impulses onto others. In Jack's case, his therapist suggests that he is projecting his fear of being homosexual onto others by finding any mention of male femininity offensive. By doing this, he is able to distance himself from his own fear and reduce his anxiety.
Projection is one of several defense mechanisms that Freud identified as being commonly used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety or distress. Other defense mechanisms include repression, in which an individual unconsciously pushes uncomfortable thoughts or feelings out of their awareness, and denial, in which an individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of a situation. These defense mechanisms are typically unconscious processes, and individuals may not be aware that they are using them to cope with anxiety or distress.
The protective technique Jack is employing, according to Freud, is referred to as projection.
What is a defense mechanism?A person may unintentionally ascribe their own thoughts, feelings, or desires to others as a psychological defense strategy.
In Jack's instance, his therapist contends that by finding any discussion of male femininity offensive, he is projecting his fear of becoming homosexual onto others. He is able to separate himself from his own dread and lessen his worry by doing this.
Other forms of protection include repression, which is the unconscious suppression of unpleasant ideas or feelings, and denial, which is the refusal to acknowledge or accept.
Therefore, One of the many defense mechanisms Freud noted as being frequently utilized by people to shield themselves from anxiety or distress is projection.
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The degree to which individuals have the ability to find, understand, and use information and services to inform health-related decisions and actions for themselves and others is known as what
The degree to which individuals have the ability to find, understand, and use information and services to inform health-related decisions and actions for themselves and others is known as Health Literacy.
Health literacy is the ability of an individual to read, understand, and use health-related information for making decisions and taking appropriate actions related to their health. It includes the ability to locate, understand, evaluate, and use health information in different formats to make informed decisions. Health literacy is essential for the health and well-being of individuals, families, and communities. It helps individuals to make informed decisions about their health and empowers them to take appropriate actions to maintain good health. Therefore, it is essential to promote health literacy through education and public awareness programs.
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The Nightingale School of Nursing curriculum, formed by Florence Nightingale, focused on what nursing principles?
A) academic coursework and clinical practice academic coursework and clinical practice B) training for doctors
C) non-science based principles
D direct contact training with seriously ill patients
The Nightingale School of Nursing curriculum, formed by Florence Nightingale, focused on direct contact training with seriously ill patients.
Academic studies and clinical work principles are not founded on scientific training for doctors dealing with very unwell patients in direct contact
Florence Nightingale established the Nightingale School of Nursing, which placed a strong emphasis on the nursing values of compassion, dedication to patient care, and careful and considerate hospital management.
In 1860, as part of Florence Nightingale's effort to revolutionize nursing and healthcare, St. Thomas' Hospital created the Nightingale Training School for Nurses. The need for a highly qualified workforce was one of the pillars of implementing such transformation, and Florence's school was the first non-religious institution to offer professional nurse training.
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What are ethical dilemmas?
Answer: An ethical dilemma is a conflict between alternatives where choosing any of them will compromise some ethical principle and lead to an ethical violation.
Explanation:
Identifying Laws
The ___________ is a federal law that affects the regulation of pharmacy practice, by allowing states to establish their own laws.
Answer:
10th Amendment
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Two EMTS witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's
emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected
with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTS ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and
took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTS is
considered:
This inaction on the part of the two EMT's is regarded as legal but unethical.
EMTs and paramedics give emergency medical assistance after evaluating a patient's condition. In emergency medical situations, emergency medical technicians (EMTs) and paramedics provide care for the ill and injured. The prompt response and expert care given by these employees frequently determine the lives of people.
EMTs deliver medical care in accordance with a set of protocols, which are often created by a doctor. The EMT should always deliver competent care that complies with current standards in order to reduce the possibility of litigation.
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The best use of fluroescein stain in an eye examination is to check for
Answer:
The best use of fluroescein stain in an eye examination is to check for corneal injuries.
Explanation:
The fluorescein stain test is an eye examination performed by the ophthalmologist to detect corneal lesions, but it is also useful for finding foreign bodies in the eye.
This test consists of placing an orange dye on the eye surface, then applying a blue light to detect corneal lesions, which turn blue-green when present.
What did Holloman Air Force Base (AFB) develop as its mission?
a.
Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of guided missiles
b.
Holloman AFB became a site for the Tactical Fighter Wing
c.
Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of the atomic bomb
d.
Both a and b are correct.
e.
Both a and c are correct.
Holloman Air Force Base (AFB) develop as its mission because a. Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of guided missiles.
Holloman AFB, located near Alamogordo, New Mexico, has a rich history in the field of missile development and testing. It played a crucial role in the United States' efforts to advance its missile technology during the mid-20th century. In particular, Holloman AFB was closely associated with the development and testing of guided missiles.
The base became home to the Holloman Development Test Center (formerly known as the Holloman Test Facility), which was established to conduct research, development, and testing of various guided missile systems. This included both air-to-air and surface-to-air missiles. Holloman AFB provided a suitable environment for missile testing due to its expansive and relatively unpopulated surroundings, allowing for safe and controlled test flights.
In summary, Holloman AFB's mission centered around the development and testing of guided missiles, making it an integral part of the United States' efforts to advance missile technology. Therefore, Option a is correct.
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How do u eat jumbo jalapenos ? ouuu
A five-month-old infant is ordered acetaminophen q6h for a high temperature. The usual adult dose is 325 mg q4-6h. The available acetaminophen is 160 mg/5 mL. What volume of medication should the infant receive every six hours? a) 3.2 mL b) 0.28 mL child's dose ) 0.34 mL child's dose d) 1.6 mL
Answer: .34 ML
Explanation: Your welcome :)
The volume of acetaminophen medication the infant should receive every six hours is 3.2 mL.
To calculate the appropriate volume of medication for the infant, we need to determine the correct dosage based on the adult dose and adjust it for the infant's weight.
The adult dose is 325 mg, to be taken every 4-6 hours. However, for infants, the dosage is usually adjusted based on their weight or age. In this case, the infant is five months old.
The available acetaminophen concentration is 160 mg/5 mL. We need to calculate the appropriate volume of medication to provide the desired dosage.
The child's dose is usually a fraction of the adult dose, based on weight or age. Without specific weight information provided, we can assume the child's dose is a fraction, such as 1/2 or 1/4, of the adult dose.
Based on the available options, the volume of medication that aligns with a child's dose is 3.2 mL. This would correspond to a child's dose that is approximately 1/2 of the adult dose (325 mg).
Therefore, the main answer is 3.2 mL.
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Romans developed surgical tools such as scalpels and retractors. Which of the following career fields evolved around the development of these devices?
A: Genetic medicine
B: Medical sales representative
C: Medical instrument engineering
D: Biochemistry
E: Pharmacy
The career that evolved for the development of these tools was medical instrument engineering (Option C). This field allows the development of different medical devices.
Medical instrument engineeringMedical instrument engineering refers to the techniques and strategies aimed at developing new tools in medicine.
Currently, this field (medical instrument engineering) is aimed at designing, developing and repairing electronic medical devices and medical tools.
The devices can be used for improving the overall health of patients in clinical settings, as well as for developing new medical strategies.
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as a nurse manager in a for-profit hospital, you are interested in promoting teaching programs for physicians, because evidence suggests that hospitals with teaching programs tend to promote better care for patients. your administration indicates that it cannot support your ideas or proposal because of: (select all that apply.)
There could be several reasons why the administration cannot support the nurse manager's proposal to promote teaching programs for physicians. Some possible reasons include:
- Budget constraints: Developing and implementing teaching programs can be expensive, and the hospital administration may not have the financial resources to support the proposal.
- Time constraints: Teaching programs can require a significant amount of time and resources to develop and implement, which may be difficult to justify in a busy hospital environment.
- Lack of support from physicians: If physicians are not supportive of the idea of teaching programs or do not have the time or interest to participate, the administration may be reluctant to invest in the proposal.
- Lack of perceived benefits: The administration may not see the potential benefits of teaching programs for physicians, or may not believe that the benefits justify the investment of time and resources.
- Concerns about competition: If the hospital is for-profit, the administration may be concerned that promoting teaching programs for physicians could lead to increased competition from other hospitals or healthcare providers.
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Can you please help me!
10. Variance of temporary workers = 4500000.
11. Variance of training = 545000
12. Variance of postage = 769
13. Variance of membership dues = 5000
14. Percentage variance of supplies = 10
How does percentage variance work?An account balance's proportional change from one reporting period to the next is shown by a percent variance. It displays the change in an account over time as a percentage of the account balance as a result. In order to calculate the percent variance, divide the current period amount by the prior period amount.
10. Mean of temporary workers = $8000 + $11000/2
Mean of temporary workers = $19000/2
Mean of temporary workers = $9500
Variance of temporary workers = (8000-9500)² + (11000-9500)²
Variance of temporary workers = (1500)²+(1500)²
Variance of temporary workers = 4500000.
11. Mean of training = $1800+$1500/2
Mean of training = 4300/2
Mean of training = 2150
Variance of training = (1800-2150)² + (1500-2150)²
Variance of training = (-350)² + (-650)²
Variance of training = 122500+422500
Variance of training = 545000
12. Mean of postage = $1200 + $1175/2
Mean of postage = 2375/2
Mean of postage = 1187
Variance of postage = (1200-1187)² + (1175-1187)²
Variance of postage = 625+144
Variance of postage = 769
13. Mean of membership dues = $980 +$1080/2
Mean of membership dues = 2060/2
Mean of membership dues = 1030
Variance of membership dues = (980-1030)²+(1080-1030)²
Variance of membership dues = 2500+2500
Variance of membership dues = 5000
14. Percentage variance of supplies = 2000-1800/2000 ×100
Percentage variance of supplies = 200/2000×100
Percentage variance of supplies = 10
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Imagine you are a doctor trying to determine if a patient has damaged a cranial nerve or a spinal nerve. How could you best determine this? a. Spinal nerve damage should affect only reflexes. b. Spinal nerve damage should affect sensation, but not motor movements. c. Spinal nerve damage should only affect organs and glands. d. Spinal nerve damage should affect only the torso and limbs.
The best way to determine if a patient has damaged a cranial nerve or a spinal nerve is: D. Spinal nerve damage should affect only the torso and limbs.
What is the peripheral nervous system?The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is an anatomical and functional division of the nervous system that is mainly responsible for perceptual experience in living organisms.
The nerves of the PNS.In all living organisms, the PNS nerves that are involved in both sensory and somatic functions include:
Peripheral nervesCranial nervesSpinal nervesGenerally, an evidence of a damaged spinal nerve is that only the torso and limbs would be affected because they are directly linked and controlled by it.
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the charge nurse observes a staff nurse caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type i. which action by the nurse indicates that further instruction on transmission of this disease is needed
If the nurse fails to wear gloves or practice proper hand hygiene when caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type I, it indicates a need for further instruction on disease transmission.
If the charge nurse observes a staff nurse caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type I, an action that indicates the need for further instruction on the transmission of this disease would be if the nurse does not wear gloves or practice proper hand hygiene when providing care to the mother. Herpes simplex type I is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct contact with the oral lesions or the fluid they contain.
Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions, such as wearing gloves and practicing hand hygiene, to prevent the spread of the virus to the mother or other individuals in the care setting.
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Have you ever noticed when one person complains or has a negative attitude how it changes the mode of the office?
the nurse is assessing a client's arteriovenous fistula being used for hemodialysis. which findings would prompt the nurse to notify the primary health care provider immediately? select all that appl
The following findings urge caregivers to notify primary care providers immediately for a client whose arteriovenous fistula is being used for hemodialysis :
1. No thrill in the fistula area
2.No bruit auscultated at the fistula site
3. No pulse distal to arteriovenous fistula
An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is an irregular network between an artery and a vein. Blood flows directly from arteries to veins, avoiding small blood vessels (capillaries). An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is an uneven connection between an artery and a vein. An atrioventricular fistula is a connection between an artery and a vein for access to dialysis. Surgery performed in the operating room involves stitching two blood vessels together to create an atrioventricular fistula.
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My science fair project is about combining different medicines to see if they would kill bacteria. How would I test this project? Would it work if I used a petri dish or what other materials to see how medicine kills bacteria.. Thank you!
Answer:
I remember back in high school I conducted an experiment involving two Petri-dishes. Both had swabs from my kitchen sink (a lot of bacteria). The difference was that I used Lysol versus Clorox.
Explanation:
You can start here. Secondly, formulate a good hypothesis and test it. For example, you can say I believe Lysol works better than "X-Brand" or "Y-Brand".
Then list the results.
I hope this helps.