The World Health Organization recommends limiting daily intake of added sugars to no more than 10% of total energy intake, which is approximately 50 grams or 12 teaspoons per day for an average adult with a daily caloric intake of 2000 calories.
The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends limiting the intake of added sugar to less than 10% of your total daily energy intake. For an average adult, this translates to about 50 grams (or 12 teaspoons) of added sugar per day. However, WHO further suggests that reducing it to less than 5% of total energy intake (about 25 grams or 6 teaspoons) would provide additional health benefits. Therefore, the closest answer choice from the given options is 25 grams of added sugar per day.10 energy % is equal to no over fifty grammes of sugar per day (or ten teaspoons / 14 sugar cubes) for an average adult (consuming 2,000 kcal per day). Depending on the age and gender, children's recommended daily consumption of free sugar is lower.
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The world health organization limit for grams of added sugar per day is 25 grams.
The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends limiting the intake of added sugars to less than 10% of total daily energy intake which is 2000 calories. For an average adult, this translates to approximately 50 grams (12 teaspoons) of added sugar per day.
However, a further reduction to below 5% of total daily energy intake, which is around 25 grams (6 teaspoons) of added sugar, is suggested for additional health benefits.
Therefore, the closest answer choice to the WHO recommendation is 25 grams of added sugar per day.
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true or false. registered nurses can only be licensed in one state.
Registered nurses can only be licensed in one state.
The given statement is false.
Registered nurses can be licensed in multiple states. They can obtain licensure through a process called licensure by endorsement or reciprocity. Licensure by endorsement is a process by which registered nurses can obtain licensure in a new state if they have an active and unencumbered license in another state.
The requirements for licensure by endorsement may vary by state, but they typically involve submitting an application, providing proof of education and licensure in the previous state, and passing a criminal background check and a jurisprudence exam. Once the application is approved, the nurse can be issued a license in the new state.
This process allows nurses to practice in multiple states without having to go through the entire licensure process again.
Licensure by reciprocity is similar to licensure by endorsement, but it applies to nurses who are licensed in a state that does not have a compact agreement with the state they want to practice in.
In this process, the nurse must meet the same requirements as for licensure by endorsement, but they may have to take additional courses or exams to demonstrate competence in the new state's nursing practice act. Once the requirements are met, the nurse can be issued a license in the new state.
The Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC) is an agreement between 34 states that allows nurses to practice in multiple states without having to obtain multiple licenses. Nurses who hold a multistate license under the NLC can practice in any of the participating states, as long as they meet the requirements for licensure in that state.
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Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of marijuana use?
A.
Lower learning capabilities
B.
Weaker communication skills
C.
Increased memory
D.
Shorter attention span
Answer:
I think it's increased memory
Answer:
its c. increases memory
A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (gerd) is to begin taking oral metoclopramide [reglan]. the patient asks the nurse about the medication. which response by the nurse is correct?
A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is to begin taking oral metoclopramide [reglan] the patient is advised by the nurse to take the medicines 30mins before each meal & bedtime.
Metoclopramide should not be used for an extended period of time, and increasing the dose after three months is not advised.
Metoclopramide is a medication used to treat hiccups; it does not produce them. Tardive dyskinesia is a severe and permanent adverse effect.What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?
Metoclopramide works as an antiemetic by blocking dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT3 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), which is located in the brain's postrema region.
This medication causes prokinetic effects via inhibiting presynaptic and postsynaptic D2 receptors, agonism of serotonin 5-HT4 receptors, and antagonism of muscarinic receptor inhibition. This effect increases acetylcholine release, resulting in enhanced lower oesophagal sphincter (LES) and gastric tone, hence expediting gastric emptying and transit into the gut. Metoclopramide inhibits dopamine D2 receptors.Learn more about metoclopramide here,
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is considered healthy in terms of its effect on blood cholesterol, while ____ is considered unhealthy
Answer:
MONOUNSATURATED FAT is considered healthy in terms of its effect on blood cholesterol, while TRANS FAT is considered unhealthy.
Explanation:
Monounsaturated fat, in nutrition, is a fatty acid with a double bond in the molecule. The best known monounsaturated fats are those of Omega 9, like natural oils. These foods are beneficial for health, as they reduce the level of cholesterol in the blood, thereby improving the functioning of the blood and heart systems.
In turn, trans fat is a type of unsaturated fat that is neither necessary for the body nor good for health. On the contrary, trans fats have been found to increase the risk of developing coronary heart disease and cancer.
Psychodynamic perspective of treatment puts a focus on
Answer: Psychodynamic therapy focuses on unconscious processes as they are manifested in the client's present behavior. The goals of psychodynamic therapy are client self-awareness and understanding of the influence of the past on present behavior.
Explanation: i took test
a 33-year-old wrestler presents with a worsening skin infection. he was seen in the ed two days prior and had an incision and drainage of an abscess on his left arm. the drainage has decreased but now he has an area of erythema that has expanded around his original abscess and a second purulent lesion on his leg. which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic choice?
The most appropriate antibiotic choice for the 33-year-old wrestler with a worsening skin infection and expanding erythema around the original abscess and a second purulent lesion on his leg would be Clindamycin. The correct option is C).
The patient is presenting with signs of a worsening skin infection despite receiving incision and drainage two days prior. The expanding erythema suggests cellulitis, a common complication of skin infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
Clindamycin is a suitable choice for covering both bacterial species and is effective against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), which is often seen in athletes with skin infections.
Azithromycin and metronidazole do not cover Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes, and ceftriaxone is not a suitable choice for skin infections. However, it is important to note that antibiotic selection should be guided by culture and sensitivity results if available. Therefore, the correct option is C).
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a 33-year-old wrestler presents with a worsening skin infection. he was seen in the ed two days prior and had an incision and drainage of an abscess on his left arm. the drainage has decreased but now he has an area of erythema that has expanded around his original abscess and a second purulent lesion on his leg. which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic choice?
A) Azithromycin
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Clindamycin
D) Metronidazole
Some viruses can undergo lysis or lysogeny within the same host. Under what conditions might the virus favor lysis instead of lysogeny?.
If the host cell is starved or unhealthy, there may be insufficient energy and material to do so. Under this condition, the virus might favor lysis instead of lysogeny.
When do viruses favor lysis instead of lysogeny?In the lytic cycle, viruses reproduce by producing new viruses inside a host cell, which they subsequently release into the surrounding environment. In the lysogenic cycle, the viral genome is incorporated into the host cell's genome, causing internal infection.Based on the state of the host cells, viruses frequently switch from one pathway to another. There is enough material present in a healthy host for the virus to replicate and make new virions. If the host cell is malnourished or ill, there may not be enough energy or resources to do so. In this case, lysogeny allows the DNA to integrate into the host cell and wait for the cell's health to be restored.Hence, If the host cell is malnourished or sick, there may not be enough energy or material to do so. Under these conditions, the virus may choose lysis over lysogeny.
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Discuss how the use of the EHR benefits the patient. Give one example of how the EHR can be used to help patients (adults, elderly, pediatric). Discuss the medical assistant's role in helping patients feel comfortable with their personal information on the EHR
The use of Electronic Health Records (EHR) brings several benefits to patients. One key advantage is improved access to comprehensive and up-to-date medical information. With EHRs, healthcare providers have quick access to a patient's medical history, including diagnoses, medications, allergies, and test results.
An example of how EHRs benefit patients is in the case of pediatric care. EHRs enable pediatricians to track a child's growth and development over time, ensuring timely immunizations, monitoring milestones, and detecting any potential issues. The EHR can provide reminders for well-child visits and screenings, ensuring that children receive appropriate preventive care.
Medical assistants play a crucial role in helping patients feel comfortable with their personal information on the EHR. They can explain the purpose and benefits of the EHR to patients, addressing any concerns or misconceptions they may have. Medical assistants can also ensure patient privacy and confidentiality by adhering to strict security protocols and explaining the measures in place to safeguard patient information. Building trust and rapport with patients is vital, and medical assistants can play a supportive role in facilitating open communication between patients and healthcare providers regarding their EHR data.
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Choose the correct answer:
What does personalized medicine depend on?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) mutation
D) enzyme
E) polymorphism
You find a person that just fell down a flight of stairs. How would you start an assessment for a head, neck, or back injury?
Answer:
Look at them first to try and see visual wounds and then touch the areas to feel for broken bones or cracked skull
Explanation:
Injuries are damages or impairments caused due to accidents, hits, weapons, etc. First aid is given for any physical wound while assessing the head, neck, or back injuries.
What is first aid?First aid is the preliminary and immediate assistance given to any injured person to prevent further worsening of the condition. It is helpful till the medical services arrive.
In the case of an injured person that fell from stairs the neck, shoulder, head, and back region should be assessed for any physical wounds and abrasions that can be directly treated with first aid.
Further, the regions should be checked for any cracked bones and fractures so that there is no or minimum movement of that area to avoid further injury.
Therefore, the assessment starts with an inspection of the physical wounds and fractures.
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ibuprofen is used to relieve the pain of inflammation and also acts as an analgesic and antipyretic
T/F
True. Ibuprofen is commonly used as a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) to relieve pain, reduce inflammation, and also acts as an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer).
Ibuprofen works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for pain, inflammation, and fever. Ibuprofen is widely used to treat conditions such as headaches, muscle aches, menstrual cramps, arthritis, and fever. However, it's important to follow the recommended dosage and consult a healthcare professional if you have any underlying medical conditions or are taking other medications to avoid potential adverse effects.
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FILL THE BLANK.norepinephrine is to _____ as corticosteroid is to _____.
Norepinephrine is to the sympathetic nervous system as corticosteroid is to the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
Norepinephrine, also known as noradrenaline, is a neurotransmitter that plays a key role in the sympathetic nervous system. It is involved in the body's "fight or flight" response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and energy mobilization. Norepinephrine is released by the adrenal glands and acts on various target tissues throughout the body, including the heart, blood vessels, and lungs. It helps prepare the body for physical exertion and stress.
On the other hand, corticosteroids are a class of hormones that are produced and released by the adrenal glands as part of the HPA axis. The HPA axis is a complex system involving the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal glands. Corticosteroids, such as cortisol, are involved in regulating a wide range of physiological processes, including immune response, metabolism, inflammation, and stress response. They help the body adapt to stressors and maintain homeostasis.
In summary, norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that acts on the sympathetic nervous system, while corticosteroids are hormones that are involved in the HPA axis and play a role in the body's stress response and overall physiological regulation.
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A physician assistant orders 0.7 mg of digoxin to be injected in office. If you have 350mcg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?
If a resident is eating in bed, you should:
Stop them immediately to prevent choking Lower the head to at least 15 degrees Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees Lower the bed to the floor as far as it goes
ly: egrativelor e. Explain how these types of medacine are different from traditional(orthodox) medacine?
Answer:
They are just different
Explanation:
When a species cannot respond to environmental changes, members of that species begin to die. When the last member of a species dies, the species becomes
A nurse is caring for a patient with severe anemia. The patient is tachycardic and complains of dizziness and exertional dyspnea. The nurse knows that in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue, the workload on the heart is increased. What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Migraine
D) Fever
The signs and symptoms that might develop if a patient with severe anemia is going into heart failure is peripheral edema.
Peripheral edema is a sign that may develop if the patient goes into heart failure. When the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, fluid can build up in the body, leading to swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Other signs and symptoms of heart failure can include shortness of breath, fatigue, and rapid or irregular heartbeat.
It is important for the nurse to closely monitor the patient for any signs of heart failure and to report any changes in the patient's condition to the healthcare team.
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1. Isotonic dehydration is most frequently seen in: (
A. Osmotic diuresis
B. Perfusion sweating
C. Diabetes
D. Swallow difficult
E. Acute diarrhea
Answer: Acute diarrhea
Explanation: because of the type of dehydration it is most frequent caused by diarrhea. It occurs when the net losses of the water and sodium are in the same proportion as normally found in the ECF.
An ultrasound examination could show the motion of a fetus. In order to image this motion, the ultrasound examination devices requires what minimal information?.
The minimum information required by ultra-sound examination devices is frequency and speed of sound wave.
Minimum information required by ultra-soundAn ultrasound scan also known as sonography is a medical test that uses high-frequency sound waves to capture live images from the inside of your body.
The high frequency sound wave enables the motion of the motion of the fetus to be detected through Doppler effect.
Thus, the minimum information required by ultra-sound examination devices is frequency and speed of sound wave.
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Q57. What is the standard first aid for a needle stick injury?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Answer:
Tweezers
Alcohol Swab
Cotton Swab
Band Aid
what is aderaline and what is it used for in the body
Answer: Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a hormone your adrenal glands make to help you prepare for stressful or dangerous situations. Adrenaline rush is the name for the quick release of adrenaline into your bloodstream. This gets your body ready for a “fight or flight” response.
Adrenaline makes your heart beat faster and your lungs breathe more efficiently. It causes the blood vessels to send more blood to the brain and muscles, increases your blood pressure, makes your brain more alert, and raises sugar levels in the blood to give you energy.
Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following EXCEPT _____.
Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following except hypertension.
The loop diuretics are extremely protein bound and so enter the tube primarily by secretion within the proximal tube, instead of by capillary vessel filtration. The foremost usually used loop diuretics are diuretic, bumetanide, and torsemide, that are antibacterial derivatives.
Thiazide diuretics are counseled joined of the primary drug treatments for the high blood pressure. If diuretics are not enough to lower your blood pressure, your doctor may add different blood pressure medications to your treatment arrange.
Hypertension is a heavy medical condition that considerably will increase the risks of heart, brain, excretory organ and alternative diseases.
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A doctor is explaining treatment options to a patient by using complicated medical jargon, and the patient appears to be
confused. This is best described as a(n)
Answer:
Explanation: Communication barrier
“In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are”
Answer:
antagonist.
and the question before that is C. Sarcomeres
Explanation:
The quadriceps and the hamstrings are antagonists to each other in their actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps, and hamstrings.
What movement at the knee do the hamstring muscles perform?The function of this hamstring is to flex your knee, extend the thigh at your hip and rotate your lower leg from side to side when your knee is bent.
What is the relationship between the quadriceps and hamstrings in the knee?Many muscles acting on the thigh have their insertions around the knee. The quadriceps femoris muscle is the principal muscle involved in knee extension5, 6). The principal muscles involved in knee flexion are the hamstring muscle group5).
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4. An abdominal ultrasound of a pregnant woman shows that her baby has a protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges. What is the baby’s diagnosis?
Answer:
myelomeningocele
Explanation:
An abdominal ultrasound of a pregnant woman shows that her baby has a protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges, the diagnosis of the baby is -
Myelomeningocele
MyelomeningoceleIt is a neural tube defect in which the bones of the spine do not completely form and leads to an incomplete spinal canal. The spinal cord and meninges protrude from the baby's back.
It is called spina bifida in common language when a baby is born with a gap in the bones of the spine.
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Que funciones realiza el sistema circulatorio?
Answer:
El sistema circulatorio entrega oxígeno y nutrientes a las células y elimina los desechos. El corazón bombea sangre oxigenada y desoxigenada por diferentes lados. Los tipos de vasos sanguíneos incluyen arterias, capilares y venas. :)
Explain what is meant by 'dead aid'.
Dead Aid refers to international aid programs that have done more harm than good to the developing world.
In other words, "dead aid" implies that aid is not only unproductive, but also harmful to the development of recipient nations. Dead Aid is described as a technique of providing aid that perpetuates rather than reduces poverty, resulting in the devastation of local markets, the creation of more corruption, and the deepening of dependency. The author Dambisa Moyo, in her book "Dead Aid: Why Aid Is Not Working and How There Is a Better Way for Africa," is credited with coining the term "dead aid." In the book, she argues that many aid programs have failed to accomplish their intended goals and have, in fact, caused more harm than good.
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Choose among the following the most important
lab finding in nephrotic syndrome-
a) B-J protein
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypoalbuminemia
d) Hypertension
The lab finding in nephrotic syndrome is Hypoalbuminemia. Thus, option "C" is correct.
What is Nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by the excretion of too much protein in the urine.
It is usually caused by damage to the glomeruli in the kidneys. In nephrotic syndrome, the glomeruli are affected by an inflammation that allows proteins such as albumin, antithrombin or immunoglobulins to pass through the cell membrane and appear in urine (usually they don’t appear). Nephrotic syndrome causes swelling (oedema), usually in the feet and ankles, and increases the risk of other health problems.
Thus, option "C" is correct.
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The formation of new neurons is called __________.
A.
neurogenesis
B.
damage and neural reorganization
C.
effects of experience on plasticity
D.
development
ANSWER:
A.) neurogenesis
Answer: neurogenesis
The formation of new neurons is called neurogenesis.
Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some rhinitis, and low-grade fever. His likely diagnosis is:
According to his symptoms, Sam would be diagnosed with an upper respiratory infection.
What is an upper respiratory infection?An upper respiratory infection is a disease caused by an acute infection, which in 90% of cases is due to the presence of a virus and the remaining 10% due to bacteria in the nose, nasal sinuses, pharynx and larynx.
Characteristics of an upper respiratory infectionThe main symptoms are: fever, malaise, congestion and rhinitis, also symptoms such as sore throat, non-productive coughing and difficulty breathing may also occur.Generally, these episodes are of viral origin, with a higher prevalence of rhinovirus, adenovirus, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), influenza A and B, parainfluenza, and others.Therefore, we can conclude that an upper respiratory infection is one that affects the upper respiratory tract and can cause inflammation in the nose, ears, paranasal cavities, pharynx and/or larynx.
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