What is the first thing a person must do before anything can be done today corroded area

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Explanation:

We have learned that three things are required for the anodic and cathodic steps of corrosion to occur: an electrolyte, an exposed metal surface, and an electron acceptor. It follows, then, that we can prevent corrosion by removing one of these essential conditions.


Related Questions

What might be in the ethanol/aqueous interface? How could you eliminate this?

Answers

The ethanol-aqueous interface typically contains impurities such as surfactants, soluble organic and inorganic compounds, and other contaminants. Impurities such as this can affect the quality and purity of the final product. There are various ways to remove this interface.

One of them is by using a centrifuge. It can be used to physically remove the interface by spinning the mixture at high speeds. This separates the ethanol and aqueous layers, making it easier to eliminate the interface.Another option is to use a decanter. It is a device that separates liquids with different densities. It can be used to remove the ethanol-aqueous interface by gravity separation.The most effective way of eliminating impurities in the ethanol-aqueous interface is through distillation. It separates the impurities from the ethanol, resulting in a pure ethanol product. This is done by heating the mixture to the boiling point of ethanol. The ethanol vapor is then condensed into a separate container, leaving behind the impurities in the original container.There are several ways to eliminate the ethanol-aqueous interface, but the method you choose will depend on the amount and type of impurities present, as well as the desired purity of the final product.

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1) Inductive reactance XL increases when the frequency f of the applied voltage VT increases. (True or False)
2) The total impedance ZT in the circuit decreases when the frequency of the applied voltage increases. (True or False)
3) The total current I in the circuit increases when the frequency of the applied voltage increases. (True or False)
4) If the frequency of the applied voltage is increased, what is the effect on VR and VL? (Check all that apply.)
VR Increases, VR Decreases, VR Remains constant, VL Increases, VL decreases, VL remains constant
5) The phase angle θZ decreases when the frequency of the applied voltage increases. (True or False)

Answers

False. Inductive reactance (XL) is directly proportional to the frequency (f) of the applied voltage. As the frequency increases, the inductive reactance also increases.

False. The total impedance (ZT) in a circuit depends on the combination of resistive (R) and reactive (XL or XC) components. While the reactive component may change with frequency, the total impedance can either increase or decrease depending on the specific values of R, XL, and XC.

False. The total current (I) in a circuit depends on the total impedance (ZT) and the applied voltage (VT) according to Ohm's Law (I = VT / ZT). The frequency of the applied voltage does not directly affect the total current.

The effect on VR and VL depends on the specific circuit configuration. However, in a typical series RL circuit:

VR increases with increasing frequency.

VL remains constant since it depends on the inductance (L) of the circuit, which does not change with frequency.

False. The phase angle (θZ) represents the phase difference between the current and voltage in a circuit. It is determined by the reactive components (XL and XC) and can change with frequency. Therefore, the phase angle θZ may either increase or decrease with an increase in the frequency of the applied voltage, depending on the circuit configuration

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one way to straighten out an unstructured flowchart segment is to use the ____ method.

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The "connect the dots" method can be used to straighten out an unstructured flowchart segment by drawing lines to connect related shapes.

The connect the dots method involves visually identifying related shapes in a flowchart segment and drawing lines to connect them in a logical sequence. This helps to create a more structured and organized flowchart that is easier to read and understand. By following the flow of the chart from one connected shape to another, it becomes clearer how the process or system being described works. This method can be particularly useful when dealing with complex flowcharts that have multiple paths and decision points.

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what benefit is a reduced time lost in Osha

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It is to be noted that in OSHA, reducing time lost due to injuries and accidents can lead to increased productivity and efficiency, improved financial performance, and better employee morale and retention.

What is OSHA?

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 established the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to safeguard employees' safety and health by creating and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, information, and support.

Reducing time lost due to injuries and accidents can have a number of advantages for a business. By reducing injuries and accidents, a firm may save time and money on absenteeism, medical care, and workers' compensation claims. This can lead to enhanced production and efficiency, which can contribute to better financial performance.

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Effective operation of roller chain and gear couplings
requires proper
A. lubrication and cooling.
B. lubrication and balance.
C. alignment and balance.
D. alignment and lubrication.

Answers

Effective operation of roller chain and gear couplings requires proper alignment and lubrication.

Roller chain coupling are compact and flexible couplings. They are used for low to moderate speed/torque applications. For effective operation they need to be maintained by applying lubrication and aligning.

Gear couplings are used for high speed and torque applications. For effective performance they need to be lubricated frequently and proper alignment is needed.

Hence effective operation of roller chain and gear couplings  requires proper lubrication and alignment.

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THE MASS FOR OBJECT 1 is 107.01 grams what is the objects force in Newton’s answer please

THE MASS FOR OBJECT 1 is 107.01 grams what is the objects force in Newtons answer please

Answers

Given that,

Mass of the object 1, m = 107.01 grams

To find,

Force on the object.

Solution,

The force acting on the object is gravitational force. The force is given by the formula as follow :

F = mg

g is acceleration due to gravity

F = 0.10701 kg × 9.8 m/s²

F = 1.048 N

So, the force acting on object 1 is 1.048 N.

Anything that is made to meet a need or desire is?
a) Design
b) Technology
c) Process
d) Tool

Answers

Answer:

Technology

Explanation:

It’s made to meet desire

It should be noted that Anything that is made to meet a need or desire is Technology.

What is Technology?

Technology can be regarded as the practical application of science.

Technology can be seen in areas such as

CommunicationTransportationAgriculture

However, Technology came up because of the necessity for it, people desire it.

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Which of the following parts is unique to a preset hub?
a. A specialized adjusting nut
b. A metal sleeve between the tapered roller bearings
c. A ProTORQ adjusting nut
d. A long-life hub seal

Answers

A ProTORQ adjustable nut is unique to a preset hub. Wheel hub assemblies that are pre-adjusted and sealed at the factory are known as preset hubs. They are meant to simplify the installation process.

What is a tapered roller bearing used for?

These bearings, which are frequently used in gearboxes, hoisting apparatus, rolling mills, and mining equipment, can support strong radial loads and axial loads in both directions, depending on the design.

Are tapered roller bearings adjustable?

The word "setting" for tapered roller bearings refers to the precise amount of end play (axial clearance) or preload (axial interference) present within a mounted bearing. The freedom to easily alter and optimise configuration at the time of assembly is an inherent advantage of tapered

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Most technicians install rebuilt or new power steering pumps rather than overhauling the defective unit in the shop. True or False?

Answers

Answer:

Most technicians install rebuilt or new power steering pumps rather than overhauling the defective unit in the shop.

True

Explanation:

It has been established that most technicians, instead of overhauling the defective power steering pumps, prefer to install rebuilt or revamped pumps or even new pumps when they could have overhauled the unit themselves.  Some are afraid that leakage could occur again.  They are not confident enough to do the overhauling in-house or some claim that they do not have the time and other tools to carry out the overhauling.  Acknowledgedly, overhauling a power steering pump is not a job for the novice.  They require experienced and skilled hands to do the hard work.

A refrigerator with a COP of 3.0 removes heat from the refrigerated space at a rate of 10 kW. Determine the rate of power input.

Answers

The rate of power input for this refrigerator is 3.33 kW.

A refrigerator with a COP (Coefficient of Performance) of 3.0 is designed to remove heat from the refrigerated space efficiently. The COP is the ratio of the amount of heat removed from the refrigerated space to the work (power input) done by the refrigerator.

In this case, the heat removal rate is given as 10 kW. To determine the rate of power input, we can use the following formula:

COP = (Heat removal rate) / (Power input)

Rearranging the formula to solve for the power input:

Power input = (Heat removal rate) / COP

By substituting the given values:

Power input = (10 kW) / (3.0)

Power input = 3.33 kW (approx.)

So, the rate of power input for this refrigerator is approximately 3.33 kW. This means that for every 3.33 kW of electrical power supplied to the refrigerator, it is able to remove 10 kW of heat from the refrigerated space. A higher COP indicates a more energy-efficient refrigerator.

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What are the units of voltage, current, and power you will read from the power meter as you take measurements in the solar cell experiment?
a. V, mA, mW
b. V, A, W
c. V, mA, W
d. mV, A, mW
e. V, MA, W

Answers

The correct answer is option b. V, A, W. Voltage is measured in volts (V), current is measured in amps (A), and power is measured in watts (W).

These are the standard units used in electrical measurements and are commonly read from power meters. In the solar cell experiment, you will be taking measurements of the voltage, current, and power produced by the solar cell. As you take these measurements, you will read the values in the units of V, A, and W from the power meter. It is important to use the correct units when taking measurements in order to ensure accurate results. Using the wrong units can lead to incorrect calculations and inaccurate conclusions. Therefore, it is important to remember that voltage is measured in volts (V), current is measured in amps (A), and power is measured in watts (W) when taking measurements in the solar cell experiment.

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Consider a homogeneous spherical piece of radioactive material of radius ro = 0.04 m that is generating heat at a constant rate of ėgen = 5 x 107 w/m3 . the heat generated is dissipated to the environment steadily. the outer surface of the sphere is maintained at a uniform temperature of 110°c and the thermal conductivity of the sphere is k = 15 w/m·k. assuming steady one-dimensional heat transfer, (a) express the differential equation and the boundary conditions for heat conduction through the sphere, (b) obtain a relation for the variation of temperature in the sphere by solving the differential equation, and (c) determine the temperature at the center of the sphere.

Answers

Answer:

Please report my answer

Explanation:

I want my account deleted

A process generates 250 watts of useful energy and 600 watts of waste energy. What is the efficiency of the process?.

Answers

A process generates 250 watts of useful energy and 600 watts of waste energy, the efficiency of the process is 29%.

What is energy efficiency?

To perform a task or achieve a goal while using less energy is known as energy efficiency. Energy-efficient homes, buildings, manufacturing facilities, and electronics use less energy to produce goods and less energy to heat, cool, and operate appliances and electronics.

One of the simplest and most affordable strategies for halting climate change, lowering consumer energy costs, and boosting the competitiveness of American companies is energy efficiency. Achieving net-zero carbon dioxide emissions through decarbonization depends on energy efficiency as well.

The Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy (EERE) supports clean energy through its technical offices and programs that support research and development and encourage energy efficiency in all facets of the American economy.

Energy efficiency = useful energy output/energy input × 100%

useful energy output = 250 watts

energy input = useful energy output  + waste energy ouputs

                      = 250 + 600

                       = 850 watts

Energy efficiency = (250 /850) × 100%

                              = 29%

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A hollow cast iron 5m long column with both ends fixed is required for support a load of 1000KN if the external diameter of the column is 250mm find its thickness take working stress as 80mpa and rankings constant as 1/1600

Answers

The required thickness of the cast iron column is approximately 16.8mm. we can use the formula for the buckling stress of a column:σ_critical = π^2 * E / (KL/r)^2

What is buckling Stress?

The abrupt change in shape (deformation) of a structural component under load, such as the bowing of a column under compression or the wrinkling of a plate under shear, is referred to as buckling in structural engineering.

To find the required thickness of the cast iron column, we can use the formula for the buckling stress of a column:

σ_critical = π^2 * E / (KL/r)^2

where σ_critical is the critical buckling stress, E is the modulus of elasticity of cast iron, K is the Rankine's constant (1/1600 for a fixed-fixed column), L = length of the column, and r = radius of the column.

The external diameter of the column is 250mm, so the radius is r = 250/2 = 125mm.

The modulus of elasticity for cast iron is around 200,000 N/mm^2.

We can then calculate the critical buckling stress:

σ_critical = π^2 * 200,000 / (1/1600 * 5000/125)^2

σ_critical = 80 N/mm^2

Since the working stress of the column is 80 N/mm^2, which is equal to the critical buckling stress, we can calculate the required thickness t using the formula for stress in a column:

σ = P / (π * r^2 / 4)

where P is the load on the column, and π * r^2 / 4 is the cross-sectional area of the column.

Given that the load on the column is 1000 KN, we can calculate the required thickness:

t = P * 4 / (π * r^2 * σ)

t = (1000 * 1000) * 4 / (π * 125^2 * 80)

t = 16.8 mm

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An athlete is holding 24 lb of weights at a height of 6 inches above the stack as shown. To lower the weights, she applies a constant force of 5 lb to the handle. Determine the velocity of the weights immediately before they hit the stack.

Answers

The velocity of the weights immediately before they hit the stack is 3.4672 ft/s

How to solve for the velocity

1 Lb = 0.453 kg

24 = 24 x 0.453

= 10.872kg

Therefore the m = 10.872

g = 9.87

m1 = 10.872/9.87

m1g = 1.112

T = 5 lb

= 5 x 0.453 = 2.265kg

m1g = T + 2T

1.112a = 10.872 - 3(2.265)

a = 3.66m/s²

initial velocity = 0

6x 2.54

= 15.24x10⁻²m

v² = 0+ 2as

v = √2as

v = √2x3.66x 15.24x10⁻²

= √1.1174

= 1.0571

a meter is equal to 3.28 ft

v*m = 1.0571 * 3.28

= 3.4672 ft/s

The velocity of the weights immediately before they hit the stack is  3.4672 ft/s.

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A more complete prototype that gives the client an opportunity to test its features is called a(n) ________model.

Answers

Answer:

window

Explanation:

One - tenth kilogram of air as an ideal gas with k= 1.4 executes a carnot refrigeration cycle as shown i fig. 5,16, the isothermal expansion occurs at - 23C with a heat transfer to the air of 3.4 kj. The isothermal compression occurs at 27C to a final volume of 0.01m. Using the results of prob. 5.80 adapted to the case, Determine (a) the pressure, in Kpa, at each of the four principal states (b) the work, in KJ for each of the four processes (c) the coefficient of performance

Answers

Answer:

Hello your question is incomplete attached below is the missing part

a) p1 = 454.83 kPa,  p2 = 283.359 Kpa , p3 = 536.423 kpa , p4 = 860.959kPa

b) W12 = 3.4 kJ, W23 = -3.5875 KJ, W34 = -4.0735 KJ, W41 = 3.5875 KJ

c) 5

Explanation:

Given data:

mass of air ( m ) = 1/10 kg

adiabatic index ( k ) = 1.4

temperature for isothermal expansion = 250K

rate of heat transfer ( Q12 ) = 3.4 KJ

temperature for Isothermal compression ( T4 ) = 300k

final volume ( V4 ) = 0.01m ^3

a)  Calculate the pressure, in Kpa, at each of the four principal states

from an ideal gas equation

P4V4 = mRT4 ( input values above )

hence P4 = 860.959kPa

attached below is the detailed solution

b) Calculate work done for each processes

attached below is the detailed solution

C) Calculate the coefficient of performance

attached below is detailed solution

One - tenth kilogram of air as an ideal gas with k= 1.4 executes a carnot refrigeration cycle as shown
One - tenth kilogram of air as an ideal gas with k= 1.4 executes a carnot refrigeration cycle as shown
One - tenth kilogram of air as an ideal gas with k= 1.4 executes a carnot refrigeration cycle as shown
One - tenth kilogram of air as an ideal gas with k= 1.4 executes a carnot refrigeration cycle as shown

Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.Gloria is a budding network professional. What is the best way for to build her skills and prepare her for a job?The best thing Gloria can do is to. In this, she should.

Answers

Answer:

Understand how the network works where she is working at

Explanation:

Indicate the correct statement about the effect of Reynolds number on the character of the flow over an object.

If Reynolds number is high enough the effect of viscosity is negligible and the fluid flows over the plate without sticking to the surface.

If Reynolds number increases the extent of the region around the object that is affected by viscosity decreases.

If Reynolds number is low enough the effect of viscosity is so high that there is a region near the plate where the fluid is stationary.

If Reynolds number increases the size of the region around the object that is affected by viscosity increases.

Answers

Answer:

If Reynolds number increases the extent of the region around the object that is affected by viscosity decreases.

Explanation:

Reynolds number is an important dimensionless parameter in fluid mechanics.

It is calculated as;

\(R_e__N} = \frac{\rho vd}{\mu}\)

where;

ρ is density

v is velocity

d is diameter

μ is viscosity

All these parameters are important in calculating Reynolds number and understanding of fluid flow over an object.

In aerodynamics, the higher the Reynolds number, the lesser the viscosity plays a role in the flow around the airfoil. As Reynolds number increases, the boundary layer gets thinner, which results in a lower drag. Or simply put, if Reynolds number increases the extent of the region around the object that is affected by viscosity decreases.

Vince asks her friend Maria to review the construction plan of a building. Which part of the construction plan contains abbreviations and signs?

Answers

Answer:

Plan symbols /Architectural symbols

Explanation:

A blueprint drawing is a drawing used in the building and construction industry to show engineers and contractors how a building, an object or a system is to be constructed and implemented including final finishing. Graphical symbols are used in these diagrams to refer readers of the drawing to other drawings in the blueprint set. Symbols make it simple for experts that prepare the drawings and further help to ensure the file document is acceptable in size.

Answer:

That's probably going to be the information block

Explanation:

Well it is the "information" block, it's probably going to have the "information" right?

explain the relationship between the concrete compressive strength and its flexural strength and splitting tensile strength.

Answers

The relationship between the concrete compressive strength and its flexural strength and splitting tensile strength is that; these strengths are interrelated and their values are dependent on one another.

The compressive strength of concrete is defined as the maximum compressive load that can be applied on a test specimen, to fail in compression. It is expressed in MPa or psi. It is one of the most important properties of concrete and is essential in designing a structure because it defines the concrete’s ability to resist compressive stresses.

A flexural strength test is performed on concrete to determine the strength of concrete in resisting bending stresses. In other words, the test determines the ability of the concrete to withstand bending stresses without cracking. A flexural strength test is important in the design of structural elements like beams, slabs, and other such components that are subjected to bending forces.

The splitting tensile strength of concrete is determined by applying a load on a cylindrical or cubical test specimen of concrete. It is the ability of the concrete to withstand tensile forces that tend to split or rupture the test specimen. It is an important property of concrete because it defines the concrete’s ability to resist tension and shear forces.

The relationship between these three strengths of concrete is that they are interrelated and their values are dependent on one another. In general, the compressive strength of concrete is higher than its flexural strength and splitting tensile strength. However, flexural strength and splitting tensile strength are important in determining the overall strength of concrete, and they are used in the design of structural elements like beams, slabs, and other such components.

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Which business application uses passive (no power source) electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances (up to 20 feet)?
a. Cellphone traffic monitoring
b. Global positioning systems
c. Location-based services
d. K-Band Satellite Internet Service
e. Radio-frequency identification

Answers

The business application that uses passive (no power source) electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances (up to 20 feet) is radio-frequency identification (RFID).

RFID (radio-frequency identification) is a system that employs passive (no power source) electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances (up to 20 feet).

The tags contain data that is transmitted by a reader that is also called a radio-frequency identification interrogator or transceiver.

An RFID tag is placed on the object to be identified, and when it comes into range of the reader, the reader sends a signal that activates the tag.

After that, the tag responds by transmitting the data encoded in its memory.

This data can include identification, status, location, and other information related to the object.

A conclusion may be that the radio-frequency identification (RFID) is an advanced technology that has been developed to improve the accuracy and efficiency of data collection and management.

It can be used in a variety of business applications, such as inventory management, supply chain management, and asset tracking.

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T/F it is possible to view the moon in first-quarter phase the day after a total lunar eclipse.

Answers

In terms of angular size, the Moon and the Sun are similar. Only when the Moon is new can there be a solar eclipse.

At what time would you look to see a First Quarter Moon?

Around noon and midnight, the first quarter moon rises and sets. When the sun is setting and the moon is at its greatest point in the sky, this is the finest moment to view the first quarter moon. It can also be seen in the early afternoon, close to the horizon.

The Moon's first quarter is when we can see half of its illuminated surface and half of its shadow.

The day after a total lunar eclipse, one can observe the Moon in its first quarter phase. In terms of angular size, the Moon and the Sun are similar. Only when the Moon is new can there be a solar eclipse. Only when the Moon is new does a lunar eclipse take place.

Therefore, the statement is true.

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A nutrunner on the engine assembly line has been faululing for low torque. (A nutrunner is an automated machine that automatically torques bolts to a specified condition.) When the fault odcurs, the line stops until someone can investigate or correct the issue. This has been a problem for the past two weeks, and all employees on the assembly line are having to work overtime each day to make up for the lost time from the nutrunner issues. Please explain and visualize the process you would take to solve or improve this problem.

Answers

A nutrunner on the engine assembly line has been failing for low torque. process includes identifying the root cause of the fault, and optimizing the nut runner's performance.

The first step would be to investigate the cause of the low torque issue in the nut runner. This may involve examining the machine, reviewing maintenance records, and gathering data on when and how the fault occurs. Once the root cause is identified, corrective actions can be taken. This may include repairing or replacing faulty components, recalibrating the nut runner, or updating software/firmware.

To prevent future occurrences, implementing a preventive maintenance program is crucial. Regular inspections, scheduled maintenance tasks, and performance testing can help identify and address potential issues before they lead to line stoppages. Additionally, providing thorough training to operators and maintenance staff on nutrunner operation, maintenance procedures, and troubleshooting techniques can contribute to quicker resolution of faults and reduce downtime.

Continuous monitoring of the nutrunner's performance is essential to ensure it operates within specified tolerances. This can be done through real-time data collection and analysis, including torque measurement and trend analysis. By closely monitoring the nutrunner's performance, any deviations or anomalies can be detected early, allowing for proactive interventions.

Overall, a systematic approach that combines investigation, preventive maintenance, employee training, and continuous monitoring can help solve the problem of the faulty nutrunner and improve the efficiency and productivity of the assembly line.

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The largest class of errors in software engineering can be attributed to _______.

Answers

Answer:

improper imput validation

Explanation:

The given family of functions is the general solution of the differential equation on the indicated interval.Find a member of the family that is a solution of the initial-value problem.
y=c1+c2cosx+c3sinx,(−[infinity],[infinity]) y=c 1 +c 2 cosx+c 3 sinx,(−[infinity],[infinity])
y'''+y′=0,y(π)=0,y′(π)=2,y''(π)=−1 y +y =0,y(π)=0,y ′ (π)=2,y ′′ (π)=−1

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

\(y'''+y=0---(i)\)

General solution

\(y=c_1e^o^x+c_2\cos x +c_3 \sin x\\\\\Rightarrow y=c_1+c_2 \cos x+c_3 \sin x---(ii)\\\\y(\pi)=0\\\\\Rightarrow 0=c_1+c_2\cos (\pi)+c_3\sin (\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow c_1-c_2=0\\\\c_1=c_2---(iii)\)

\(y'=-c_2\cos x+c_3\cosx\\\\y'(\pi)=2\\\\\Rightarrow2=-c_2\sin(\pi)+c_3\cos(\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow-c_2(0)+c_3(-1)=2\\\\\Rightarrow c_3=-2\\\\y''-c_2\cos x -c_3\sin x\\\\y''(\pi)=-1\\\\\Rightarrow-1=-c_2 \cos (\pi)=c_3\sin(\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow-1=c_2-0\\\\\Rightarrow c_2=-1\)

in equation (iii)

\(c_1=c_2=-1\)

Therefore,

\(\large\boxed{y=-1-\cos x-2\sin x}\)

An analog signal is bandlimited to 10 kHz, sampled at the Nyquist rate. Samples are quantized into 4 levels, and then transmitted at the sampling rate. The quantization levels (symbols) Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4 are with respective probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, and 1/8 during successive signaling interval. (Be careful of your calculation, as the results will be used in consecutive questions - avoid error propagation ) a. Determine the Nyquist sampling rate. b. Determine the information associated with each symbol. c. Determine the entropy (average information) of the source output. d. What is the minimum bit rate required to transmit the source (Calculate the information- transmission rate R)? e. What is the maximum possible information-transmission rate given above symbol- transmission rate? f. If the information-transmission rate R in 4d. (i.e., Part d. of this problem) equals channel capacity C, what is the bandwidth W, assuming SNR = 30 dB? g. If the information-transmission rate exceeds the channel capacity, could the message be transmitted free of errors?

Answers

a. Determine the Nyquist sampling rate. The Nyquist sampling rate is equal to twice the maximum frequency component of the signal.

Hence, the Nyquist sampling rate for an analog signal band-limited to 10 kHz is 20 kbps.b. Determine the information associated with each symbol. The quantization levels are 4. c. Determine the entropy (average information) of the source output. Here, H(X) = Σ p(xi) I(xi) , where xi is the symbol and p(xi) is the probability of the symbol.The entropy of the source output is:H(X) = ½ * 2 + ¼ * 4 + 1/8 * 6 + 1/8 * 6H(X) = 1.75 bits/symbold. Minimum bit rate required = entropy x symbol rate = 1.75 * 20,000Minimum bit rate required = 35,000 bps e.

Maximum information transmission rate = entropy x Nyquist rate = 1.75 * 2 * 10^4Maximum information transmission rate = 35,000 bpsf. If the information-transmission rate R in 4d. (i.e., Part d. of this problem) equals channel capacity C, what is the bandwidth W, assuming SNR = 30 dB?The channel capacity is given as:C = W log₂(1 + SNR)Since R = C, 35,000 = W log₂(1 + 10^(30/10))W = 124.61 kHz. g. Signal component is found out.

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Why is the reversed Carnot cycle executed within the saturation dome not a realistic model for refrigeration cycles?

Answers

Explanation:

The paths of warmth and job interactions are inverted by repeating the Carnot process. A Carnot fridge or a Carnot heating system is considered a fridge or heat engine that acts on the reverse Carnot cycle.

The Carnot process comprises liquid phase mixture compression and expanding, which limits mechanical components.

an aerial photograph taken at 3000m above ground surface, the top and bottom distances of a telecommunication tower are 4.65cm and 4.5cm from the principal point, the bottom of the tower is 2700 above mean sea level.
determine tower height.

Answers

Respuesta: h= 2.22f

Explicación : x/h​= 4.65-4.5-4.5=0.15/4.5=0.0333

3000-2700/x=4.5/f

x= h/0.0333
300/h/0.0033= 4.5/f

h= 300*0.0333/4.5

Briefly explain thermal expansion using the potential energy–versus–interatomic spacing curve.

Answers

As the temperature of the material increases, the potential energy of the molecules increases. Thermal expansion occurs due to changes in temperature, and interatomic distances increase as potential energy increases.

What are the uses of Thermal Expansion?

Thermal expansion is used in a variety of applications such as rail buckling, engine coolant, mercury thermometers, joint expansion, and others.

It is to be noted that an application of the concept of liquid expansion in everyday life concerns liquid thermometers. As the heat rises, the mercury or alcohol in the thermometer tube moves in only one direction. As the heat decreases, the liquid moves back smoothly.

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