What is the correct answer???

What Is The Correct Answer???

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

U U G

hope you have a good day/night make sure to do good in school and try your best :)

Answer 2
UUG is the correct answer

Related Questions

PLSS NEED THIS ASPA!!
WILL GIVE YOU BRAINLYEST!!

If the producer trophic level started with 1000 units of energy, what
amount of energy will the primary consumer trophic level have?

A. 1 unit
B. 10 units
C. 100 units
D. 1000 units

Answers

c.) have a good day! :) <3

Answer:

I believe that it would be C because of the 10% rule

Explanation:

Which statement about Earth’s mantle is correct? (GIVING BRAINLIEST TO CORRECT ANSWER!)

1.) The density of the mantle is greatest 300 km below the Earth’s surface

2.) The highest temperatures within the Earth occur in the mantle.

3.) The greatest pressures within the Earth exist in the mantle.

4.) The temperatures of the mantle 300 km below the Earths surface is very near its melting point.

Answers

2 because the earths mantle is the extremely hot

The following are countermeasures you would take against a web application attack: Secure remote administration and connectivity testing. Perform extensive input validation. Configure the firewall to deny ICMP traffic. Stop data processed by the attacker from being executed. Which of the following attacks would these countermeasures prevent

Answers

The countermeasures mentioned - secure remote administration and connectivity testing, extensive input validation, configuring the firewall to deny ICMP traffic, and stopping data processed by the attacker from being executed - would prevent a variety of web application attacks.

These countermeasures would prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, and remote code execution. By securing remote administration and performing connectivity testing, organizations can prevent unauthorized access and ensure that only authorized personnel can access the web application. Extensive input validation prevents attackers from injecting malicious code through user input fields, and configuring the firewall to deny ICMP traffic helps prevent DoS attacks. Finally, stopping data processed by the attacker from being executed helps prevent remote code execution attacks.

In conclusion, The countermeasures mentioned - secure remote administration and connectivity testing, extensive input validation, configuring the firewall to deny ICMP traffic, and stopping data processed by the attacker from being executed - would prevent a variety of web application attacks.

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A trait whose development requires the action of thousands of genes but whose variation is due to variation at only two loci is
A.) Extranuclear
B.) Digenic
C.) Polygenic
D.) Meristic

Answers

A trait whose development requires the action of thousands of genes but whose variation is due to variation at only two loci is Digenic trait.

What are Digenic traits?

Digenic traits are genetic traits that are controlled by two genes. Unlike many other traits, digenic traits are not solely determined by the interactions of the alleles of one gene. Digenic traits are often associated with diseases, and researchers have found that many diseases that were previously thought to be caused by mutations in a single gene are actually the result of mutations in two or more genes.

Digenic traits can be inherited in a variety of ways, including recessive inheritance, dominant inheritance, and additive inheritance. Research into digenic traits is important for understanding the genetic basis of disease and for developing treatments and cures for genetic disorders.

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12. About 85% of the world's______
is still produced by nuclear fission and burning fossil fuels.
A.oil
B. Natural gas
C. Coal
D. Electricity

Answers

Answer:

im pretty sure its d

Explanation:

A researcher is trying to classify two cells as prokaryotic or eukaryotic. The characteristics of the two cells are given in the table. Feature Cell A Cell B ribosomes present present nucleus present absent diameter 21 micrometers 0.9 micrometers mitochondria present absent How should the researcher classify cell A and cell B? A. Cell A and cell B are both prokaryotic. B. Cell A and cell B are both eukaryotic. C. Cell A is prokaryotic, and cell B is eukaryotic. D. Cell A is eukaryotic, and cell B is prokaryotic.

Answers

Answer:

Cell A is eukaryotic, and cell B is prokaryotic.

Explanation:

According to the given statement the researcher classify cell A and cell B Cell A is prokaryotic, and cell B is eukaryotic.

The correct option is C.

What is the main function of the mitochondria?

The majority of the chemical energy required to drive a cell's metabolic operations is produced by mitochondria, which are lattice cell fragments (mitochondrion, singular). For how crucial this job is, mitochondria can occupy up to 25% of the volume of a cell. There really are 1000–2500 mitochondria per cell.

How do mitochondria make energy?

Utilizing the oxygen already present in the cell, mitochondria transform the chemical energy from the food into energy that can be used by the host cell. It takes place inside mitochondrial and is termed as oxidative phosphorylation.

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when you see a publication describing an enzyme from candidatus pseudomonas utahensis you can infer that this organism .

Answers

When you see a publication describing an enzyme from Candidatus Pseudomonas utahensis, you can infer that this organism belongs to the domain Archaea.

What are archaea?

Archaea are a type of single-celled organism that are similar to bacteria. They are members of the Archaea domain, which is one of three domains in the tree of life, along with Bacteria and Eukarya. While archaea and bacteria share many similarities, there are also significant differences between the two. Some archaea can survive in extremely harsh environments, such as those with high temperatures or acidity levels.The term Candidatus is used to describe organisms that have not been cultured or observed in the wild. Therefore, Candidatus Pseudomonas utahensis is a species of Archaea that has not been cultured or observed in the wild, but has been identified by its genetic material in environmental samples.

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which of the following is the correct sequence of events? which of the following is the correct sequence of events? antigen uptake > antigen processing > apc migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation apc migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation apc migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation > antigen uptake > antigen processing antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation > apc migration to lymph nodes apc migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen presentation > antigen processing

Answers

The correct sequence of events is: antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation.

First, antigen-presenting cells (APCs) such as dendritic cells and macrophages, take up foreign antigens (like pathogens) from the body through mechanisms such as phagocytosis, pinocytosis, or receptor-mediated endocytosis. This is called antigen uptake.

Next, these antigens are processed within the APCs into smaller peptide fragments. During antigen processing, these fragments are loaded onto major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, preparing them for presentation to T cells.

Following processing, APCs then migrate to the lymph nodes, which are sites where immune responses are coordinated. In the lymph nodes, APCs can encounter and interact with T cells, a type of white blood cell essential for adaptive immunity.

Lastly, the processed antigens are presented on the surface of APCs by MHC molecules. This step, called antigen presentation, allows the T cells to recognize the foreign antigen and initiate a specific immune response against the invading pathogen. In summary, the correct sequence is antigen uptake, antigen processing, APC migration to lymph nodes, and antigen presentation.

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what carbon source(s) can yeast cells metabolize under anaerobic conditions to make atp? glucose lactic acid pyruvate either ethanol or lactic acid ethanol

Answers

Under anaerobic circumstances, yeast cells may metabolize glucose to produce atp.

Even under aerobic settings, Saccharomyces cerevisiae yeast prefers glucose as a carbon source, and ferment is the main mechanism for energy generation. Anaerobic processes in yeast produce alcohol, whereas they produce lactic acid in your muscles. An anaerobic process called fermentation allows glucose to release energy even in the absence of oxygen. In addition to yeast cells, bacteria and animal muscle cells also undergo some sort of fermentation. When exposed to osmotic stress and ethanol as a carbon source, yeast cells accumulate dihydrate rather than glycerol. Two distinct wild type cultures, W303-1A and BY4741, were cultivated in shake-flasks throughout time to observe internal glycerol and trehalose buildup.

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Believe it or not, _energy____ within an ecosystem is NOT transferred back and
forth between all levels. Energy begins with the
and flows in
one_
direction to
4
to
5
and, finally, to __6.
eas...
AZ
represents all the possible paths for energy to flow within an
ecosystem, whereas a 8
represents just one path. When drawing a diagram
of a food web, you always draw the arrow in the direction of ___9. for example,
an arrow from a 10
to a
11
ific ...
Organisms at all trophic levels eventually die. 12
such as bacteria and
fungi, process the stored energy in dead plants and animals and transfer part of it to the
soil that the plants will use as nutrients, and the energy cycle continues.
Word Bank:
.producers
.consumers
decomposers
.Energy1
one3
food chain
.energy flow
.microorganisms
.two
.food web
the Sun
stars

Believe it or not, _energy____ within an ecosystem is NOT transferred back andforth between all levels.

Answers

Answer:

1. One

2. Two

3. The sun

4. Producers

5. Consumers

6. Decomposers

7. Food web

8. Food chain

9. Energy flow

10. Producer

11. Consumer

12. Microorganisms

Please find the answers to each blank space in BOLD

Explanation:

Believe it or not, _ENERGY_ within an ecosystem is not transferred back and forth between all levels. Energy begins with the SUN and flows in one direction to PRODUCERS to CONSUMERS and, finally, to DECOMPOSERS.

A FOOD WEB represents all the possible paths for energy to flow within an ecosystem, whereas a FOOD CHAIN represents just one path. When drawing a diagram of a food web, you always draw the arrow in the direction of ENERGY FLOW. For example, an arrow from a PRODUCER to a CONSUMER.

Organisms at all trophic levels eventually die. MICROORGANISMS such as bacteria and fungi, process the stored energy in dead plants and animals and transfer part of it to the soil that the plants will use as nutrients, and the energy cycle continues.

Which of the follwoing is a facial bone?
Sphenoid bone Nasal bone
Ethmoid bone Frontal

Answers

Nasal bone is a facial bone. Option B is correct.

The facial bones are a group of bones that make up the structure of the face. They include the maxilla, mandible, nasal bones, zygomatic bones, lacrimal bones, palatine bones, and vomer bone. The nasal bone is a pair of small rectangular bones that form the bridge of the nose.

They sit between the frontal bone and the maxilla bone, and they articulate with the ethmoid and vomer bones. The nasal bones provide support and shape to the nose, and they play an important role in protecting the nasal cavity and the sinuses. The nasal bone is one of the facial bones and it is responsible for forming the bridge of the nose. Option B is correct.

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Which sentence best describes a forensic scientist's role?
O A.
B.
A forensic scientist analyzes blood, tissue,
and other samples to assist law enforcement.
O D.
A forensic scientist maintains the equipment
used to view samples in the laboratory.
OC. A forensic scientist creates artificial organs
out of specific materials and metals.
A forensic scientist assists a biological scientist
in studying bacteria and viruses.

Answers

Hmm, using common sense, the answer would be B. A forensic scientist analyzes, blood, tissue, and other samples to assist, law-enforcement

how are two nucleotides bonded together

Answers

The nucleotides that make up DNA and RNA are joined together in a chain by chemical interactions, known as ester bonds, between the sugar base of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the neighboring nucleotide.

When nucleotides are incorporated into DNA, a phosphodiester bond forms between neighboring nucleotides. This covalent bond is made up of the 5' phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3'-OH group of another (see this explanation).

This creates a "backbone" of phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate for each strand of DNA. Adenine and thymine form hydrogen bonds with each other, while cytosine and guanine form hydrogen bonds with each other, holding the two strands together.

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_____ is caused by stress and is the bending, tilting and breaking of rock.

Answers

I think the answer is tectonics !

if the event is all day, you should you should build up glycogen stores starting 2 day ahead.question 19 options:
a.true
b.false

Answers

It is true that if the event is all day, it's essential to start building up glycogen stores 2 days ahead to ensure adequate energy levels during the event. Hence option a) is the correct answer.

Building up glycogen stores takes time, and starting 2 days ahead of an all-day event ensures that your body has enough energy to sustain you throughout the day.

This is especially important for endurance activities such as marathons or triathlons. It is recommended to consume carbohydrates and hydrate well during the two days leading up to the event.

Glycogen stores is the storage form of glucose in animals, including humans. Glycogen is a large and branched polymer made up of glucose molecules that is stored in the liver and muscles.

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The cellulose and lignin are
changed into other substances,
including _____and____

Answers

including simple sugars and organic acids.

Where does meiosis take place?

Answers

Answer:

Meiosis takes place in germ line cell.

Invovled in reproduction.

Explanation:

Answers:

Diploid cells

Explanation:

Meiosis takes place to produce two gametes or sex cells

what will happen if we cover and tie a plant inside a plastic bag​

Answers

Answer:

the plant will start to wilt and then die

Answer:

it will die

Explanation:

It will suffocate and need fresh air, water, and food or nutrients to survive so therefore I come to my conclusion ;-;

most phospholipids move freely within a semifluid membrane ______.

Answers

Most phospholipids move freely within a semifluid membrane bilayer.

Phospholipids form a bilayer with their hydrophilic (water-loving) heads facing outward and their hydrophobic (water-fearing) tails facing inward. This arrangement creates a fluid and flexible membrane. The phospholipids have the ability to move laterally within the membrane, which is known as lateral diffusion.

This movement occurs because the lipid bilayer is not rigid but rather has a semifluid consistency. It allows phospholipids to constantly undergo lateral movement, interacting with neighboring molecules and adjusting their positions, contributing to the dynamic nature of the membrane and facilitating various cellular processes such as membrane fluidity, signal transduction, and protein recruitment.

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when foreign dna and plasmid are both cut with the same restriction enzyme and then mixed together, all molecules will form recombinants.

Answers

False, Some plasmids may reanneal without taking in any more DNA. when plasmid and foreign DNA are combined after being cut with the same restriction enzyme

Enzymes that cleave DNA are known as restriction enzymes. Each enzyme distinguishes one or more target sequences and cleaves DNA at or close to those sequences.

Numerous restriction enzymes produce single-stranded DNA overhangs at the ends of their cuts, which are often staggered. But some result in blunt endings.

DNA ligase is an enzyme that joins DNA. A single, unbroken DNA molecule can be created by joining two sections of DNA that have matching ends using ligase.

DNA ligase and restriction enzymes are employed in DNA cloning to splice genes and other DNA fragments into plasmids.

An enzyme that cuts DNA and recognises particular DNA locations is known as a restriction enzyme. A number of restriction enzymes make staggered cuts at or near their recognition sites to create ends with a single-stranded overhang.

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3. Which satellite image shows the landform featured in this map? Map C

i need help asap i’ll mark anybody who helps as brainlist!!

3. Which satellite image shows the landform featured in this map? Map C i need help asap ill mark anybody

Answers

The landform shown on this map is visible in a satellite picture of Mount Everest.

What does "landform" mean?

An earthly feature that is a component of the terrain is referred to as a landform. There are four main categories of landforms: mountains, hills, plateaus, or lowlands. Valleys, buttes, canyons, and basins are examples of minor features.

What are landscapes, and give an example?

Mountain ranges, valleys, plains, and plateaux are examples of landforms that are on the outermost layer of the Earth and define the landscape. As well as undersea features like ocean basins as well as mid-ocean ridges, they additionally incorporate coastal features like bays or peninsulas.

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The table shows data of amino acid composition in four different species of insects. Bees, wasps, hornets, ants, and fleas are all insects classified in the clade Hymenoptera, and are thought to have an evolutionary relationship. A scientist compared the amino acid sequence of each species in the table to the species Apis mellifera (Honeybees) and recorded the differences.



Based on the molecular data, which species is most closely related to Apis mellifera (Honeybees)?



Polistes carolina

Vespa crabro

Ctenocephalides canis

Solenopsis geminata

Answers

The closest relative of Apis mellifera (Honeybees) is Solenopsis geminata from the Molecular evidence in the table.

What is the closest specie to  Apis mellifera (Honeybees)?

Solenopsis geminata, also known as the tropical fire ant, is considered to be the closest relative of Apis mellifera (Honeybees) based on genetic analysis. Despite the significant differences between ants and bees, both species share a common ancestry in the Hymenoptera order.

Additionally, both species are known for their social behavior, with both ants and bees living in large, organized colonies with specific roles for individual members. This similarity in social structure is thought to contribute to their genetic relatedness.

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The growing problem of _______________ and _____________ in england created issues between colonies and the mother country. [choose 2]

Answers

The growing problem of taxation refers to the imposition of various taxes by the British government on the American colonies. The correct answer is taxation and trade regulations.

One significant example is the Stamp Act of 1765, which required colonists to purchase stamps for various legal documents and printed materials. These taxes were seen as burdensome and unfair by the colonists, as they had no representation in the British Parliament to voice their concerns or negotiate the taxes imposed upon them. The taxation issue sparked widespread protests and resistance, leading to a growing sense of discontent among the colonists.

Trade regulations were another significant issue between the colonies and the mother country. The British government imposed various acts and regulations, such as the Navigation Acts, which restricted colonial trade and limited economic opportunities. These acts favored British merchants and manufacturers over colonial interests, as they aimed to control and regulate colonial commerce for the benefit of the British economy.

The combination of taxation and trade regulations created a sense of economic and political oppression among the colonists, fueling their desire for greater autonomy and eventually leading to the American Revolution.

Therefore, the growing problem of taxation and trade regulations in England created issues between colonies and the mother country.

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All of the following originates on the scapula except the _____.
(a) pectoralis major
(b) teres major
(c) teres minor
(d) subscapularis
(e) supraspinatus.

Answers

All of the following originate on the scapula except the Pectoralis Major. Pectoralis Major is not originated in the Scapula.

This muscle arises from the anterior surface of the clavicle and the anterior surface of the sternum. It is located in the chest area and it is responsible for movements of the upper arm. Scapula is a flat triangular-shaped bone that is present in the dorsal part of the rib cage. It connects the clavicle bone at the shoulder to the humerus bone of the arm. Scapula is also known as the shoulder blade, and it is a part of the shoulder girdle. What are the muscles attached to the scapula? The following muscles originate on the scapula: Teres major -Teres minor-Supraspinatus Subscapularis. These muscles are attached to the scapula bone and are responsible for various movements of the shoulder girdle.

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Polysaccharides are composed of carbohydrate monomers called.

Answers

Answer: monosaccharides

Explanation:

A substitution mutation occurred and changed the 5th base in the DNA from a C to a T. Write the sequence of RNA codons that would result from this kind of mutation. **Separate each codon with a space. TACACGCAATTACCAGGGTAGCCATTGATT

Answers

The sequence of RNA codons resulting from the substitution mutation that changed the 5th base in the DNA from a C to a T is AUGUGCGUUAUCCAGGGUAGCCAAUUGA.

In DNA, the base C (cytosine) pairs with G (guanine), while in RNA, the base C pairs with G. However, due to the substitution mutation, the original C is replaced by a T (thymine) in the DNA sequence.

In RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil (U). Therefore, the RNA codons corresponding to the mutated DNA sequence can be derived by replacing each T with U and maintaining the sequence order.

The original DNA sequence TACACGCAATTACCAGGGTAGCCATTGATT would have the corresponding RNA codons AUGUGCGUUAUCCAGGGUAGCCAAUUGA. Each codon consists of three bases and represents a specific amino acid or a start or stop signal in the translation process of protein synthesis.

It's important to note that the given DNA sequence is provided as a single continuous string, and without additional information about the reading frame or specific gene sequence, it is not possible to determine the precise protein sequence or the functional implications of the mutation.

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As a fundamental concept of biological science, evolution is supported by multiple forms of observable evidence. Which of the following supports the theory of evolution? Fossil records, comparative anatomy, comparative embryology, biochemistry.

Answers

Fossil records, comparative anatomy, comparative embryology, and biochemistry all support the theory of evolution, a fundamental concept of biological science. Fossils provide evidence of how organisms evolved over time by studying their physical remains.

Comparative anatomy involves looking at the similarities and differences between different species of animals and plants to show how they are related.

Comparative embryology examines how embryos of different species develop and how these processes are related. Finally, biochemistry reveals information about the genetic similarities between species and how these genes have changed over time.

By studying all these forms of evidence, biologists can understand the history of life on Earth and how it has changed over time. For example, comparing the genetic structure of different species shows how they are related to one another and how they have evolved to become different. Looking at the fossils of different organisms allows us to trace the lineage of species back to their common ancestors. By understanding all these forms of evidence, scientists can gain a better understanding of evolution.

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to properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag?
A. Once every 3 to 4 seconds
B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds
C. Once every 10 seconds D. Once every 12 seconds

Answers

To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, you should squeeze the bag once every 5 to 6 seconds. This choice corresponds with option B.



When ventilating a patient with a perfusing rhythm, it is crucial to maintain a consistent and appropriate rate to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation without causing potential harm.

Providing ventilation once every 5 to 6 seconds ensures that you can deliver approximately 10 to 12 breaths per minute, which is the recommended rate for adults in most situations.

By following this guideline, you can help maintain the patient's oxygenation and carbon dioxide levels within the desired range while minimizing the risk of complications, such as barotrauma, which may result from over-ventilation.

Always remember to observe the patient's chest rise and fall to ensure that the breaths are effective and sufficient in providing the required oxygenation.

In summary, when ventilating a patient with a perfusing rhythm, it is essential to squeeze the bag once every 5 to 6 seconds, ensuring that you provide approximately 10 to 12 breaths per minute for optimal patient care.

So, option B. is correct.

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Which of these statements is true about autotrophs, but not heterotrophs?

Answers

Answer:

they both have some thing true about them in there definition

Explanation:

You forgot to include the answers but I'll just list out some things.

Autotrophs: An organism that produce their own energy from the sun and other natural components.

EX: Algae, phytoplankton, grass, seaweed, etc.

Heterotrophs: An organism that cannot produce it's own food and uses off other animals' energy.

EX: Dogs, fish, birds, antelopes, etc.

*Hopefully this helps you figure the answers. Since you didn't give is the solutions, we can't give you the "correct" answer. Like I said before, I'll give you some explanations.*

Rapid reproduction is an advantage of which process?
A. gamete formation
B. sexual reproduction
C. asexual reproduction
D. chromosome duplication

Answers

Answer:

I believe the correct answer is asexual reproduction because they can reproduce fast, and with multiple offspring. Hope this helped you!

I believe it is asexual reproduction
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enter the number, letter or other designation assigned to the provision in the articles of incorporation being amended 3a FILL IN THE BLANK. There have been two notable trends in the demographics of multinational enterprises since the 1960s. These include _____. the rise of non-US multinationals INMATLAB CODES PLEASE!Problem 4 (25 points). Consider the 4 points (-2, 2), (0,0), (1, 2), (2,0). a) Write the (overdetermined) linear system Az = b arising from the linear regression problem (i.e., fit a straight line). Anchor Resort and Casino surveils its customers and employees through a complex network of recorded video; undercover security agents; and weighing chips, cards, and coins for key transactions. What potential disadvantage of monitoring employees should Anchor managers consider Which of the following is not considered a monitoring mechanism? The external auditors The board of director's audit committee Top level management The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) 1. If a triangle of area 95 square units has a height of length 19 units, calculatethe base of the triangle. Find the sale tax and the total cost of a wireless mouse that cost $21.99 the tax rate is 4.7% round the answer to the nearest cent Money Eric returned from a trip to Las Vegas with$300.00, which was 50% more money than he had at thebeginning of the trip. How much money did Eric have atthe beginning of his trip? describe a situation in nature where genetic drift might be a more important influence on evolution than natural selection. the general molecular formula for alkanes is cnh2n 2. what is the general molecular formula for alkynes? click in the answer box to activate the palette. Which equation is equivalent to 2x + 3y = 12? Consider a general reaction A(aq)===enzymeB(aq) The of the reaction is 6.060 kJmol1 . Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction at 25 C.What is G for the reaction at body temperature (37.0 C) if the concentration of A is 1.6 M1.6 M and the concentration of B is 0.65 M0.65 M? A data lists the number of hours each students from finance class studied for midterm. For this data set, the minimum is 3, the median is 6, the third quartile is 9, the interquartile range is 5, and the maximum is 17. Construct a box-and-whisker plot that show the number of hours studied. Begin by first placing the middle dots on the median. Then work on placing the test of the point starting with the ones closest to the median Select ALL expressions that are squares of linear expressions:O x + 5x + 250 (-/x + 5)O (3m + 2) (3m2)Od8d + 16O x +8116x - 64 famous studies in the 1940s and 1950s found that infants living in orphanages i need help with A new pet store wants to design a logo to be displayed on business cards, posters in the shops windows, and on a sign above the building. The best way to create and save this logo is as a whats 1 + 1? im not dumb i just wanna se how any people will answer BRAINLIEST AND 30 POINTSAnd Effie was right. That afternoon Towser was bitten in the garden by a dragon about the size of a rabbit, which he had tried to chase, and the next morning all the papers were full of the wonderful "winged lizards" that were appearing all over the country. The papers would not call them dragons, because, of course, no one believes in dragons nowadaysand at any rate the papers were not going to be so silly as to believe in fairy stories. At first there were only a few, but in a week or two the country was simply running alive with dragons of all sizes, and in the air you could sometimes see them as thick as a swarm of bees. They all looked alike except as to size. They were green with scales, and they had four legs and a long tail and great wings like bats' wings, only the wings were a pale, half-transparent yellow, like the gear-boxes on bicycles.What is the main idea of the bolded section?Dragons were all over the country.Dragons were burning people.The dragons were the same size.People did not believe in dragons. Use the following table to answer questions 33-39. The authors of a study wanted to assess the accuracy of a questionnaire used to diagnose depression. They selected a random set of elderly residents living at an assisted facility and assessed medical records to determine who did and did not have depression, which had been assessed upon arrival at the facility and regularly thereafter. This assessment served as a "gold standard" for the analysis. The table below shows the data from the subgroup analysis. For the following calculations, report your answers as a percentage rounded to the nearest hundredth. You do not need to include the percent symbol in your answers on Canvas. Results of the depression questionnaire Depression (medical record) Total No Depression (medical record) Depression (questionnaire) 52 112 164 No Depression (questionnaire) 8 74 82 Total 60 186 246 33. Calculate the sensitivity. (1 point) 34. Calculate the specificity. (1 point) 35. Calculate the positive predictive value (PPV). (1 point) 36. Calculate the negative predictive value (NPV). (1 point) 37. Calculate the prevalence of depression in this study population. (1 point) 38. Calculate the overall agreement between both methods to evaluate depression. (1 point) 39. If we were to learn that the prevalence of this condition was actually 35%, how would that affect our positive and negative predictive values? (2 points) a. Despite the change in prevalence, we would expect the PPV and NPV to remain the same. b. Because of the decrease in prevalence, the PPV would decrease and the NPV would increase. c. 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