This contains bacteria that aids in the breakdown of waste
1small intesting
2large intestine
3gall bladder

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

large intestine

Explanation:

In your large intestine, more water moves from your GI tract into your bloodstream. Bacteria in your large intestine help break down remaining nutrients and make vitamin K link. Waste products of digestion, including parts of food that are still too large, become stool.


Related Questions

Easy question about calories just need it for an assignment due right now. So pls help

If one gram of carbohydrates provides us with 4 calories and a can of soda has 40 grams of carbohydrates then how many calories are in a can of soda?

Answers

Answer:

44 Calories

Explanation:

You add 4 calories plus 40 grams.

List the five types of cancer and give a brief explanation of each.

Answers

Carcinomas. A carcinoma begins in the skin or the tissue that covers the surface of internal organs and glands. Carcinomas usually form solid tumors. They are the most common type of cancer. Examples of carcinomas include prostate cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer, and colorectal cancer.

Sarcomas. A sarcoma begins in the tissues that support and connect the body. A sarcoma can develop in fat, muscles, nerves, tendons, joints, blood vessels, lymph vessels, cartilage, or bone.

Leukemias. Leukemia is a cancer of the blood. Leukemia begins when healthy blood cells change and grow uncontrollably. The 4 main types of leukemia are acute lymphocytic leukemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, acute myeloid leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia.

Lymphomas. Lymphoma is a cancer that begins in the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system is a network of vessels and glands that help fight infection. There are 2 main types of lymphomas: Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

qualitative urine testing for hcg (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably________days after implantation of the blastocyst (fertilized egg).

Answers

The qualitative urine testing for hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably 14-24 days after implantation of the blastocyst, which means option D is correct.

The implantation of blastocyst is the process in which group of few cells attach to the inner lining of the uterus. It is done in 4-5 days in normal pregnancy and may take about a week in case of IVF (In vitro fertilization). The testing can be done only when it is attached so that human body releases greater amount of hormone to sustain the pregnancy. However, after fertilization of egg and sperm and formation of blastocyst, it continuously develops. hCG is called pregnancy hormone because it is released only when the pregnancy is confirmed. Its traces are found in urine after proper implantation of blastocyst, so it is advised to go for urine test after 14-24 days of confirmation.

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Refer to complete question below:

Qualitative urine testing for hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably days after implantation of the blastocyst (fertilized egg). (The answer is NOT C.)

a. 0-7 days

b. 7-9 days

c. 9-14 days

d. 14-24 days

What happens to protein when it is consumed in excess of the body's physiological needs

Answers

Answer:

Excess amino acids are used to meet energy needs or converted to and stored as fat. please mark me brainliest <3

Explanation:

When excessive amounts are consumed, it can put the body at risk for increased levels of ammonia, urea, and amino acids in the blood. Although very rare, protein poisoning can be fatal because of these increased levels.

epithelial cells form the tissue that protects the kidney tubules and covers the ovaries.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in organs with these functions, such as the ducts of the salivary glands, liver, pancreas and other exocrine glands. It forms thyroid follicles, kidney tubules, seminiferous tubules of male testis, and covers the surface of the ovaries (germinal epithelium).

Which is NOT a factor of acculturation stress among immigrants?
A. Language barriers
B. Financial stability
C. Limited access to healthcare
D. Personal freedom

Answers

Answer: d

Explanation:

Choose from one of the following Chemistry tests. Provide two (2) instances where you may see the value increase or decrease. Explain the rationale for your answer. Try to be original in your answer. This may require some investigation on your part!
Bilirubin
Calcium
Phosphorus
Potassium
Urea Nitrogen

Answers

I choose Bilirubin as the Chemistry test. Bilirubin levels can increase in liver disease and hemolytic anemia due to impaired metabolism and increased breakdown of red blood cells. However, improved liver function and resolution of hemolytic anemia can lead to a decrease in bilirubin levels, indicating restored liver function and reduced red blood cell destruction.

I choose Bilirubin as the Chemistry test.

Instances where the value of Bilirubin may increase:

1. Liver disease: Bilirubin is primarily metabolized and excreted by the liver. In conditions such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, liver function is compromised, leading to impaired bilirubin metabolism. This can result in an increase in bilirubin levels in the blood.

2. Hemolytic anemia: Increased breakdown of red blood cells (hemolysis) can lead to an elevated production of bilirubin. Conditions like sickle cell anemia or autoimmune hemolytic anemia can cause an increase in bilirubin levels due to the excessive destruction of red blood cells.

Instances where the value of Bilirubin may decrease:

1. Improved liver function: If a person with liver disease undergoes successful treatment or experiences improvement in liver function, bilirubin levels may decrease. This indicates the restoration of proper bilirubin metabolism and excretion by the liver.

2. Resolving hemolytic anemia: If the underlying cause of hemolytic anemia is treated or resolved, such as through medication or blood transfusions, the excessive breakdown of red blood cells is reduced. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood may decrease.

Please note that these are general examples, and specific cases may vary. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for an accurate interpretation of bilirubin test results in individual cases.

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While attempting to correctly answer this question, you notice that you are mentally commenting to yourself about its level of difficulty. Vygotsky would refer to these internal mental remarks as

Answers

Answer:

do not understand confusing

Why is it important to food producers that microbes can be dormant?

Answers

Bacteria, molds and yeast are the most important microorganisms that cause food spoilage and also find the maximum exploitation in production of food and food products. Different strains of bacteria and fungus are used for fermentation of dairy products for production of a wide variety of cultured milk products.

Joseph is an elementary school student who has special interest in biology. He aspires to become a doctor one day. Which organization will
foster his interest?
OA
AMSA
OB
HOSA
Ос.
ACP
OD
АНЕС
OE.
APHA

Answers

Answer:

advance clinic practice (acp)

if am not wrong?

Dopamine is infusing. The bottle states dopamine 800 mg, and it’s mixed in 500 ml of D5W. The I.V. Pump in your patient’s room is set at 15 ml, and the patient weighs 60 kg. At how many mcg/kg/minute is the patient’s dopamine infusing?

Answers

Answer:

700

Explanation:

could you give any suggestions on how to improve online classes?​

Answers

Try to make more interactive activities like break rooms where students can communicate they make the student more into the subject

Which of the following is encouraged for nutrition coaching for positive reinforcement?

Answers

Answer: C. Food journal

Explanation:

The options are:

A. Calorie counting

B. Macro counting

C. Food journal

D. Exercise journal

Positive reinforcement is when a reward is given to someone in order to encourage an individual to perform a certain behavior.

The food journal can be encouraged for nutrition coaching for positive reinforcement. A food journal contains the list of the foods and drinks taken by a person which can be used to know the eating habits of the person. The food journal can be used in monitoring a person and instigate positive reinforcement.

24. Check the area that applies to an endomorph body type.
O thin, flat chest
O round shaped
O body with rock hard muscles
O low percentage of body fat

Answers

Answer:

B: Round Shaped

Explanation:

People with endomorph body types tend to have soft, round bodies with a wide waist.

The correct answer to this question is that endomorphs are Round Shaped.

What are Endomorph?

Endomorph refers to a body type that is distinguished by a shorter stature, a broad frame, and a greater body fat content.

Endomorphs may often quickly gain muscular mass, but they also have a slower metabolism, a greater body fat composition, and have a bit more trouble losing weight.

As a result, persons with an endomorphic body type should consume more protein rich meals and consume less calories from processed or fatty foods.

To conclude with we can say that Endomorph body types are defined by soft, spherical bodies with a broad waist.

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A patient who has renal failure and is waiting for a kidney transplant would most likely receive
O dialysis.
O lithotripsy.
Ooxybutynin.
O adrenalectomy.

Answers

A- dialysis- the kidney filters body fluids (urine, blood, etc) and dialysis filters the blood.

Answer:A

Explanation:

which term describes the entire group of parts? tongue, esophagus, liver, gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, colon

Answers

Answer:

Digestive System

Explanation:

your digestive system consists of tongue, esophagus, liver, gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, colon

Is depression a mental illness?

Answers

Answer:

Depression is a common mental disorder.

Explanation:

It is not a mental illness.

Answer: yes it is a mental illness.

How do you think the way the fibers are arranged contributes to the strength of the cell wall

Answers

The more organized and uniform the arrangement of fibers, the stronger the cell wall will be. The distribution of cellulose microfibrils is important for plant cell wall growth and development. The orientation of microfibrils varies during different growth stages, thereby influencing the properties of the cell wall.

The arrangement of the fibers in the cell wall contributes significantly to its strength. Cell walls of plants are mainly made of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, and lignin. Cellulose is the primary component and is made of glucose monomers arranged in long chains.

These chains are organized in a crystalline structure called microfibrils. The arrangement of these microfibrils plays a vital role in the strength of the cell wall. Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a cross-linked network, which is laid down as concentric layers around the cell.

The fibers of each layer are oriented at angles that differ from the fibers in adjacent layers. This arrangement is responsible for the exceptional strength of the cell wall against mechanical stress. It provides mechanical strength to the cell and offers resistance against bending, stretching, and compression.

The orientation of the fibers also determines the mechanical properties of the cell wall. It affects how the cell wall responds to stress and determines its plasticity and elasticity.

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Under f758 an unnessary psychotropic medication may be one that

Answers

Under f758 an unnecessary psychotropic medication may be one that likely to cause harm when given without a clinical indication, at too high of a dose.

What is psychotropic medication?

Psychotropic medication is a catch-all term for medications that influence mental function, behavior, and experience.

Psychotropic medications are commonly used to treat symptoms of anxiety, depression, psychological distress, and/or insomnia in older adults.

Medications may be unnecessary and may cause harm if given without a clinical indication, at an excessively high dose, for an inordinately long period of time after the resident's distress has been relieved, or if the medications are not monitored.

Thus, it can cause side effects if taken unnecessary.

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Sera would like to lose 6 pounds before her vacation in 8 weeks. She typically consumes 2,000 Calories per day. How many Calories should Sera consume daily to lose this weight, assuming her physical activity level remains the same?
Show your work

Answers

If Sera would like to lose 6 pounds before her vacation in 8 weeks and she typically consumes 2,000 Calories per day, than she should consume 1500-1600 calories daily to lose this weight, assuming if her physical activity level remains the same.

The physical activity level (PAL) could be a way to categorical an individual's daily physical activity as variety, and is employed to estimate an individual's total energy expenditure. Together with the basal rate, it is wont to reckon the quantity of food energy an individual must consume so as to take care of a selected way.

The physical activity level may also be calculable supported a listing of the (physical) activities an individual performs from day to day. Every activity is connected to variety, the physical activity ratio.

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What is causing the rising number of skin cancer cases attributable to tanning beds? Check all that apply. A. People do not understand that using a tanning bed is dangerous. B. More young people are using tanning beds. C. Using tanning beds is extremely popular. D. More people are using tanning beds than smoking. E. Using a tanning bed is more dangerous than laying out to get a tan.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is E

Explanation:

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PLSSSS HELPPPP ASAPPPP I WILLL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

exercising contributes cartilage healing, and reduces injuries and if you don't exercise it won't do any of that.

the answer is True


working out can help your heart function for longer

What benefits does Medigap insurance offer? give examples

Answers

Medigap insurance is a private insurance plan that helps pay for some of the out-of-pocket expenses that Original Medicare does not cover. Some benefits that Medigap insurance offers include:

1. Co-payment and deductible coverage: Medigap plans offer coverage for the co-payments and deductibles associated with Original Medicare. For example, Medicare Part A requires a deductible for inpatient hospital stays and Medigap plans C and F cover this deductible.

2. Additional coverage for medically necessary services: Medigap plans also offer additional coverage for medically necessary services that Original Medicare does not cover. For instance, if you need to travel outside the United States, Medigap plans C through G and M and N cover emergency medical care.

3. Access to specialists: With a Medigap plan, you can see specialists without needing a referral from a primary care physician.

4. Guaranteed acceptance: You can sign up for a Medigap plan during an open enrollment period without needing a medical exam or any other type of underwriting process.

5. Renewability: Medigap insurance is renewable as long as you continue to pay the premiums on time. You also cannot be cancelled or denied coverage due to your health status.

Examples of Medigap plans:1. Medigap Plan A: This plan provides basic coverage, including Medicare Part A co-insurance, Part B co-insurance, and blood transfusions.2. Medigap Plan F:

This plan provides the most comprehensive coverage, including coverage for Part B excess charges, Part A deductibles, and foreign travel emergencies.

3. Medigap Plan G: This plan provides comprehensive coverage like Plan F but does not cover the Part B deductible.4. Medigap Plan N: This plan provides comprehensive coverage but requires a co-payment for doctor visits and emergency room visits.

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Why is ptsd more common than before?

Answers

Answer:

I BELEIVE its because the world has gotten worse over the years so there are more bad people or more bad things so it's affecting more people. hope this helps <3

Which of the following statements below are true about cultural and linguistic competence?

Answers

C and D, Linguistic competence is the ability to speak consumers' preferred languages or offer interpreter services when needed and Cultural competence is the capacity to identify, respect, and understand differences in cultural beliefs, behaviors, and needs of consumers

What does cultural and linguistic competence have to do with healthcare?

The ability of healthcare practitioners to understand and successfully communicate with patients from different cultural and language backgrounds is known as cultural and linguistic competence.

This is significant because patients from diverse cultural and linguistic backgrounds may have different healthcare needs and ideas about health and sickness than the general population. Healthcare practitioners may create trust with their patients and deliver better treatment if they recognize and appreciate these distinctions.

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Complete question:

Which of the statements below are true about cultural and linguistic competence?

A. Linguistic competence is the ability to speak all languages that consumers speak in your service area.

B. Being culturally competent means that, when you're working with different cultures, what you do is more important than how you do it.

C. Linguistic competence is the ability to speak consumers' preferred languages or offer language assistance services when needed.

D. Cultural competence means being able to identify, respect, and understand differences in cultural beliefs, behaviors, and needs of consumers.

what is conflict avoidance​

Answers

Conflict avoidance is a method of reacting to conflict, which attempts to avoid directly confronting the issue at hand. Methods of doing this can include changing the subject, putting off a discussion until later, or simply not bringing up the subject of contention.

Answer:

First, let’s define conflict avoidance: It’s a method of dealing with conflict—a conscious choice—to not directly address the problem at hand. The “problem” is any situation in which people have apparently incompatible interests, goals, principles, or feelings.

Explanation:

brainliest please

When you position a resident on their back, their legs should normally be positioned:

Answers

in a straight line with knees slightly at approximately 5 degrees to 10 degrees

Hope this helped

What is a warning sign of quackery

Answers

All are warning signs of quackery:

-someone claims that a product or treatment is the only possible cure for a health problem

-the promised results seem too good to be true

-a product or treatment is said to cure many different ailments

-a product is said to contain "special" or "secret" ingredients

The product is the only cure/cure for health problems and the promised results do not seem to be true. Products/cures are aimed at treating many different health problems, and products are said to contain "special" or "secret" materials.

What are examples of quackery?

An example of quackery is an ineffective or unsubstantiated treatment that is being promoted. One example is homeopathy, which promotes the idea that smaller amounts of medicine are more effective than larger amounts, and that a disease can be cured by taking a substance that causes the same symptoms.

How can u detect quackery?

Promises of quick and easy weight loss without diet or exercise. Products that advertise prompt and painless cures. Products that promise cures for diseases with no known cure. Testimonials about miracles or breakthroughs that have not been documented in the medical literature.

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The Baylor plan was:

Answers

The Baylor plan was a method of hospitalization and payment for hospital services that was developed at Baylor University Hospital in Dallas, Texas, in the early 1900s.

Who did the Baylor plan help?

In accordance with this strategy, patients would pay a set fee ahead in return for all hospital services throughout their stay, often one dollar per day. This was a change from the standard fee-for-service arrangement, in which clients would pay for each service received individually.

The Baylor plan is regarded as the country's first modern health insurance program and served as a template for various insurance plans that came after.

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What is the impact of being absent from work?
O a. Employees who are at work often times must do the job of the absent employee
O b. There is less likelihood of a job-related accident or a decrease in job morale.
O c. It can lead to a perception of poor planning and preparation, and a lack of
motivation and commitment
Od. All of the above
O e. A only
O f. A and C only

Answers

I think it is e it might also be f
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