The term for when a pathogen first interested body and begins to multiply until symptoms first appear is incubation period.
Incubation period is defined as the time between the infection and appearance of symptoms. During this period, the pathogen multiplies inside the host's body and reaches a threshold that is needed for the symptoms to appear.
Incubation period is also known as 'latent period' or 'latency period'. The incubation period varies from pathogen to pathogen. For example -
the incubation period for malarial parasite ranges from 10 to 28 days.
The correct question should be -
the term for when a pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply until symptoms first appear _________
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Person centered care means that staff should treat all residents exactly the same true or false
I think it is: False
I hope this helped! Sorry if you get it wrong! :)
which broad muscle extends from the chest and shoulder muscles to the side of the chin and is responsible for lowering the lower jaw and li
Answer:
Platysma
Broad muscle extending from the chest and shoulder muscles to the side of the chin; responsible for lowering the lower jaw and lip.
need definition of epiconl
Answer: EPICON stands for "Epidemiological Consultation"
Explanation:
Answer:
EPICON stands for "Epidemiological Consultation"
Explanation:
The physician orders 12.5 mg of meperidine IM. On hand you have 25 mg/ mL. How many milliliters will you give?
Answer:
meperidine (Rx)
Brand and Other Names:Demerol, pethidine
Classes: Opioid Analgesics; Synthetic, Opioids
SECTIONS
Dosing & Uses
ADULT PEDIATRIC GERIATRIC
Dosage Forms & Strengths
syrup: Schedule II
50mg/5mL
Explanation:
meperidine (Rx)
Brand and Other Names:Demerol, pethidine
Classes: Opioid Analgesics; Synthetic, Opioids
SECTIONS
Dosing & Uses
ADULT PEDIATRIC GERIATRIC
Dosage Forms & Strengths
syrup: Schedule II
50mg/5mL
The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means that: ______________. Choose the correct option: A) 12.43 in every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000. B) 12.43/100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year 2000. C) 12.43/100,000 died of tuberculosis in the United States in the year 2000. D) there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000.
A) 12.43 in every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000.
How can the incidence of tuberculosis be interpreted in the United States in 2000?In the year 2000, the incidence of tuberculosis in the United States was reported to be 12.43 cases per 100,000 people. This means that out of every 100,000 individuals in the population, approximately 12.43 individuals were diagnosed with tuberculosis during that year.
It is a measure of the prevalence of tuberculosis within the population and indicates the number of new cases per 100,000 people. The incidence rate helps in understanding the burden of the disease and monitoring its trends over time.
In this case, it suggests that tuberculosis was present at a relatively low rate in the United States in 2000.
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explain a strategy you can use to ensure that your own personal beliefs don't get in the way of your job response
Answer:
A good strategy is: an organizational and tolerant culture in the workplace
Explanation:
A good strategy is. Having an organizational and tolerant culture at work, this means, what is work must be done at work and what corresponds to our personal values and beliefs, are only ours; But we must be willing to be receptive and share our beliefs and values with others as long as the occasion for it arises in a social setting.
Now, we must be tolerant and very respectful of the opinions and beliefs of others, we must not turn our work into a place of religious and philosophical competences.
If cost of 15 eggs is ? 75, then find out the cost of 4 dozens eggs.
? 185
? 150
? 300
? 240
Question 2 of 11
Answer:
No <3
Explanation:
30.
A patient newly diagnosed with chronic myelocytic leukemia () has been prescribed treatment with
imatinib. The patient asks the nurse how imatinib works. What would be the nurse's best response?
Answer:
imatinib is a type of chemo. chemo works by slowing or stopping the growth of cancer cells which grow and divide quickly, but chemo can also destroy healthy cells that grow fast as well like red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets.. etc.
the hospital outreach nurse is teaching a community program about chronic obstructive pulmopnary disease (copd). which concept should the nurse keep in mind while preparing for this program
The concept the nurse should keep in mind while preparing for this program is that COPD is a chronic, progressive and incurable illness.
Therefore, it is important to provide information on how to manage the condition through lifestyle changes and by studying various treatments. The nurse should also focus on promoting preventive measures such as avoiding smoking and second-hand smoke, eating healthy foods, getting regular exercise, and routinely visiting a doctor for checkups.
By providing practical tips on managing COPD and stressing the importance of early detection and treatment, the nurse can help empower participants to maintain their health. Additionally, it is important to discuss emotional issues that arise due to COPD such as loneliness or depression, as these can affect an individual's quality of life significantly.
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When blocked by drugs, beta blockers heart rate slows and demand for ______________ in the heart decreases, lowering blood pressure. Fill in the blank.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization using a radiopaque dye. Which of the following assessments is most critical before the procedure?
A. Intake & output
B. Baseline peripheral pulse rates
C. Height & weight
D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
Answer:
D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
Explanation:
This procedure requires an informed consent because it involves injection of a radiopaque dye into the blood vessel. The risk of allergic reaction & possible anaphylaxis is serious & must be assessed before the procedure.
The phrase _____ was coined to indicate payment of services rendered by someone other than the patient. Group of answer choices health care provider health maintenance organization third-party reimbursement two-party system
The phrase third-party reimbursement was coined to indicate payment of services rendered by someone other than the patient and this is because the payment was rendered by the patient guardian.
What is third part reimbursement?Third party reimbursement is a form of phrase that is use in the health care system to indicate when a patient guardian, family or friend tend to pay for the devices rendered or treatment of a patient from a particular ailment.
Therefore, The phrase third-party reimbursement was coined to indicate payment of services rendered by someone other than the patient and this is because the payment was rendered by the patient guardian.
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Name a structure that is on the ventral side of the heart, located more laterally within the axial region
Answer:
anterior interventricular
Explanation:
On the ventral side of the heart, the anterior interventricular sucus is located.
The relative risk of ischemic stroke for nonwhites compared with whites is about 2 for those aged 35 to 64 and about 1 for those 65 years of age and older. This is best described as:
The situation above is best described as a MODIFICATION of the effect of race by age. Ischemic stroke occurs when the blood flow supply of oxygen to the brain is blocked.
Ischemic stroke is a serious condition that occurs when the blood flow that supplies oxygen to the brain is blocked.
Although a stroke may occur at any age, the majority of them occurs in individuals who are 65 or older.
Ischaemic stroke is a multifactorial disorder, thereby it is also dependent on genetic factors.
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renin release from the kidneys occurs when blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ecf levels of sodium fall.
When blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ECF levels of sodium fall, the kidneys release renin, which initiates a cascade of events involving angiotensin and aldosterone. This ultimately helps restore blood pressure and sodium balance in the body.
Renin release from the kidneys occurs when blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ECF levels of sodium fall."
1. A decrease in blood pressure or plasma volume is detected by the kidneys. This can happen due to various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, or low sodium intake.
2. The juxtaglomerular cells, located in the afferent arterioles of the kidney, are responsible for monitoring blood pressure and plasma volume.
3. When these cells sense a drop in blood pressure or plasma volume, they release an enzyme called renin.
4. Renin converts angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, into angiotensin I.
5. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is found in the lungs.
6. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone, a hormone that causes the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium.
7. The increase in sodium reabsorption and water retention helps to restore plasma volume, thereby increasing blood pressure and returning ECF sodium levels to normal.
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What is a challenge that forensic science faces in the future? Not enough cases Stalling technology Limited resources All of the above
Answer: Limited Resources
Explanation:
As the population of humanity grows and people live closer with each other, there is bound to be more crime and therefore cases where forensic science is needed. This is therefore not a challenge faced by forensic science in future.
Technology having stalled is also not a challenge because technology generally improves with time. The only plausible challenge is therefore a lack of resources so the third option must be right.
Which technique should you use to provide culturally competent care ti your patients
The technique that you can us e to provide competent care is to cultural Awareness and Sensitivity
What is the technique?
It's crucial to use a number of strategies and tactics that respect and appreciate your patients' cultural backgrounds if you want to give them with care that is culturally competent.
Recognize your own cultural prejudices, presumptions, and preconceptions. Recognize and appreciate the variety of cultures, customs, and values held by your patients. Be aware of any potential biases and barriers based on culture that can affect how you communicate and make healthcare decisions.
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Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting?
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA.
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA. The level of supervision required varies based on state laws and regulations, as well as the complexity of the patient's condition and treatment plan. Generally, PTAs require direct supervision, meaning the PT must be physically present and available to give guidance and direction during the treatment session. PT aides may require indirect supervision, meaning the PT or PTA must be available by phone or other means of communication to answer questions or provide guidance as needed. It is important for the PT to establish clear expectations and guidelines for supervision to ensure patient safety and quality of care.
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What is the name of the tool the egytpians used to pull the brains out through the nostrils.
Answer:
A chisel
Explanation:
At the Per-Nefer, they laid the body out on a wooden table and prepared to remove the brain. To get into the cranium, the embalmers had to hammer a chisel through the bone of the nose. Then they inserted a long, iron hook into the skull and slowly pulled out the brain matter.
Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.
-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.
-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.
A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.
-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.
-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.
-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.
-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.
-
Middle layer of the meninges.
-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body
The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
What is the blood brain barrier?This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.
Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
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Stimulants used to treat conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy can complicate which of the following health conditions?
Answer:Stimulants used to treat conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy can cause health conditions such as Insomnia, hallucination, heart failure, seizures and eventually deaths
Explanation:
ADHD means Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder WHILE Narcolepsy refers to uncontrollable chronic sleep disorder that causes overwhelming daytime episodes of deep sleep drowsiness. Stimulants used to treat these conditions help to promote alertness, increase energy and reduce impulsiveness and hyperactivity. But with misuse and abuse of these Stimulants can lead to health conditions such as Insomnia, hallucination, heart failure, seizures and eventually death.
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which is a false statement of the usp/nf chapter <797> regulations?
A false statement about the usp/nf chapter <797> regulations could be that they do not apply to all compounding personnel, environments, and equipment.
The USP/NF chapter <797> regulations are guidelines established by the United States Pharmacopeia and the National Formulary to ensure the safe preparation and handling of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs). These regulations cover various aspects such as facility design, personnel training, environmental monitoring, and documentation. It is crucial for healthcare providers to comply with these regulations to prevent contamination and adverse patient outcomes. It is recommended that you consult with a healthcare professional or regulatory agency for further information on USP/NF chapter <797> regulations and to ensure compliance.
The USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations outline standards for compounding sterile preparations to ensure patient safety and minimize the risk of contamination. A false statement about these regulations could be that they do not apply to all compounding personnel, environments, and equipment. In reality, the USP <797> regulations apply to all healthcare personnel involved in the compounding of sterile preparations, as well as the facilities, equipment, and supplies used in the process. This ensures a consistent level of quality and safety across all compounding activities.
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A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
In calculating the following dilution; 115ml of a 9% benzocaine solution must be diluted to a 4%
solution, you notice the final volume of 250ml was provided by a fellow technician. The final volume
should have been 258. 75ml. The technician states he wanted to pour an even volume.
a. How might this difference in volume affect the patient?
b. Explain whether or not you think this is appropriate
a. The difference in volume between the intended final volume of 258.75 ml and the actual final volume of 250 ml could potentially affect the patient if it results in a different concentration of the benzocaine solution being administered. For example, if the final concentration of the solution is less than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may not provide the intended level of pain relief for the patient. On the other hand, if the final concentration is higher than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may increase the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities for the patient.
b. It is not appropriate for the technician to intentionally pour an even volume of the diluted solution if it results in a deviation from the intended final concentration. The concentration of the medication should be carefully controlled to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage and to minimize the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities. It is important for the technician to follow proper protocols and procedures for diluting medications, including accurately measuring and recording the final volume of the solution.
Tim is a 24-year-old college student who learns that he is allergic to shrimp. What advice would you give Tim
After learning that he is allergic to shrimp, the best advice that can be given to Tim is "Do not eat shrimp at all." The allergic reaction can cause severe health impacts on Tim.
The reason is that people who are allergic to shellfish can have a severe reaction to them. Such reactions include wheezing, anaphylaxis, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. If Tim is allergic to shrimp, eating any amount of it, regardless of size, can cause an adverse reaction in him, and it is not advisable to consume shrimp mixed with other foods either as the reaction can still occur. Hence, it is best to avoid eating shrimp altogether. Checking every year to see if he has "outgrown" the allergy is not advisable as shellfish allergy is a lifelong condition; there is no cure. Thus, it's essential to avoid shrimp and other shellfish that may cause allergies. And if Tim experiences an adverse reaction to shrimp, he should visit a physician immediately and obtain a prescription for allergy medication.
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1. Which of the following statement regarding glucagon are TRUE:
A) has an onset of action of 10 minutes
B) has a peak effect in 20 minutes
C) dose may be repeated 3 times
0 0
D) A and B only
Answer:
has a peak effect in 20minutes
The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease (PAD).What nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce platelet aggregationand promote circulation?
a) Administer clopidogrel.
b) Administer cilostazal.
c) Administer atorvastatin.
d) Administer pentoxifylline
Option D: Administering pentoxifylline would be the most appropriate nursing intervention to reduce platelet aggregation and promote circulation in a client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease (PAD).
Pentoxifylline is a medication that improves blood flow by reducing the viscosity of blood, decreasing platelet aggregation, and improving red blood cell flexibility. It helps to widen blood vessels and increase blood flow to the extremities, thereby improving circulation in individuals with PAD. By reducing platelet aggregation, it helps prevent the formation of blood clots that can further obstruct blood flow in narrowed arteries.
While other medications like clopidogrel, cilostazol, and atorvastatin may have a role in managing PAD, they are not primarily focused on reducing platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that prevents blood clots but is not specifically indicated for PAD. Cilostazol is a medication that improves peripheral circulation, primarily by vasodilation, and can be used to manage PAD symptoms.
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Which bars a provider from receiving Medicare reimbursement either permanently or for a prescribed period of time
Answer:
Permissive and mandatory exclusion
Explanation:
Medicare can be defined as a government-sponsored insurance program or plan established to provide healthcare services to the elderly and the disabled in the United States of America.
An example is the Affordable Care Act (ACA) which was formally known as the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Obamacare). It is a federal statute of the United States of America which was enacted by the 111th US Congress and signed into law by President Barack Obama. The Affordable Care Act (ACA) became effective on the 23rd of March, 2010 and it focused on making affordable health insurance available to qualified people or households through cost-sharing reductions and premium tax credits (subsidies).
Permissive and mandatory exclusion of the Social Security Act (SSA) bars a medical services or healthcare provider from receiving Medicare reimbursement either permanently or for a prescribed period of time.
5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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which topic will the nurse include when teaching a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonoary disease about the need to prevent respiratory disease
When teaching a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease about the need to prevent respiratory disease, the nurse will include the topic of smoking cessation.
Online marketing term referring to the strategic placement and management of website content to attract a particular target audience, to generate leads, to drive engagement, to encourage brand awareness, and eventually, to convert visitors to customers, subscribers, or followers. Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking, which is the most significant risk factor for the development and progression of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smokers with COPD have higher morbidity, mortality, and healthcare utilization rates compared to those who never smoked.In addition to smoking cessation, other topics that the nurse may include in teaching patients with COPD about the need to prevent respiratory disease include proper use of inhalers and oxygen therapy, avoiding respiratory irritants, exercising, eating well, staying hydrated, getting enough rest, avoiding respiratory infections, and getting vaccinated. The nurse may also teach patients about the signs and symptoms of exacerbations, the importance of self-management, and the availability of pulmonary rehabilitation and support groups.
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