The nurse is examining several orders for medicines. .5 mg dosage would cause the nurse to be involved.
Why is accuracy necessary in nursing?Accuracy of nurses' diagnoses is defined as a rater's judgment of the conflict between a piece of diagnostic information and patient data. Low accuracy can show in wasted time and energy, harm to patients, absence of positive outcomes, and patient and family displeasure.
Errors with MedicationFor new nurses, the most common cause of errors with prescription is a lack of 'presence of mind', as well as nerves and pressure. Studies have demonstrated that administration errors can account for anywhere up to 32% of prescription errors.
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Question: The nurse is reviewing several orders for medications. Which dosage would cause the nurse to be concerned about the accuracy of the order?
a) 500 mg
b) 50 mg
c) 0.5 mg
d) .5 mg
How do u eat jumbo jalapenos ? ouuu
The health care team’s goal is to promote the overall wellness of the patient.
1 - interdisciplinary approach
2 - isolated approach
3 - intermediary approach
4 - holistic approach
Answer:
Intermediary approach
Explanation:
Answer:
D) Holistic approach
Explanation:
A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.
A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.
The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.
DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:
Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:
Dehydration:
Hypertensive heart disease:
Left ventricular failure:
Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.
What does septic mean?
The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.
What triggers septicaemia in a person?
The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.
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As you identify clusters of data, you begin to recognize patterns or trends. Data often contain defining characteristics, or criteria, for nursing diagnoses. Listed below are three nursing diagnoses with defining characteristics. Which of the diagnoses would likely apply to Patricia Newman? Select all that apply.
Answer:
Ineffective breathing pattern
Impaired gas exchange
Diminished respiratory sound
Change in respiratory rate
Explanation:
Patricia Newman is 61 years old female who got admitted in a hospital due to difficulty in respiration. Her lungs are infected due to cough. She is facing hypertension and osteoporosis. She should be given relaxed medicine so she gets reduction in hyper tension. There should be observation for her breathing rate and if the rate is below the standard she should be provided with artificial respiration.
An individual recovering from hip replacement surgery prepares for discharge home. The client has a secondary diagnosis of gastric esophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which is the best bed position for the occupational therapist to recommend to this client
An individual recovering from hip replacement surgery who has a secondary diagnosis of gastric esophageal reflux disease (GERD) requires the occupational therapist to recommend the best bed position.
The best bed position for the occupational therapist to recommend to this client is semi-fowler position.What is Hip Replacement Surgery?Hip replacement surgery is a procedure that involves the replacement of a damaged hip joint with an artificial one. This type of surgery is done to relieve pain, improve mobility, and enhance quality of life in patients who are experiencing hip joint issues.Gastric Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is a condition in which acid reflux occurs. It happens when the acid from the stomach travels up into the esophagus, causing discomfort. The main symptoms of GERD include heartburn, indigestion, and regurgitation of food or liquid.The semi-fowler position is a bed position where the head of the bed is elevated 30-45 degrees while the legs are flat on the bed. The semi-fowler position is the most recommended bed position for patients with hip replacement surgery who have a secondary diagnosis of GERD.
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kaplan mental health b the nurse provides care for an adolescent cliernt with suspected gonnorrhea. the client reports being sexually abused by a parent for the past 5 yearts. what actrion does the nurse perform first?
The nurse's first action when providing care to an adolescent client with suspected gonorrhea who reports being sexually abused by a parent for the past 5 years is to assess the client's physical and mental health.
The nurse must assess the client's physical health to rule out any physical injuries or medical complications due to the abuse. The nurse must also assess the client's mental health, including their current mental status, any signs of depression, anxiety, or other mental health issues, and the client's ability to handle the trauma of being sexually abused by a parent.
The nurse must ensure that the client is in a safe environment and provide any necessary emotional support. The nurse should also provide education about the risks of sexually transmitted infections and the importance of seeking medical care if the client has any signs or symptoms. By assessing the client's physical and mental health, the nurse can ensure that the client is safe, understand the client's needs, and provide appropriate care.
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Recall reasons for maintaining a medical chart and what may comprise the medical chart.
Developments in medical technology make it possible to:.
Developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.
What is medical technology?The expression medical technology makes reference to the development of new methodologies and devices to enhance heath.
Medical technology has been fundamental for increasing the quality of life of people around the world.
In conclusion, developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.
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A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held. The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is included in which statement?a. This is normal behavior for his age.b. This is unusual behavior for his age.c. He is not effectively coping with stress.d. He is showing he needs more attention.
Answer:
a. This is normal behavior for his age
Explanation:
Toddlers use distinct behaviors in the quest for autonomy. They express their will with continued negativity and the use of the word "no." Children at this age also have rapid mood swings. The nurse should reassure the parents that their child is engaged in expected behavior for an 18-month-old. Having a rapid mood swing is an expected behavior for a toddler.
The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is included in the statement "This is normal behavior for his age." (Option A).It is normal for an 18-month-old child to say "no" to everything and have rapid mood swings.
This is because they are going through a stage of development known as the "terrible twos" where they are learning to assert their independence and test boundaries. It is also common for them to show anger when scolded and then immediately want to be held as they are still learning how to regulate their emotions. This behavior does not necessarily indicate that the child is not effectively coping with stress or that they need more attention. It is simply a normal part of their development at this age.
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Serious dehydration may cause all of the following,
EXCEPT
A. reduced blood volume.
B. muscle cramps.
C. increased heart rate.
D. torn ligaments.
Dehydration is a condition that occurs when there is not enough water in the body to carry out normal functions. When the body loses more water than it takes in, it can lead to a decrease in blood volume, which can result in a reduced amount of blood flow to the organs and muscles.
This can lead to muscle cramps, which are involuntary contractions of the muscles.
Additionally, the heart rate may increase as the body tries to compensate for the reduced blood volume by pumping faster to maintain blood flow to the organs. However, dehydration does not cause torn ligaments.
Ligaments are tough bands of tissue that connect bones to each other, and tearing of the ligaments usually occurs due to trauma or excessive force applied to a joint, rather than dehydration.
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Which nursing diagnosis would be the priority in the newborn? ineffective thermoregulation impaired skin integrity disturbed thought processes risk for neonatal jaundice
The nursing diagnosis, Ineffective thermoregulation, would be the priority in the newborn.
By using heat produced and lost, the body is able to regulate its internal temperature. The thermoregulatory center, which is the hypothalamus' optical region, contains a feedback system that allows it to accomplish this.
Ineffective thermoregulation (IT), often known as "temperature fluctuation between hypothermia and hyperthermia," was added as a nursing diagnostic (ND) to the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association's taxonomy in 1986.
This ND lists 15 distinguishing features (DCs), such as convulsions, body temperature fluctuations above and below the normal parameters, increased respiratory rate, and hypertension, as well as DCs that are common to the diagnoses of hypothermia and hyperthermia (rise in body temperature above normal parameters, decrease in body temperature below normal parameters, nail bed cyanosis).
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A nurse is conducting a health promotion class for clients on sun protection. Which of the following client responses indicates effective teaching?
A. "Sunscreen does not need to be applied on a cloudy day."
B. "If I sunburn in 10 minutes, SPF15 will give me 2.5 hours of sun exposure."
C. "A sun screen over a sun blocker is the best choice for my toddler."
D. "I can expose my 3 month old to the sun if I apply sunscreen."
The client response that indicates effective teaching is: C. "A sun screen over a sun blocker is the best choice for my toddler."
This response demonstrates understanding of sun protection for a toddler. Sunscreens and sun blockers serve different purposes, with sunscreens providing a protective layer on the skin and sun blockers physically blocking the sun's rays. Using sunscreen over a sun blocker is the recommended approach for effective sun protection.
Let's briefly discuss the other options:
A. "Sunscreen does not need to be applied on a cloudy day."This response is incorrect. Clouds do not fully block harmful UV rays, so sunscreen should still be applied on cloudy day.
B. "If I sunburn in 10 minutes, SPF15 will give me 2.5 hours of sun exposure." This response is incorrect. The effectiveness of sunscreen depends on various factors, including the individual's skin type, the intensity of the sun, and the proper application of sunscreen. SPF15 does not necessarily provide a fixed duration of sun exposure.
D. "I can expose my 3-month-old to the sun if I apply sunscreen." This response is incorrect. It is generally recommended to avoid direct sun exposure for infants under six months of age. Applying sunscreen is not sufficient protection for a young infant, and it's best to keep them in shaded areas and use protective clothing.
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Mr. Ryder is on a low-salt diet of 1500 mg or less per day. His consumption of salt for today so far is 800 mg. He would like to have an after-dinner snack. Based on the nutrition label, how much can Mr. Ryder consume without going over his daily salt intake?
Answer:
The patient could take a snack that contains 700 mg of sodium as a cap.
Explanation:
For this, you should bear in mind that the label on the back of the refrigerant must say how much sodium you have and what type of diet those values are based on, as some products are generally based on high sodium diets.
On the contrary, if this patient consumes more sodium than he can consume daily, he may suffer from fluid retention or heart or kidney conditions.
Give the Prescription and the preparation process of how to make
tea tree essential oil into emulsion ...
An emulsion is a type of mixture that contains two immiscible liquids, such as oil and water, that are stabilized by a third component called an emulsifier.
Here is the prescription and preparation process of how to make tea tree essential oil into an emulsion: Ingredients required: Tea tree essential oil, glycerin, liquid lecithin, and water prescription:
Tea tree essential oil – 10%Glycerin – 10%Liquid lecithin – 10%Water – 70%Preparation process:
Step 1: In a clean bowl, add 10% tea tree essential oil, 10% glycerin, and 10% liquid lecithin and mix thoroughly.
Step 2: Add 70% of water to the mixture and mix until emulsified. Keep mixing until the mixture becomes homogeneous.
Step 3: Once the mixture is prepared, pour it into a clean, dry bottle, and store it in a cool, dark place for future use. The emulsion is now ready to use.
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A girl is 12 years old and her brother is twice her age. When the girl is 50 years old, how old will her brother be?
Answer: 100 years old.
Explanation: Hope This helps!!!
A girl is 12 years old and her brother is twice her age. When the girl is 50 years old, so his brother will be 62 years old.
What is critical thinking?When you use critical thinking, you analyze, interpret, evaluate, and form opinions about what you read, hear, say, or write.
Analyzing a scenario or issue and the facts, data, or supporting evidence is known as critical thinking.
Critical thinking should ideally be conducted objectively, that is, without the interference of personal emotions, beliefs, or prejudices, and it should only concentrate on factual facts.
People that use critical thinking are more able to understand their own objectives, motives, and self.
As per the given question, A girl is 12 years old and her brother is twice her age, it means his brother will be 24 years, i.e., 12 older than her.
Thus, according to this when she is 50 his brother will be of 62 years old.
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When should EMT calculate gcs
Answer:
En route to the hospital
Explanation:
i take 25mg of trazodone for depression, but i was told to take it at night. i feel like it’s not working because it wears off by the time i wake up, should i take it in the day instead?
Answer:
Ok so trazodone is basically supposed to help you for sleep. Taking it at night would be the best option so that you can sleep peacefully at night. If you take it in the day time, it would be less effective than it is for you at night. I would suggest talking to your doctor more about this rather than taking advice from me, who is nowhere near a doctor. Have a great day/night!!
Answer: Just stick to what the doc told you or consult with your doctor
Explanation:
Its probably best that you stick with what the doctor recommended, just so nothing bad happens. I hope you beat depression, have a great night/day
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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the nurse is caring for a client admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). which laboratory test would the nurse monitor for hypoxia? red blood cell count sputum culture arterial blood gas hemoglobin
The laboratory test that the nurse would monitor for hypoxia in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is C, arterial blood gas.
What is arterial blood gas?Arterial blood gas (ABG) is a blood test that measures the levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other gases in the arterial blood. It is often used to evaluate the adequacy of oxygenation and ventilation in individuals with respiratory or metabolic disorders.
This test provides information about the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, which can indicate the severity of hypoxia. Monitoring arterial blood gas levels can help the nurse and healthcare team determine if oxygen therapy is needed to improve the client's oxygenation status.
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what is the role of consumers of nursing research?
Patients seeking care at the County General emergency room wait, on average, 8 minutes before seeing the triage nurse who spends, on average, 3 minutes assessing the severity of their problem. The most serious cases are seen first and the less serious often have to wait. On average, the wait time before being taken to the examination room is 110 minutes. In the examination room, a nurse spends about 10 minutes taking vitals and making notes on the patient's condition. The patient then waits for the doctor. This wait averages 13 minutes. Treatment times by the doctor average 21 minutes. Following treatment, patients wait 14 minutes for the nurse to come to discuss the post treatment instructions. It takes about 4 minutes to review with the patient these instructions before they leave. Considering any time spent interacting with a nurse or doctor as value-added time. What is the precent value-added time in a trip to the emergency room? Note: Round your answer as a percentage to 2 decimal places.
The percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is 20.67%.
Value-added time is time spent on patient care, diagnosis, and treatment by healthcare providers. Considering any time spent interacting with a nurse or doctor as value-added time, the percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is as follows:
The total time spent by the patient in the emergency room can be found by adding up the wait time, triage time, time with the nurse, time with the doctor, and time reviewing post-treatment instructions.
Total time = 8 + 3 + 110 + 10 + 13 + 21 + 14 + 4
= 183 minutes or 3.05 hours.
Value-added time = time spent on patient care and treatment
= 3 + 10 + 21 + 4
= 38 minutes or 0.63 hours.
The percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room = (Value-added time / Total time) × 100%
= (0.63 / 3.05) × 100%
= 20.66% or 20.67%
(rounded to 2 decimal places).
Therefore, the percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is 20.67%.
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Palliative care is reserved for patients who are terminally ill.
O False
O True
Answer:
the answer is false.
Explanation:
When a person has a life-limiting or terminal illness, palliative care enables them to live as fully and comfortably as they can.
Answer: True
Explanation:
Amiodarone is prescribed for a patient. Which baseline tests will the prescriber order before this medication is started
Before starting Amiodarone, the prescriber may order several baseline tests to assess the patient's health and monitor for potential side effects. These tests can help determine the patient's suitability for the medication and establish a baseline for future comparisons. Some of them are ECG , Thyroid Function Tests, Chest X-ray, Liver Function Tests, Kidney Function Tests, Pulmonary Function Tests.
Here are some examples of baseline tests that may be ordered:
1. ECG (Electrocardiogram): This test measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect any pre-existing abnormalities or irregularities.
2. Thyroid Function Tests: Amiodarone can affect thyroid function, so baseline tests like TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), T4 (thyroxine), and T3 (triiodothyronine) may be ordered to assess thyroid health before starting the medication.
3. Chest X-ray: This imaging test provides a baseline evaluation of the patient's lungs and heart to check for any pre-existing conditions.
4. Liver Function Tests: Amiodarone can have potential effects on liver function, so baseline liver function tests such as ALT (alanine aminotransferase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), and bilirubin may be ordered to assess liver health.
5. Kidney Function Tests: Baseline tests like serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) can assess the patient's kidney function before starting Amiodarone.
6. Pulmonary Function Tests: These tests, such as spirometry, can evaluate the patient's lung function and detect any pre-existing respiratory conditions.
It's important to note that the specific tests ordered may vary depending on the patient's medical history and the prescriber's judgment. The baseline tests are intended to provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's health and identify any potential risks or contraindications for starting Amiodarone. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized advice and guidance.
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6
As you check Mrs. Bailey's breathing, you look to see whether
her chest rises and falls, listen for escaping air and feel for breathing
against the side of your cheek. Is this the correct course of action?
Select the correct answer to this question.
Yes
No
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
true or false: joseph collins believes it can be acceptable to lie to a patient while telling their family the truth
Answer:
It is not acceptable to lie to a patient and tell the family the truth
Explanation:
It looks like the question is phrased poorly.
It's "true" that he believes it.
However, it is not acceptable to lie to a patient and tell the family the truth
Depending on how the actual question is phrased, answer accordingly
The statement about Joseph Collins believes it can be acceptable to lie to a patient while telling their family the truth is false because it is generally considered unethical for medical professionals to lie to their patients.
In general, healthcare professionals are expected to uphold ethical principles that include honesty and integrity in their interactions with patients and their families. Lying to patients or their families could potentially damage the trust between healthcare providers and patients, and also compromise the quality of care provided.
Thus, it is generally considered unethical for medical professionals to lie to their patients, as honesty and transparency are crucial for establishing trust and maintaining a strong patient-provider relationship.
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Single-celled organisms need the following to survive
Healthcare Information Technology Mind Map
A stage of sleep characterized by almost pure delta waves, and our most restful sleep...
A. Stage I
B. Stage III
C. Stage IV
D. Stage V (REM)
Answer:
Stage III
Explanation:
Not stage 1, as you can wake up easily once you enter it
Not stage 2, as you're preparing for deep sleep
Stage 3, this is your deep sleep, your body repairs tissues at this stage
Not Rem, as rem fastens your heartbeat, you're brain is also very active in the rem stage
based on the data, identify the drug that, from the art-sart-s strain to the art-rart-r strain, has the largest relative increase in the ic50ic50. based on the information provided about the mouse model, calculate how many times more sensitive the original art-sart-s plasmodium strain is to artesunate than is the art-rart-r strain.
The IC50 level of the ART-S strain is substantially lower than that of the ART-R strain in terms of pharmacological potency.
The half maximum inhibitory concentration (IC50) of a drug: It is a measure of a drug's or substance's ability to block a specific biological or biochemical function.
The more potent the medicine or chemical, the lower the IC50 number.
The terms ART-S strain and ART-R strain refer to Plasmodium strains that are sensitive and resistant to artesunate treatment, respectively.
As a result, the IC50 level of the ART-S strain is substantially lower than that of the ART-R strain.
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The question seems incomplete, the probable question is:
Malaria is a disease that is caused by the eukaryotic parasite Plasmodium and is transmitted between individuals by the bite of infected mosquitoes. Different species of Plasmodium cause disease in different vertebrate species, but in all cases the parasite infects and destroys red blood cells. The repeated emergence of drug-resistant strains of Plasmodium parasites responsible for human infections has caused researchers to continually search for new drugs or combinations of drugs that can provide an effective treatment. A drug that has proven effective in recent years is artesunate, but now artesunate-resistant Plasmodium strains have also appeared.
Researchers investigated whether artesunate-resistant Plasmodium strains could be effectively treated by other drugs. In a mouse model of malaria, the researchers determined that a particular strain of artesunate-sensitive Plasmodium (ART-S) could be largely eliminated from the mice at a dose of 0.15 mg/kg. By repeated exposure of the artesunate-sensitive strain ART-S to increasing concentrations of artesunate, the researchers developed a Plasmodium strain that is highly resistant to artesunate (ART-R) and requires a minimum dose of 240 mg/kg to eliminate the parasites.
The researchers then compared how effectively several common antimalarial drugs eliminate the ART-S and ART-R strains in vitro. The researchers infected human red blood cells with the ART-S and ART-R Plasmodium strains and incubated the infected cells in tissue culture medium. They added serial dilutions of the drugs to replicate cultures and determined the IC50 for each drug, the concentration of the drug that reduced the parasite load in the red blood cells by 50%.
Amodiaquine- ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 11.3, ART-R: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 132.4 (16.9)Chloroquine- ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 50.1 , ART-R: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM- 53.0Quinine - ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 49.7, ART-R: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)-216.9mefloquine- ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM) 41.7, ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 39.1DHA- ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 13.8, ART-S: IC50±2SEx¯ (nM)- 49.5Plasmodium is an organism with both sexual and asexual life cycles. Describe the most likely cause of a heritable phenotypic change in some members of a population of asexually reproducing organisms. Explain how repeated exposure of the artesunate-sensitive Plasmodium strain to increasing concentrations of artesunate led to the development of the artesunate-resistant Plasmodium strain.
2. Based on the data, identify the drug that, from the ART-S strain to the ART-R strain, has the largest relative increase in the IC50. Based on the information provided about the mouse model, calculate how many times more sensitive the originalART-S Plasmodium strain is to artesunate than is the ART-R strain.
3. In the mouse model of malaria, the researchers injected Plasmodium-infected human red blood cells into the mice because the Plasmodium species had surface ligand proteins that bound only to cell membrane proteins of human red blood cells. Assume that the researchers noticed that some of the parasites no longer infected human red blood cells but instead infected mouse red blood cells. Predict the most likely cause of this change in the host specificity of the parasites. Plasmodiumreproduces both sexually in the host vertebrate and asexually in mosquitoes. The researchers claim that the Plasmodium organisms that infect the two different types of red blood cells are likely to evolve into two separate species of Plasmodium. Based on the biological species concept, provide reasoning that would support the researchers’ claim.
____ is used on instruments and equipment that come in contact with intact mucous membranes or other surfaces not considered sterile
Instruments and equipment that come into contact with intact mucous membranes or other non-sterile surfaces are disinfected.
What device is typically used to evaluate a patient's hearing?Audiologists most frequently use an audiometer to conduct hearing tests, which evaluate a person's sense of hearing's sensitivity. To ascertain a person's hearing sensitivity at various frequencies, an audiometer is utilized.
What is the name of the instrument gadget that we employ to sanitize the answer options in the media group?An autoclave is a machine that uses steam under pressure to sterilize materials that are placed inside a pressure vessel of any harmful bacteria, viruses, fungi, or spores.
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