Adequate cough and gag reflexes, acceptable arterial blood gas values, breathing without assistance of the ventilator.
What's Nursing?Furnishing care to people so they can achieve, maintain, or recapture optimal health and quality of life is the main ideal of a nursing career.They also play important places in instruction, situation analysis, and help.Nursers can differ from other healthcare professionals in terms of how they treat cases, their position of education, and the compass of their practice.Nursers have varied situations of tradition power and work in a range of specialties.Utmost healthcare installations are dominated by babysitters; yet, there is validation of a global deficiency of good babysitters.What's a nanny 's job description?In hospitals, at home, or in other settings, nursers plan and give medical and nursing care to cases with acute or habitual physical or internal ails.Important Rates of a nanny include compassion, empathy, and the capacity to handle stressful and emotionally violent situations.Learn more about Nursing here:
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What is the apc payment for cpt code 66984? Round the answer to two decimal points. Explain
Extracapsular cataract excision and intraocular lens implantation performed in an ambulatory surgical center are both covered by CPT code 66984 (ASC) and the APC payment would be $3,431.47.
The Ambulatory Payment Classification (APC) system provides the foundation for the reimbursement for this operation under the Medicare Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS).
As of 2021, the national unadjusted payment rate for CPT code 66984 is $3,431.47, and the APC payment is APC 5492. The facility charge, anesthetic, and any implanted devices are all included in this payment, along with any other services and materials required for the treatment.
It's crucial to keep in mind that the real cost for this treatment may change depending on your region, the local wage index, and other aspects. Deductibles, coinsurance, and other cost-sharing restrictions can also apply to the payment.
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Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about immunizations?
DISCUSSION1. What role does the hospital nurse play in facilitating end-of-life care for Zachary?
Answer: To provide care that includes the promotion of comfort, relief of pain and other symptoms, and support for patients, families, and others close to the patient
What is the function of mitochondria?
1. It surrounds and protects the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell.
2. It releases energy from broken-down food molecules.
3. It directs all the activities of the cell and contains DNA
4. It packages proteins into vesicles to transport from one area of a cell to another.
Answer:
2. It releases energy from broken-down food molecules
Explanation:
The mitochondria are cell organelles, that convert nutrients into energy.
Which individual is qualified to apply for the Certification Examination for Diabetes Educators?
Answer:
B) a registered nurse who works with diabetes patients
Explanation:
Diabetes is a serious disease that affects much of the population. People with this disease need to be treated and educated by a healthcare professional who has experience in treating patients with this disease.
To be a diabetes educator you must be an experienced healthcare professional who works in this field and aims to help patients better and better. For this reason, we can state that among the options shown in the question above, the one that shows someone who may request the diabetes educator certification exam is the letter B.
a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 3 after an appendectomy. the client is not eating well and reports feeling bloated and slightly queasy. what should be the nurse's priority action?
The priority action for the nurse on a patient on postoperative day 3 of appendectomy, not eating well and feeling bloated and queasy is to: complete a thorough gastrointestinal focused assessment.
Appendectomy refers to the operational removal of the vermiform appendix. Vermiform appendix is a vestigial organ present inside the digestive system of the humans. It is considered to be major surgery as their is the risk of damage to the bladder, large intestine, or small intestine during the surgery.
Gastrointestinal is the pathway of the digestive system starting from the mouth, leading to the stomach through esophagus, then both the intestines and ending at the anus.
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Imagine you somehow developed a chronic disease. How would you gather information that would help you cure your illness? how could you tell if the information you had gathered was accurate and credible? << read less.
I would make an appointment with the doctor and discuss all of my concerns and questions regarding the illness there.
What to do if I have a Chronic illness?If I had a chronic illness, I would look for knowledge that could aid in treating it. The quickest method to do this is by researching the disease on the internet, I could even do it, but it could wind up collecting erroneous and false information that could make my problem worse. I could discover correct information, however this is hard to judge.
To make sure the material was correct and genuine, I would seek medical attention and acquire information straight from the professional, the doctor, who knows all the conditions relating to my sickness.
What is chronic disease?Chronic diseases are defined generically as ailments that last 1 year or longer and require continuing medical attention or restrict activities of daily living or both. Chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, and diabetes are the primary causes of death and disability.
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many jurisdictions/organizations configure their EOCs using the standard ____ organizational structure?
Organizations configure their EOCs using the standard ICS organizational
structure.
It is important for every organization or jurisdiction to have an emergency
operations center(EOC) which is responsible for taking care of emergency
situations.
The individuals in the EOC responsible for planning , financing and logistics to achieve a common goal and they are usually configured by using the
standard Incident Command System(ICS). These contain various elements
and the individuals in each element for accountability.
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Mrs. Dee Mark complains of fatigue, increased appetite, weight loss, and night sweats. She has protruding eyeballs (exophthalmos) and increased reflexes. These signs and symptoms are characteristic of:
Answer:
diabetes or hyperthyroidism
Explanation:
Medical causes – unrelenting exhaustion may be a sign of an underlying illness, such as a thyroid disorder, heart disease or diabetes. Lifestyle-related causes – alcohol or drugs or lack of regular exercise can lead to feelings of fatigue. Workplace-related causes – workplace stress can lead to feelings of fatigue. But if your appetite is significantly increased over a prolonged period of time, it could be a symptom of a serious illness, such as diabetes or hyperthyroidism. Mental health conditions, such as depression and stress, can also lead to appetite changes and overeating.
Mrs. Jones is pulseless and has a rhythm with visible P waves, narrow QRS complexes associated with P waves, and a rate of 130 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following would best describe the rhythm?a. Pulseless electrical activity
b. Sinus tachycardia
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. Ventricular tachycardia
Pulseless electrical activity is best described as the rhythm.
What is Pulseless electrical?Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is a type of irregular heart rhythm, which means it's an issue with your heart's electrical system. When this occurs, your heart stops pumping because the electrical activity in your heart is too weak to do so (cardiac arrest). Without immediate medical care, cardiac arrest and PEA can be fatal in a matter of minutes.
When you have pulseless electrical activity (PEA), your heart stops beating because the electrical activity in your heart is insufficient to cause your heart to beat. You experience cardiac arrest when your heart stops beating and you become unresponsive.
PEA is a "nonshockable" heart rhythm, which means a defibrillator won't treat it. If left untreated, PEA can result in sudden cardiac death in a matter of minutes.
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what is the role of nurse
Answer:
a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions
they are responsible for the holistic care of patients
Explanation:
Explanation:
A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.
How is random sampling helpful?
Answer:
The use of simple random sampling removes all hints of bias—or at least it should. Because individuals who make up the subset of the larger group are chosen at random, each individual in the large population set has the same probability of being selected.
Simple Random
Hight and weight are positively correlated this means
Answer:
As height increases, typically weight decreases.
Explanation:
*Height.
Deanna is a new medical assistant in the office in which you work. She does not understand the matrix for making appointments. On her second day at work, she is on her own to make appointments, because the person who usually makes appointments is out with a sick child. Deanna makes two appointments in each slot as she did in her previous place of employment instead of the one that should have been made using the matrix. How will this affect the patients who are being seen for the next few days? What will this mistake do to public relations in the office?
Answer:
The mistake made by Deanna in her new place of employment will negatively affect the patients for the next few days as well as public relations in the office.
Explanation:
What potential causes of disease do you think either or both persons might have?
Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska working outdoors much of the time managing her wheat farm.
Answer:
Nathan Zimmer lives in Northeastern Pennsylvania which is an area with elevated methane gas levels in the drinking water. It is not toxic but highly explosive, however, a high concentration of methane gas level can lead to Asphyxiation. It is a condition that can cause death, in this person can not get enough amount of oxygen to lungs.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska spends a long time on a wheat farm who can get allergic reactions due to dust from moldy hay, straw and grain. Pesticides and herbicides can result in chemical burns, respiratory illness, or poisoning.
Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water. Thus, option A is correct.
Where the Nathan Zimmer lives?Nathan Zimmer lives in Northeastern Pennsylvania which is an area with elevated methane gas levels in the drinking water. It is not toxic but highly explosive, however, a high concentration of methane gas level can lead to Asphyxiation. It is a condition that can cause death, in this person can not get enough amount of oxygen to lungs.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska spends a long time on a wheat farm who can get allergic reactions due to dust from moldy hay, straw and grain. Pesticides and herbicides can result in chemical burns, respiratory illness, or poisoning.
Therefore, Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water. Thus, option A is correct.
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PLEASE HELP MIN OF 5 SENTENCES
Discuss the following questions:
1. How far should medical personnel go to relieve the pain and
suffering of the terminally ill?
2. What does dying in "peace, comfort, and dignity" mean?
3. With whom should the decision to give palliative care reside
if the terminally ill person is incapacitated: the medical
professionals or relatives? (Hint: this is not a select the correct
answer. You need to discuss your reasoning.)
Relieving pain and suffering in end-of-life care is essential, but the ethical considerations are complex.
The concept of dying "peace, ease, and poise" has to do with a comprehensive approach to the care provided to individuals nearing the end of their lives, which encompasses not merely their physical health, but also their emotional, psychological, and spiritual wellbeing.
Decision-making should entails multiple stakeholders. Involve the patient's loved ones and healthcare proxies in decision-making as they know their values and preferences.
What is the pain relieve?Deciding on the extent of treatment is a subjective matter that relies on the patient's desires and principles. It is crucial to have transparent and sincere communication with both the patient and their loved ones, while also upholding their autonomy and honoring their choices for managing pain.
Care administered during the final stages of life considers the various aspects of individuals' well-being, including their physical, emotional, psychological, and spiritual requirements. It values beliefs and desires, handles discomfort, and demonstrates empathy.
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The sternum is also called the _______
a. spinal column
b. jawbone
c. breastbone
d. thighbone
Answer:
C. Breastbone
Hope this helped! :)
on average, a 21-month-old will know ______ times as many words as an 18-month-old.
There is no exact number or ratio that can be given to answer this question as every child's language development can vary. However, research suggests that a 21-month-old child may know around 50-150 more words than an 18-month-old, which can be a significant increase in vocabulary.
It's important to remember that language development is a complex process that involves many factors such as exposure to language, environmental factors, and individual differences in learning styles. Additionally, it's not just the number of words a child knows, but also their ability to use those words in meaningful ways that contribute to their overall language development.
On average, a 21-month-old will know approximately 1.5 times as many words as an 18-month-old.
1. Observe that we are comparing the vocabulary of a 21-month-old to an 18-month-old.
2. Research indicates that a 21-month-old typically knows around 1.5 times the number of words known by an 18-month-old.
3. Therefore, the answer is 1.5 times as many words.
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A nurse is preparing to administer lithium 600 mg
PO every 8 hr. Available is lithium carbonate 300
mg capsules. How many capsules should the nurse
administer? (Round the answer to the nearest
whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do
not use a trailing zero.)
Answer:
2 capsules every 8 hours (total of 6 capsules per day)
Explanation:
600 mg every 8 hours is equal to 2 300-mg capsules every 8 hours.
The total capsules per day is 2 x 3 = 6 capsules per day.
The nurse should administer 2 capsules every 8 hours.
To determine the number of lithium carbonate capsules the nurse should administer to achieve a dosage of 600 mg every 8 hours, we need to calculate the number of capsules required.
Given:
Lithium carbonate capsule strength: 300 mg
Desired dosage: 600 mg
To calculate the number of capsules needed, divide the desired dosage by the strength of each capsule:
600 mg ÷ 300 mg = 2
The nurse should administer 2 capsules of lithium carbonate to achieve a dosage of 600 mg every 8 hours.
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Which employees should be aware of how to turn off power to a shop in an emergency?
Answer: probably all of them
Explanation:
1. What is the major source of energy for the brain?
2. What are the four major divisions of the brain?
3. What is the role of the corpus callosum?
4. In what cerebral lobe is the precentral gyrus? The postcentral
Nervous System: Spinal Cord & Peripher
Go Figure
Instruction: Answer the questions below.
1. Which of the following is correct according to Fig. 11.1 below
Subarachnoid space
Endal
Answer:
1) glucose
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood.
2) Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They Control
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...Temporal lobe.
3) The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres. ... Other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
4) The frontal lobe
The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood. Other part is discussed below:
What is brain hemisphere?Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
The frontal lobe The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
Therefore, The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand.
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all orthomyxoviridae affect respiratory. a)true b)false
Answer:
A
Explanation:
True. All viruses belonging to the family Orthomyxoviridae can Affect the respiratory system.
A, True, all viruses in the family Orthomyxoviridae affect the respiratory system, and they are responsible for causing influenza or flu in humans and animals.
What makes up the Orthomyxoviridae family?The Orthomyxoviridae family consists of enveloped, negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses that are segmented. The family includes four genera: Influenza A virus, Influenza B virus, Influenza C virus, and Thogotovirus.
Influenza A virus is the most common cause of flu in humans and animals, while Influenza B virus and Influenza C virus cause milder respiratory illness. Thogotovirus is transmitted by ticks and causes tick-borne encephalitis.
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which of the following is a provider factor associated with low vaccination rates in adults?
Answer: Lack of effective reminder or recall systems.
PLEASSEEEEE HELPPP
Which of the following lists ALL the information required in the health care
facility's record when a biohazard bag leaves the building?
A. Landfill to which it's going, type of container, and staff signature
B. Type of container and number of containers
C. Date of disposal, landfill to which it's going, type of container, and
the number of containers
D. Date of disposal and staff signature
SUBNA
The lists ALL the information required in the health care facility's record when a biohazard bag leaves the building are Date of disposal, landfill to which it's going, type of container, and the number of containers.
So, the correct option is C.
What is a biohazard bag used for?The biohazard bag is used to disposal of solid or liquid items contaminated with blood or other infectious materials.
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The best use of fluroescein stain in an eye examination is to check for
Answer:
The best use of fluroescein stain in an eye examination is to check for corneal injuries.
Explanation:
The fluorescein stain test is an eye examination performed by the ophthalmologist to detect corneal lesions, but it is also useful for finding foreign bodies in the eye.
This test consists of placing an orange dye on the eye surface, then applying a blue light to detect corneal lesions, which turn blue-green when present.
why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack
Answer:
Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.
Explanation:
The AED
could change the heartbeat pattern
Arrange the following examinations in the proper scheduling sequence for a patient having multiple imaging tests in one day.
Ultrasound of the gall bladder, chest xray, CT IVP, barium enema, esophagram
The proper scheduling sequence for a patient having multiple imaging tests in one day, including Ultrasound of the gallbladder, chest x-ray, CT IVP, barium enema, and esophagram, should be as follows:
1. Ultrasound of the gallbladder
2. Chest x-ray
3. Esophagram
4. CT IVP
5. Barium enema
This sequence allows for the least invasive tests to be performed first, followed by tests requiring contrast material, and finally the more invasive examinations.
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How is fat transported in the blood?
Answer:
Cholesterol and other fats are carried in your bloodstream as spherical particles called lipoproteins. The two most commonly known lipoproteins are low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density lipoproteins (HDL).
Explanation:
A dog owner notices their dog has had tarry diarrhea, dark stools, vomiting and has become very lethargic. What is the diagnosis and treatment?
Any infection, even severe ones like leptospirosis, parvovirus, distemper, kennel cough, and heartworm disease, can make your dog sluggish. Feces are one way that the parvovirus spreads.
What causes diarrhoea and vomiting most frequently in dogs?ingesting foreign items like cloth, bones, or toys. consuming poisons or toxins. viral illnesses such coronavirus, distemper, or parvovirus. Roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, Coccidia, or Giardia are examples of parasites.
Black stools, sometimes referred to as melena, can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pancreatitis and renal failure as well as exposure to toxins or a foreign substance in the digestive system. Dr. Spangler continues, "Cancer, foreign things, parasites, and viral or bacterial infections are some of the more typical causes of black dog faeces."
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A registered nurse with an associate degree in nursing (adn) is found by the bon to have violated npa section 301.452(b)(5) after the bon obtains evidence that the nurse falsely claimed to have a master of science in nursing (msn) degree on an application for employment in a nursing position. this conduct by the rn would also be considered a violation of
The Position Statements, rules, and other publications in the portion of the BON website devoted to nursing practise are meant to direct nurses.
What of the following elements does the bon consider when deciding whether a nurse's prior criminal activity is relevant?When considering eligibility for licensure and disciplinary cases involving criminal conduct, the Board will take the following factors into account, among others: The kind, gravity, and scope of the person's prior criminal behaviour.
What justification does a nurse's licence get revoked or suspended for the most frequently?A nurse's licence may be revoked by the nursing board for a number of reasons. DUI convictions, poor patient care techniques, and egregious negligence, such as giving out medications without a legal prescription, are some of the most typical causes.
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