A genetic component can be found in autoimmune illness. With the patient, the nurse discusses autoimmunity.
What primarily contributes to autoimmune disease?The exact cause of autoimmune disorders is unknown. Genes that could increase your risk of contracting the illness. If you have the gene, the environment, such as a virus, will cause the disease (s).
How dangerous is autoimmune disease?The body's immune system protects it from illness and infection. However, when the immune system is damaged, it wrongly targets healthy cells, tissues, and organs for attack. These attacks, also known as autoimmune illness, can affect any region of the body, impairing bodily function and potentially becoming lethal.
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Why am I depressed?
Im so tired.
How do immunity affected by blood transfusions?
Answer:
Patients often develop antibodies to transfused red blood cells making it more difficult to find a match if future transfusions are needed
Explanation:
EHR systems are becoming extremely popular due to their benefits and advantages. These advantages include better quality of care, more accurate patient info, interoperability, increased efficiency, increased revenue, scalability, accessibility, customization, security, and support.
Based on the above advantages I noted; can you elaborate on one and why you think it is a good advantage for patient care?
EHR systems' accessibility to precise patient data significantly improves patient treatment. It improves decision making for healthcare professionals, lowers medical errors, and facilitates fast and effective therapeutic actions.
Advantages of EHR systems to patientsThe accessibility of more precise patient data is one benefit of electronic health record (EHR) systems that considerably enhances patient care.
All patient data is kept in one place and made available to authorized healthcare practitioners using EHR systems. This implies that when making treatment decisions for a patient, doctors, nurses, and experts involved in their care can quickly and simply obtain the most current and comprehensive information. They have real time access to test findings, imaging reports, prescription histories, and other important information.
EHR systems frequently come with clinical reminders and decision support tools that can assist healthcare professionals in adhering to evidence-based recommendations and best practices.
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A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding?
Select one:
A. Position the patient with his injured side down
B. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis
C. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure
D. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport
Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure, this is most likely to control the bleeding.
What are hemostatic agents?An antihemorrhagic agent is a chemical that promotes hemostasis (also known as stopping the flow of blood). A hemostatic agent is another name for this substance. Antihemorrhagic drugs that are used in medicine have a variety of different modes of action, including the following: The mechanism of action of systemic medicines is either to inhibit fibrinolysis or to promote coagulation.
The application of topical hemostatic agents is required in emergency situations involving trauma when massive external bleeding cannot be controlled by direct pressure and/or with the use of a tourniquet (i.e., when bleeding occurs in locations that are not amenable to tourniquet placement, such as the abdomen, groin, or chest. Plasma that has been dried, fibrinogen concentration (FC), tranexamic acid, dry and synthetic platelets are some examples.
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the client describes a test previously completed to detect a small bowel obstruction prior to admission to the hospital. the client states that the test involved insertion of a tube through the nose and lasted over 6 hours. the nurse determines which test name should be documented?
The nurse determines the Upper GI enteroclysis test from the client's description.
What is enteroclysis and how this test is performed?A test called enteroclysis is used to look within the small intestine. Once in position, a tube is inserted into the nose, throat, stomach, and small intestine. To see how the contrast passes through the gut structures, contrast dye is administered, and x-ray images are seen on a fluoroscopic monitor. When an abnormality in the small intestine is detected, the enteroclysis test is the most thorough way to determine if it is normal or not.A radiology department performs this test. MRI, CT, and x-ray imaging are all used, depending on the situation.The following are part of the test:
A tube is inserted by the medical professional through your nose or mouth and into your stomach and small intestine.Images are obtained while contrast material and air pass through the tube.The provider can observe the contrast's passage through the bowel on a monitor.Viewing all of the small bowel loops is the study's aim. During the exam, you can be requested to switch places.Due to the fact that it takes some time for the contrast to pass through the entire small intestine, the test may span several hours.The tube's positioning could be painful. The contrast material could give you the impression that your stomach is heavy.To learn more about pathological tests, refer to https://brainly.com/question/28258725
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The waiting room scene in Juno depends significantly on _____ to function effectively. complicated and disorienting point-of-view shots.
The waiting room scene in Juno depends significantly on complicated and disorienting point-of-view shots to function effectively.
A quirky young woman in the movie Juno is unexpectedly pregnant, which compels her to make a selfless decision for the unborn child. A chair, two teenagers—that was how it all started. Juno, a 16-year-old, is presently pregnant. After giving it some thought, she swiftly decides against the abortion and opts to retain the kid and place it for adoption.
One of the best films ever made is Juno because of its hilarious timing, the love and support she received from her family, and the conversation it created about a young person's decision.
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How many total muscles are in the body
Answer:
600 muscles
Explanation:
The human body contains approximately 640 muscles.
The muscles represent one of the four types of tissues (the remining include connective tissue, nerve tissue and epithelial tissue) found in the human body.A muscle is a group of cells that contract together as a unit in order to produce a force.Muscles can be divided into skeletal (voluntary) muscles, smooth (involuntary) muscles, and cardiac (involuntary) muscles.In conclusion, the human body contains approximately 640 muscles.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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You would like to determine if mean HDL cholesterol differs in 4 groups of women, each group (n=100) with a different level of physical activity (none, low, moderate, high). What is the null hypothesis for this study? State using complete sentences.
The null hypothesis for this study would be that there is no difference in the mean HDL cholesterol levels among the four groups of women with different levels of physical activity.
What is null hypothesis?The null hypothesis (H0) is a statement of no effect or no difference between groups or variables. In this case, the null hypothesis is that there is no difference in mean HDL cholesterol levels among the four groups of women with different levels of physical activity.
This means that the level of physical activity does not have any impact on the average HDL cholesterol levels. In other words, the null hypothesis assumes that the mean HDL cholesterol levels of women who do not engage in physical activity, those with low levels of physical activity, those with moderate levels of physical activity, and those with high levels of physical activity are all equal.
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A client had been institutionalized for 18 years with chronic schizophrenia. His symptoms are under fairly good control, and the hospital is considering transition to group home. He has no idea how to manage meals, shopping, finance, or health care. The nurse teaching these skills is considered part of which types of care.
Answer:
The nurse teaching these skills is considered part of:
Convalescence care.
Explanation:
The client, in this case, is in a recovery mode since his symptoms are considered to be under control, and the hospital treating him for the past 18 years, thinks that he should be referred to a group home for patients with mental disorder. According to well-known definitions, schizophrenia patients show signs of hallucinations, delusions, and disordered thinking, and these behaviors impair daily functioning, including managing meals, shopping, finance, or health care.
How many steps will be required to complete the application of these supplemental materials?
Answer:3
Explanation:
There are ten procedures for the liner and ten procedures for the varnish. The desensitizer has eight procedural phases are required for supplemental material.
What is supplementary material?Supplementary material is defined as anything important to your research or article but not mentioned in the paper itself.
This material can also be defined as peer-reviewed material directly related to a paper's conclusion but not included in the printed version.
Supplementary material is often defined as relevant content that is not included in the primary article and may include extra data.
There are seven types of supplementary material which we can use.
Skill development materialGrammarVocabularyPhonology practice materialCollection of communicative activitiesTeachers resourcesWeb materialsSupplemental materials can help teachers address apparent gaps in the mandated educational materials and offer educators new ways to encourage students.
Thus, there are ten procedures for the liner and ten procedures for the varnish. The desensitizer has eight procedural phases are required for supplemental material.
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Which of the following is a new program that supplies federal funds to assist state programs?
•the Youth Education Act
•the Division of Early Childhood
•the Recovery Act
•the Childhood Service Act
Answer:
The Division of Early Childhood
Explanation:
What do the physical features of the Great Plains and the Gulf Coastal Plain have in common?
Answer:
Both have cold winters.
Explanation:
nancy walker, a medical assistant, ask a patient if he has been experiencing any pain,he says that he has not , but when he moves from the chair in to the examination room to the exam table nancy notices that he limps his facial mucsle are tense, and there is a light sweat on his forehead. What other nonverbal signals might indicate that the patient has not been completey honest
Answer:
Avoiding eye contact
The pediatric nurse is caring for an infant who weighs 11.6 kg and is NPO receiving IV fluid therapy. What rate does the nurse calculate as meeting the infant's minimum hourly fluid requirement?
The minimum hourly fluid requirement for an infant is approximately 4-6 mL/kg/hour. Therefore, for an infant who weighs 11.6 kg, the minimum hourly fluid requirement would be between 46.4 mL/hour and 69.6 mL/hour. The pediatric nurse would need to calculate the appropriate rate of IV fluid therapy based on the infant's individual needs and medical condition.
The minimum hourly fluid requirement for an infant is typically calculated based on their weight. The general recommendation is 100 mL/kg/day, or about 4 mL/kg/hour.
In this case, the infant weighs 11.6 kg, so their minimum hourly fluid requirement can be calculated as:
Minimum hourly fluid requirement = 4 mL/kg/hour x 11.6 kg
Minimum hourly fluid requirement = 46.4 mL/hour
Therefore, the nurse would calculate the minimum hourly fluid requirement for this infant to be 46.4 mL/hour.
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a client with a spinal cord injury is to receive methylprednisolone sodium succinate 100 mg intravenously twice a day. the medication is supplied in vials containing 125 mg per 2 ml. how many ml will constitute the correct dose? enter the correct number only.
The correct dose maybe 1.6 ml. Use of high-dose methylprednisolone within eight hours of acute closed spinal cord injury as a therapy standard or as a treatment is not supported by enough research.
Within eight hours of a closed spinal cord injury, a bolus intravenous infusion of methylprednisolone at a dose of 30 mg per kilogram of body weight administered over fifteen minutes, followed 45 minutes later by an infusion of 5.4 mg per kilogram of body weight administered every hour for 23 hours, is the only course of treatment for which there is only weak clinical evidence (Level I- to II-1). If methylprednisolone infusion is chosen as a therapy option, there is not enough evidence to justify continuing it past 23 hours.
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The technique where a person breathes in through the nose to a specifi c count and then exhales through pursed lips to double the intake count is known as a. sighing. b. deep breathing. c. meditation. d. autonomic ventilation. e. release management. 9. During autogenic training, a person a. contracts each muscle to about 70 percent of capacity. b. concentrates on feelings of warmth and heaviness
Answer:
a. sighing.
b. concentrates on feelings of warmth and heaviness
Explanation:
Watch the video below
Nursing Simulation Scenario: Medical Error
Write a 500 word response:
What contributed to medication error in this scenario?
Answer:
What contributed to the medication error was that the nurse did not check the patient's INR before applying the medication.
Explanation:
Medication errors occur when someone in the medical team fails to evaluate a factor and ends up passing a medication that could not be consumed or applied in the presence of that factor. In the case presented in the video, mentioned in the question above, the patient had a very high INR, in this situation the medication known as Coumadin could not be applied, as it could cause abnormal bleeding and it was difficult to control. However, the nurse did not check the level of INR that the patient was presenting before applying the medication.
What is the Greatest risk factor for a pt with chorioamnionitis
The greatest risk factor for a patient with chorioamnionitis is preterm delivery, which is delivery before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Chorioamnionitis is an infection that develops in the uterus during pregnancy and can endanger both the mother and the baby.
Protracted labour, protracted rupture of membranes (the fluid-filled sac enclosing the baby), frequent vaginal inspections during labour, and an existing infection in the mother's urinary system or vagina are all risk factors for chorioamnionitis.
It is critical to diagnose and treat chorioamnionitis as soon as possible to avoid problems such as sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in the infant, as well as endometritis, sepsis, and postpartum haemorrhage in the mother.
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which assessment would be completed prior to administering an adrenergic agonist
The assessment that would be completed prior to administering an adrenergic agonist is blood pressure. The correct answer is option c.
Adrenergic agonists, also known as sympathomimetic drugs, stimulate the adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure.
Therefore, it is crucial to assess the patient's blood pressure before administering an adrenergic agonist to ensure that it is within an acceptable range and to monitor for any potential adverse effects on blood pressure.
The other assessments listed (skin integrity, temperature, and respiratory rate) may also be important for overall patient assessment but are not specifically related to the administration of an adrenergic agonist.
So, the correct answer is option c. Blood pressure.
The complete question is -
Which assessment would be completed prior to administering an adrenergic agonist?
a. Skin integrity
b. Temperature
c. Blood pressure
d. Respiratory rate
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what age assessment feature would be observable on the box labeled pubis?
The age assessment feature that would be observable on the box labeled pubis is the pubic symphysis.
What is PubisThe pubis is one of the three major bones of the pelvis. it connects the upper winged bone {illium] to the lower L-shape bone [ischium].
The pubis symphysis is a cartilaginous joint that connects the two halves of the pelvis at the pubis. It is an important age assessment feature because it undergoes changes as a person ages.
In young individuals, the pubic symphysis is smooth and well-defined, but as a person ages, it becomes rough and irregular. This change can be used to estimate a person's age.
Hence, the age assessment feature that would be observable on the box labeled pubis is the pubic symphysis.
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Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.
Answer:
Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements describes smooth muscle cells?
They are resistant to fatigue statements describe smooth muscle cells.
What are smooth muscle cells?
Because it lacks sarcomeres and hence has no striations (bands or stripes), smooth muscle is an involuntary non-striated muscle. It is further subdivided into single-unit and multi-unit smooth muscle. The whole sheet or bundle of smooth muscle cells that make up a single-unit muscle contract as a syncytium.
The walls of hollow organs like the stomach, intestines, bladder, and uterus, as well as the walls of passageways like blood and lymph arteries and the tracts of the respiratory, urinary, and reproductive systems, are all made of smooth muscle.
An example of a smooth muscle found in the eyes is the ciliary muscle, which also affects the lens's shape by expanding and contracting the iris. In response to chilly temperatures or anxiety, smooth muscle cells in the skin, such as those of the arrector pili, induce hair to stand up straight.
Complete Question
Which of the following statements describes smooth muscle cells?
They are resistant to fatigue.
They have a rapid onset of contractions.
They cannot exhibit tetanus.
They primarily use anaerobic metabolism.
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Which of these is a POSSIBLE effect of a heavy landslide?
a. The formation of a new island
b. The formation of a new volcano
c. A change in the course of a river
d. A change in the climate of a region
True or False? Cardiovascular disease has become more prevalent as deaths from cardiovascular disease have declined.
Answer:
FalseExplanation:
Cardiovascular disease refers to a group of disorders that affect the heart and blood vessels, including coronary artery disease, heart failure, stroke, and hypertension. In recent decades, death rates from cardiovascular disease have declined in many countries, largely due to improvements in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment. While cardiovascular disease is still a leading cause of death and disability worldwide, its prevalence has decreased as a result of these trends.
For five different organ systems in the human body, identify a specialized cell type found in that system.
Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
What are specialized cells?
Microscale cells make up the human body. Together, these elements of life act harmoniously to create the human body. While numerous cells make up basic biological components like tissues, some perform more difficult and specialized activities.
These specialized cells have been carefully created to carry out the tasks for which they were created. The distinct ways that each of these cell types is created and functions make it possible for the cell to perform the specific bodily function for which it was designed.
Within the human brain, neurons are specialized cells that convey messages. These cells are available in a variety of sizes and forms. While these cells do have certain characteristics in common with other cells, they also possess unique traits that allow them to carry out the required communication duties.
Movement is made possible by muscle cells. The banded fibers that make up these cylindrical cells enable contraction.
Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout the body, supplying it to organs that need this vital gas. These cells lack a number of components that are typically seen in cells, including as mitochondria and a nucleus.
In order to reproduce as humans, specialized sperm cells are required. The nucleus makes up the majority of these cells.
Leukocyte cells function to prevent infections in the human body. When an infection occurs, these cells locate and eliminate germs within the body.
Therefore, Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
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5)An 11-month old patient presented for emergency surgery to repair a severely broken arm after falling from a third story window. What qualifying circumstance code(s) may be reported in addition to the anesthesia code?
Explanation:
What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
P4
Response Feedback:
Rationale: Review the Anesthesia Guidelines in the CPT® codebook to determine that the Physical Status modifier P4 is the correct choice. Note: Medicare does not recognize physical status modifiers for additional payment.
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
QX
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the HCPCS Level II codebook look for where the modifiers are listed and refer to modifier QX. QX is the correct modifier for CRNA services when medically directed by a physician.
What is the anesthesia code for a cast application to the wrist?
01860
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the CPT® Index for Anesthesia/Cast Application/Forearm, Wrist and Hand which directs you to 01860. Verify code selection in the numeric section.
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What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
Tap card to see definition
P4
Response Feedback:
Rationale: Review the Anesthesia Guidelines in the CPT® codebook to determine that the Physical Status modifier P4 is the correct choice. Note: Medicare does not recognize physical status modifiers for additional payment.
Tap again to see term
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
Tap card to see definition
QX
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the HCPCS Level II codebook look for where the modifiers are listed and refer to modifier QX. QX is the correct modifier for CRNA services when medically directed by a physician.
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What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
P4
Response Feedback:
Rationale: Review the Anesthesia Guidelines in the CPT® codebook to determine that the Physical Status modifier P4 is the correct choice. Note: Medicare does not recognize physical status modifiers for additional payment.
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
QX
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the HCPCS Level II codebook look for where the modifiers are listed and refer to modifier QX. QX is the correct modifier for CRNA services when medically directed by a physician.
What is the anesthesia code for a cast application to the wrist?
01860
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the CPT® Index for Anesthesia/Cast Application/Forearm, Wrist and Hand which directs you to 01860. Verify code selection in the numeric section.
A 22 year-old patient who has severe medical problems is placed under general anesthesia by an anesthetist for a service not usually requiring anesthesia. What modifier would be appended to the service?
23
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the CPT® codebook go to Appendix A - Modifiers. Review the modifiers to determine that modifier 23 is reported to indicate a procedure not usually requiring anesthesia (either none or local) but due to unusual circumstances general anesthesia is necessary.
the nurse working at the blood bank is speaking with a potential blood donor client. the client has been living in south america where there was a zika outbreak. which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
The most appropriate statement by the nurse working in a blood bank is; "Because you lived in South America for more than 3 months, there is a risk of transmitting the Zika virus through blood transfusions."; option A.
What is a blood bank?A blood bank refers to a storage facility where donated blood by individuals is kept for future transfusion to patients who may require a blood transfusion.
Before blood is collected from a donor for storage, the individual donating the blood is screened for infections and diseases such as HIV, hepatitis, Zika virus etc, to prevent the collection of infected blood. Also, the blood is typed and stored according to blood type after donation.
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Complete question:
the nurse working at the blood bank is speaking with a potential blood donor client. the client has been living in south america where there was a zika outbreak. which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. "Because you lived in South America for more than 3 months, there is risk of transmitting the Zika virus through blood transfusions."
b. there is no risk of transmitting the Zika virus through blood transfusions"
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hr postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
The nurse ought to initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation as a crucial course of action when providing care for a client who is 4 hours postpartum and manifesting symptoms of hypovolemic shock.
Option (D) is correct.
In the case of a client experiencing hypovolemic shock, which is characterized by a significant loss of circulating blood volume, the priority intervention is to restore that volume promptly. This is achieved through intravenous fluid resuscitation, making option D the correct answer. By initiating IV fluids, the nurse can increase the client's circulating blood volume, thus improving tissue perfusion and preventing further deterioration.
Administering pain medication (option A) may be necessary for the client's comfort, but it does not address the underlying cause of hypovolemic shock. Applying warm blankets (option B) can help maintain body temperature, but it does not directly address the urgent issue of hypovolemia.
Elevating the client's legs (option C) may be appropriate for other types of shock but is not recommended for hypovolemic shock, as it can decrease blood flow to vital organs.
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The complete Question is:
Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for a client who is 4 hours postpartum and experiencing hypovolemic shock?
A) Administer pain medication to alleviate discomfort.
B) Apply warm blankets to maintain body temperature.
C) Elevate the client's legs to improve blood flow.
D) Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume.
What are the key learning’s on values and ethics for inter professional practice
The key learnings on values and ethics for interprofessional practice are based on a common goal which is providing high quality care for patients are: trust, mutual respect demonstration, integrity, maintaining high standards of ethics while working with other health professionals.
What is interprofessional practice?
It occurs when multiple health professionals from different backgrounds come and work together with patients, carers, families and the community for delivering high quality care.
Interprofessional practice helps in prevention of medication errors, improving patient experiences and thereby delivering better patient outcomes. All of these can also reduce costs of healthcare.
Therefore, interprofessional care is centered on high quality care for patients.
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