Answers
The correct medical term for vomiting is emesis. It is the medical term for vomiting, which is the involuntary expulsion of stomach contents through the mouth.
It can be caused by a variety of factors, including a viral or bacterial infection, food poisoning, motion sickness, or emotional stress. Vomiting can also be a symptom of other medical conditions, such as appendicitis, gallbladder disease, or even cancer. Emesis is usually accompanied by nausea and retching and can cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and, in extreme cases, hypovolemic shock. Treatment for emesis usually involves fluids and electrolyte replacement, antinausea medications, and rest.
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The medical term for vomiting is emesis.
Emesis is the medical term used to describe the act of vomiting or the expulsion of the stomach's contents through the mouth. It is a reflex action that is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem, which receives input from various parts of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, the inner ear, and the higher centers of the brain.
Vomiting can be caused by various factors such as infections, motion sickness, certain medications, food poisoning, or medical conditions like gastritis, ulcers, and kidney or liver failure. It is a protective mechanism of the body to eliminate harmful substances and prevent further damage.
In summary, emesis is the medical term used to describe the act of vomiting, and it is an important reflex action of the body to protect against harmful substances and conditions.
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Related Questions
if the two balls are moving at the same speed , and the basketball has a kinetic energy of 10.0 j , what is the kinetic energy of the basketball
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Answer:
10.0 j ...?
Explanation:
what is the sickness ligma?
Answers
Answer:
Ligma is a made-up disease and internet hoax claimed to have killed popular Fort-nite video game streamer Ninja.
lol
Your neighbor comes running to your home for help. She is sure her 3-year -old has taken several pills from the bathroom medicine cabinet, thinking they were candy. The child is becoming very sleepy by the time you arrive. What should you do?
Answers
Answer:
Check her vitals. Check for Airway, Breathing, and Circulation. Call 911 and or get the to the hospital ASAP. Make sure to take the bottle with you or give to EMT
Explanation:
Get a cold washcloth - anything to help keep them awake - talk to them.
1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.
Answers
1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
They do not necessarily have to be physicians, but they must have the expertise to assess subject safety.
2. FALSE. Any communication with study participants, including postcards, must be reviewed by the IRB to ensure it is ethical and does not coerce or unduly influence participants.
3. TRUE. A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB to avoid potential conflicts of interest.
4. TRUE. An expedited review can be conducted by a distinct member of the IRB if the proposed change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
5. The regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but more frequent reviews may be required depending on the level of risk involved in the study.
It is the responsibility of the IRB to determine the appropriate frequency of review based on the risks and benefits of the study.
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Meaning of Gestational trophoblastic disease
Answers
Which of the following is defined as all chemical reactions and physical processes of the body?
A. balance
B. homeostasis
C. metabolism
D. anabolism
Answers
Answer: c
Explanation: Metabolism refers to the whole sum of reactions that occur throughout the body within each cell and that provide the body with energy. This energy gets used for vital processes and the synthesis of new organic material
Each thick filament of a skeletal muscle fiber consists of
___________.
A. chains of myosin molecules
ules
B. six molecules coiled into helical structure
C. two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other
D. a rod- shaped structure with "heads' projecting from each end
Answers
Answer:
A. Chains of Myosin Molecules
Explanation:
The thick filaments are composed of myosin, and the thin filaments are predominantly actin, along with two other muscle proteins, tropomyosin and troponin.
Which health care team member is familiar with all the needs of an individual client?
Answers
A Charge Nurse is a health care team member who is familiar with all the needs of an individual client.
What is the role of a charge nurse?
The only person ultimately knowledgeable about all the individual requirements is the charge nurse, who oversees care and assignments. A nurse manager is in charge of overseeing the healthcare team's delegation and staffing processes.
Nursing duties — Charge nurses carry out clinical duties such as observing and evaluating patients and their vital signs, updating other medical experts on patients' progress, and communicating with patients and families about care plans.
Charge nurses are also in charge of administrative duties such as scheduling staff and supplies, assigning work to other nurses, keeping track of patient admissions and discharges, and making sure that their department's operations run smoothly.
Hence, the answer is the charge nurse.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube for the treatment of a pneumothorax. which item is essential to have at the bedside?
Answers
Examine the chest tube to make sure it is not obstructed or constricted in pneumothorax. Up until your lung has fully recovered, air is continually removed from your chest cavity using a flexible chest tube.
A pneumothorax happens when air leaks into the space between your lung and chest wall. The air pushes on the outside of your lung, causing it to collapse. Lung collapse, whether partial or complete, is referred to as a pneumothorax.
Sometimes, a collapsing lung might endanger life. Placing a chest tube or needle between the ribs to remove the extra air is the most typical treatment for a pneumothorax. However, a small pneumothorax may resolve on its own.
Options for treatment include observation, chest tube insertion, needle aspiration, nonsurgical repair, and surgery. To hasten the expansion of your lungs and air absorption, you might receive oxygen therapy.
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An FDA pregnancy classification of would mean that controlled studies showed no
demonstrated risk to the fetus in any trimester.
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FDA Pregnancy Class A. An example is Acetaminophen.
Are Acetaminophen and ibuprofen the same?However, the effect is different in the body. Packaged as Tylenol, acetaminophen relieves pain and lowers fever. Ibuprofen, commonly packaged as Advil or Motrin, is an anti-inflammatory drug used to treat moderate pain from conditions such as arthritis and menstrual cramps.
What is Acetaminophen used for?Acetaminophen is used to relieve mild to moderate pain from headaches, muscle aches, menstrual bleeding, colds and sore throats, toothaches, back pain, and vaccination (shot) and reduce fever.
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A patient was in a car wreck and lost control over his left leg and left arm. He is admitted to a restorative care facility. In therapy, he is working on walking with a walker and strengthening his right arm. The nursing assistant suggests he participate in the bingo game at the care facility. She suggests that he brush his hair before going and places the brush in his right hand. The nursing assistant gives him his walker and leaves to attend other patients.
Which restorative care principle could the nursing assistant improve upon?
promote mobility
emphasize ability
prevent further disability
treat the whole person
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Answer:
promote mobility
Explanation:
Explain your role as a medical assistant regarding the importance of risk management in a healthcare setting?
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Answer:
When a patient is harmed as a result of a medical error, risk managers and quality managers have immediate interests in identifying the circumstances that led to the error. Rather, their primary goal has been to improve the quality of patient care.
Explanation:
You are performing compression and a second healthcare provider is performing rescue breaths for 2- rescuer CPR on an adult. After about 2 minutes, you call for a switch and finish 30 compression. What should happen next?
Answers
After finishing the 30 compressions, the healthcare providers should switch roles, with the provider who was performing rescue breaths now taking over compressions. This allows for the rescuers to avoid fatigue and maintain effective CPR.
The cycle of compressions and rescue breaths should continue until emergency medical services (EMS) arrive or the person starts breathing on their own. Remember, time is critical during CPR, and it's important to perform high-quality compressions and rescue breaths as soon as possible to increase the person's chances of survival.
When performing 2-rescuer CPR on an adult with one person doing compressions and the other performing rescue breaths, the process involves switching roles after approximately 2 minutes to minimize fatigue. In your scenario, you've completed 30 compressions and called for a switch. Here's what should happen next:
1. As you finish the 30th compression, the other healthcare provider should prepare to switch roles with you.
2. You will then quickly transition from performing compressions to giving rescue breaths, while the other healthcare provider takes over compressions.
3. The new compressor will start a new cycle of 30 compressions, followed by your 2 rescue breaths.
4. Continue this pattern of switching roles approximately every 2 minutes to maintain effective CPR until further assistance arrives or the patient shows signs of recovery.
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How many superficial muscles are on the anterior view of the body?
Answers
can some help me pliz
Answers
Answer: Stratified Squamous
Explanation: I'm not 100% sure but as you can see in the picture, the tissue has multiple layers and in stratified tissue it would have multiple layers. Hope this helps some! :) In the image below it shows different types of epithelial tissue:
A 55-year-old male presents after a fall in his backyard. His primary diagnosis is a 12 year battle with Parkinson's Disease.
How does Bradykinesia manifest?
What causes postural instability in this patient?
Compare and contrast pyramidal vs. extrapyramidal.
Compare and contrast myelinated and unmyelinated fibers.
Answers
Bradykinesia is a common symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowed movement and a decrease in the ability to initiate and execute voluntary movements.
Postural instability in patients with Parkinson's disease is caused by the disruption of the brain's ability to regulate and coordinate balance and posture.
Bradykinesia is a common symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowed movement and a decrease in the ability to initiate and execute voluntary movements. It manifests as a general slowness, reduced range of motion, and difficulties with tasks requiring fine motor skills. Movements become slower and may lack fluidity and coordination. Patients may experience difficulties with activities such as walking, buttoning shirts, or writing.
Postural instability in patients with Parkinson's disease is caused by the disruption of the brain's ability to regulate and coordinate balance and posture. The degeneration of brain structures involved in balance control, such as the basal ganglia, contributes to postural instability. Patients may have difficulty maintaining an upright posture, experience balance disturbances, and have an increased risk of falls.
Pyramidal and extrapyramidal are two terms used to describe different motor pathways in the central nervous system. The pyramidal system is responsible for voluntary and fine motor movements and involves the corticospinal tract, which originates in the cerebral cortex and descends to the spinal cord. The extrapyramidal system, on the other hand, refers to the motor pathways that are responsible for involuntary movements, muscle tone regulation, and postural control. These pathways involve various structures such as the basal ganglia, cerebellum, and brainstem.
Myelinated and unmyelinated fibers are terms used to describe the presence or absence of a myelin sheath around nerve fibers. Myelin is a fatty substance that acts as an insulating layer around the axons of neurons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of electrical signals. Myelinated fibers have a myelin sheath, which enhances the conduction speed of nerve impulses. Unmyelinated fibers lack a myelin sheath and generally have slower conduction speeds. Myelinated fibers are commonly found in the peripheral nervous system, while both myelinated and unmyelinated fibers are present in the central nervous system.
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Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?
Answers
a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.
b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function.
c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.
d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.
f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.
g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.
h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.
i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.
Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.
We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.
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Hb types that do not bind 2,3BPG well
Answers
The Hb types that do not bind 2,3-BPG well are fetal hemoglobin (HbF) and carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO).
HbF is present in fetuses and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin (HbA), allowing for the transfer of oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the fetal bloodstream. It has two alpha and two gamma subunits, and the gamma subunits have a lower positive charge than the beta subunits of HbA, which affects the binding of 2,3-BPG. HbCO is formed when carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, which has a higher affinity for CO than oxygen. This reduces the amount of oxygen that can bind to HbCO and can cause oxygen deprivation in the body. CO binding to hemoglobin also reduces the ability of 2,3-BPG to bind to the hemoglobin, resulting in a left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve.
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what are some causes of autonomic neuropathy
Answers
What is the root and suffix of neurosurgeon
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
neuro- comes from Greek, where it has the meaning "nerve, a combining form meaning "nerve,'' "nerves,'' "nervous system,'' used in the formation of compound words:neurology.
Suffix meaning nerve or nerves
._____ form when muscle cells convert lactic acid to lactate.
A)Hydrogen ions
B)Ketone bodies
C)Mineral elements
D)Trans fatty acids
Answers
A) Hydrogen ions form when muscle cells convert lactic acid to lactate. Hence, option A) is the correct answer. During exercise, muscle cells generate energy through a process called glycolysis, which produces lactic acid as a byproduct.
Lactic acid is then converted into lactate by the muscle cells, and this conversion process results in the release of hydrogen ions. This increase in hydrogen ions can contribute to the muscle fatigue and burn that is often experienced during intense exercise. So, to sum up in a long answer, muscle cells convert lactic acid to lactate, which releases hydrogen ions.
Hydrogen ions form when muscle cells convert lactic acid to lactate.
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The rate at which a certain drug is eliminated by the body follows first-order kinetics, with a half life of minutes. Suppose in a particular patient the concentration of this drug in the bloodstream immediately after injection is. What will the concentration be minutes later?.
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4. The two basic goals of infection control are: O To protect the patient and health care personnel from infection. O To reduce infections and find out how they started. O To identify patients and health care personnel at risk for infections. o To treat patients and health care personnel for infections.
Answers
Answer:
To protect the patient and health care personnel from infection. To reduce infections and find out how they started.
Explanation:
what college should i go to,to become a doctor
Answers
Answer: UCLA is a very good college.
Explanation:
Harvard University.
New York University (Grossman)
Columbia University.
Johns Hopkins University.
University of California--San Francisco.
Duke University.
University of Pennsylvania (Perelman)
Stanford University.
Harlan undergoes a mediastinotomy. In what section of the CPT manual would the code for this procedure be located? What additional information would be needed to assign a code?
Answers
Answer:
The section of the CPT manual would the code for this procedure be located - 39000 and 39010 CPT codes.
Explanation:
Mediastinotomy is the surgical opening of the mediastinum. Mediastinotomy gives direct access to aortopulmonary window lymph nodes, which are inaccessible by mediastinoscopy.
39000 and 39010 are the CPT codes represent mediastinotomy by cervical or thoracic approaches respectively.
Additional information includes; APC status indicatior, medicine code, bilateral surgery, and MVEs.
No, excision code can not used for removal body, however, 10120 and 10121 are the incision code can be used in removal of foreign body in normal and complcated case respectively.
Thus, the section of the CPT manual would the code for this procedure be located - 39000 and 39010 CPT codes.
Mr. Rogers, a letter carrier for the US Postal Service, is being seen in the healthcare facility because he was bitten on the ankle by a Yorkshire terrier, and the ankle has become infected. Mr. Rogers’s provider and medical assistant are discussing the patient’s condition and history outside the examination room. Mr. Edelman is heading toward the reception desk. He overhears the entire conversation, including the somewhat embarrassing story of how Mr. Rogers lost a fingertip 8 years ago after offering a leftover chicken nugget to a cocker spaniel on his route. Have the provider, and medical assistant violated the HIPAA Privacy Rule? Discuss.
Answers
Answer:
Yes, they have violated HIPAA.
Explanation:
Yes, the provider and medical assistant violated the HIPAA Privacy Rule by discussing Mr. Rogers’s condition and history outside the examination room where other people could overhear them. The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires covered entities to protect the privacy of PHI (Protected Health Information). If you believe that a HIPAA-covered entity or its business associate violated your (or someone else’s) health information privacy rights or committed another violation of the Privacy, Security, or Breach Notification Rules, you may file a complaint with the Office for Civil Rights (OCR).
What is the cause behind depression? Environmental factors, genetics etc. Why does depression make it difficult for some patients to overcome with or without therapy? Have your answer backed by logic or a scientific explanation.
Answers
Answer:
What Are the Main Causes of Depression?
Abuse. Past physical, sexual, or emotional abuse can increase the vulnerability to clinical depression later in life.
Certain medications. ...
Conflict. ...
Death or a loss. ...
Genetics. ...
Major events. ...
Other personal problems. ...
Serious illnesses.
Explanation:
As the field of clinical behavior analysis grows, it will benefit from analyses of increasingly complex and common clinical phenomena, especially those with significant public health implications. One such phenomenon is clinical depression, considered to be the “common cold” of outpatient populations.
Salbutamol interacts with drugs that inhibit ...
A. catechol-o-methyl transferase
B. CYP3A4
C. alcohol dehydrogenase
D. Uptake 1
Answers
Answer:
BBBBBBBBBBBBBBBB im not sureeee hehe
10. Which statement is true about hydration?
A. Dehydration impacts the function of the brain and can make concentrating more difficult.
B. Dehydration can lead to an increase in energy levels and an improvement in mood.
C. Dehydration results when your body has too much fluid to function normally.
O D. Your body doesn't get fluid from foods you eat.
Answers
Answer: A is the answer,
Explanation:
I believe you meant to say "Which statement is true about Dehydration?"
You have been asked to set up the machines to make 150 more pills after this batch is finished. Assuming the recipe ingredients are used in the same proportion and at the end of the current batch there will be no filler left in the mixer, how many units of filler ingredient do you need to use to produce the 150 more pills?
Answers
Answer:
percentage problem There are 200 Prescriptions in the queue. ... tablets of "Drug Y", assuming your cost for 500 tablets is $425.00 with a 28% markup and ... solution strength How many milligrams of active ingredient will you need to ... How many units . ... Pharmacy Math Dilution Question To get 33mg/ml from a vial of 2.1g.
Explanation:
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