The initial questioning of jurors to determine possible biases is called Voir dire.
What is the process of questioning jurors to determine biases?Voir dire is the legal term used to describe the initial questioning of potential jurors to determine any biases or prejudices that may affect their ability to impartially decide a case. During this process, attorneys from both sides ask a series of questions to prospective jurors, aiming to uncover any potential biases that could impact their ability to render a fair and unbiased verdict. The purpose of voir dire is to ensure the selection of an impartial jury that will fairly evaluate the evidence presented and apply the law to the case at hand.
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If you _____ and it results in a crash, six additional license points will be added to your offense.
If you Text while driving and it results in a crash, six additional license points will be added to your offense.
What is the Point system ?Courts and state motor vehicle licensing agencies use the points system as a tool to punish offenders who repeatedly commit the same traffic infractions. Although not all states use it, this system first became popular in the US in the 1970s. Points make it easier for law enforcement to spot repeat offenders and discourage motorists from committing the same crime in the future.Having points assessed to your license can have serious and unpleasant repercussions, including:Increased expenses for car insuranceA license that is revoked or suspendedLarge fines, fees, and penaltiesTo Learn more About Point system refer to:
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firing a worker who refuses to perform an illegal act violates public policy.
True
False
Firing a worker who refuses to perform an illegal act violates public policy is true. It is generally an illegal act to fire a worker for refusing to commit an illegal act.
To keep things in order, both the employer and the employee must comply with the law and act in accordance with it. A worker who refuses to perform an illegal act may not be lawfully discharged. Similarly, the employee must be sure that the act he or she is refusing to do is truly illegal before refusing to do it. As a result, the employee is usually legally protected, and the firing may be deemed wrongful termination. In general, workers who refuse to perform illegal or unethical acts are protected by whistleblowing laws and are protected from retaliation by their employers. In most cases, whistleblowers are people who have inside information about fraud or other misconduct that is being carried out by their employers. Whistleblowers must go through the appropriate channels to report the misconduct, and they must be protected from retaliation. Many laws have been passed to protect whistleblowers, but there is still a lot of work to be done to ensure that they are not punished for doing the right thing. Firing a worker who refuses to perform an illegal act is not only wrong but also illegal. Employers must be aware of the laws in their jurisdiction and must follow them. It is illegal to fire an employee who refuses to commit an illegal act. Such a termination of employment is usually regarded as wrongful termination, and employees who have been fired for this reason may be able to take legal action against their former employers. It is critical for both the employer and the employee to be aware of the law and to act in accordance with it.
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why should the public have access to the technical records
Answer:
Because I feel we should be able to know what's going on but my opinion doesn't matter i learned that in college debate
Explanation:
the formal process by which the house brings charges against federal officials is
The formal process by which the House of Representatives brings charges against federal officials, including the President and other high-ranking officials, is called impeachment.
Impeachment is a constitutional mechanism outlined in the United States Constitution under Article II, Section 4, for addressing alleged misconduct or "high crimes and misdemeanors" committed by federal officials. The process begins in the House of Representatives, which has the sole power to impeach. The steps involved in the impeachment process are as follows:
1. Investigation: The House Judiciary Committee, or another relevant committee, typically conducts an investigation to gather evidence and determine if there are grounds for impeachment. This investigation may involve hearings, witness testimonies, and the review of documents and other relevant materials.
2. Articles of Impeachment: If the committee finds sufficient evidence to support impeachment, they draft and approve "Articles of Impeachment." These articles are the formal charges against the federal official, outlining the specific allegations of misconduct.
3. Vote in the House: The full House of Representatives then votes on whether to impeach the official. A simple majority vote is required to pass the articles of impeachment. If a majority votes in favor of impeachment, the official is considered impeached.
4. Senate Trial: Following impeachment by the House, the case moves to the Senate for trial. The Senate serves as the jury in the impeachment trial, presided over by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The House appoints managers who act as prosecutors, presenting the case against the official. The official also has the right to defend themselves.
5. Verdict: After the trial, the Senate votes on whether to convict or acquit the official. A two-thirds majority vote is required to convict. If the official is convicted, they may be removed from office and may also face other penalties, such as disqualification from holding future public office.
It's important to note that impeachment is a political process rather than a criminal one, and the consequences are primarily political rather than legal. Additionally, impeachment is specific to the United States and may differ in other countries with different legal and political systems.
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Laws do not provide a complete guide to ethical behavior. Just because an activity is defined as legal does not mean that it is ethical. As a result, practitioners in many professions subscribe to a(n) ____________, which states the principles and core values that are essential to their work and, therefore, govern their behavior. For the Association of Computing Machinery (ACM), it includes eight moral imperatives that can be used to help guide the actions of IS professionals including: avoid harm to others, give proper credit for intellectual property, and honor confidentiality.
Laws do not provide a complete guide to the ethical behavior. So, just because an activity is defined as legal it does not mean that it is ethical. As a result, the practitioners in many professions tend to subscribe to a code of ethics.
A code of ethics is the one which sets forth values, the ethical principles, and the said ethical standards to which the professionals and the practitioners aspire and by which their actions can be judged.
However, a code of ethics in the business is a set of guiding principles which is thus intended in order to ensure a business and its employees act with honesty and integrity in all the facets of its day-to-day operations.
Hence, the code of ethics provide a common set of rules or standards for all in the profession.
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Jolene i age 19, and a full-time tudent, She i claimed a a dependent on her father’ return. She had a ummer job in 2021 and earned $7,800. What will Jolene’ tandard deduction be?
You might be eligible to claim a charitable deduction for cash gifts to charity up to $300 ($600 for joint returns) in 2021 if you don't itemize your deductions. See Pub. 526, Charitable Contributions.
The standard deduction is increased by $1,350 for married taxpayers who are 65 or older or blind ($1,700 if head of household or single). The standard deduction for people who can be claimed as dependents cannot be more than $1,100 or $350 plus the individual's earned income; however, the total cannot be more than the standard deduction that applies to the dependent's filing status (including any additional amount for being 65 years of age or older and/or blind, if applicable). If you are employed, you might want to think about filling out a new Form W-4, Employee's Withholding Certificate, and delivering it to your employer due to the increase in the standard deduction and decreased use of itemized deductions.
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Should students who are expelled receive more due process than those who are suspended? explain why or why not.
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Yes because being expelled means you've been suspended already and can't go back whereas if you get suspended you can go back and you did something bad but not extremely bad.
The judge ruled in favor of Sam. The statements made to the jury by Linda and Sam immediately after the jury was chosen were _____.
Create a complete issue statement for the Hull v. Scruggs.
Remember, you must include relevant facts and key legal concepts to make a complete issue statement.
The complete issue statement for Hull v. Scruggs is whether Scruggs can be held liable for negligence and whether his actions directly caused the accident and the injuries suffered by Hull."
The complete issue statement for the case Hull v. Scruggs would be as follows:
"The issue in Hull v. Scruggs is whether the defendant, Scruggs, can be held liable for negligence in the accident that occurred between Scruggs' car and the plaintiff, Hull's car. The key legal concepts involved in this case are negligence and causation.
The relevant facts of the case are as follows: On a rainy night, Scruggs was driving his car above the speed limit, lost control, and collided with Hull's car. Hull suffered severe injuries and incurred significant medical expenses as a result of the accident. Scruggs argues that the accident was caused by a sudden mechanical failure in his car, which was beyond his control.
The main legal concept in this case is negligence. In order to establish negligence, the plaintiff must prove that the defendant had a duty of care, breached that duty, and that the breach of duty caused the plaintiff's injuries. In this case, the duty of care is to drive safely and within the speed limit, especially under adverse weather conditions.
The second key legal concept is causation. The plaintiff must demonstrate that the defendant's breach of duty directly caused the plaintiff's injuries. In this case, the plaintiff must prove that Scruggs' excessive speed and failure to maintain control of his car were the direct causes of the accident and the resulting injuries suffered by Hull.
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Woodburn is out on bail pending trial on an indictment charging him with bank robbery. One of the conditions is that he stay in touch with his attorney Nash and appear at the time set for trial. Woodburn fails to appear, and the government seeks an indictment against Woodburn for bail jumping. The government subpoenas Nash before the grand jury and asks him whether he advised his client of the time and place of trial. Nash declines to answer, asserting the privilege on behalf of Woodburn. The government obtains a court order requiring Nash to answer, but he continues in his refusal and is held in contempt. What ruling in an appeal by Nash from his contempt citation?
In an appeal by Nash from his contempt citation, the ruling would likely be in favour of Nash.
The Fifth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution provides individuals with the right against self-incrimination, which extends to attorneys protecting their clients' interests. In this case, Nash's refusal to answer the government's question is a valid exercise of that privilege on behalf of Woodburn.
The court order requiring Nash to answer would likely be seen as a violation of his constitutional rights. Therefore, the ruling in the appeal would likely overturn the contempt citation against Nash.
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What did the system of the amendments do for the Constitution? Choose all that apply.
It gave states the opportunities to show disagreement with federal law.
It gave the states the right to apply or not apply the Bill of Rights.
It allows for updating with time and issues, but it does not change the original document.
It allowed for civil rights to be applied through the Bill of Rights.
Answer:
The answer is b and c
Explanation:
Just took the test
If Kripto sues Attorney Porquine for breach of the Jones-Porquine contract to recover what he would have received under the will, could Attorney Porquine successfully defend himself due to Kripto not having standing to sue? Why or why not?
Answer:
Following are the solution to the given question:
Explanation:
No, Sandy Porquine cannot defend himself successfully. This is because Kripto is the designated beneficiary in the contract between Emma Jones and Sandy Porcupine. Beneficiaries intended to seek a court resolution (have a duty to prosecute) if their contract rights are violated. Sandy Porquine also couldn't apply this theory effectively, Kripto had obtained a right.
True or False. A police officer pointing his weapon at someone is not considered
deadly force.
True
False
(A). Identify the Florida court that would have jurisdiction over the felony DUI charge filed against Barney Gumble. (B). Explain why. (C). Who would be the plaintiff and who would be the defendant in this criminal proceeding
(A) The Florida court that would have jurisdiction over the felony DUI charge filed against Barney Gumble is the circuit court located in the county where the offense occurred. In this case, if Barney Gumble was arrested for a felony DUI in Miami-Dade County, then the circuit court in Miami-Dade County would have jurisdiction over the case.
(B) The reason why the circuit court in the county where the offense occurred has jurisdiction over the case is because Florida law gives jurisdiction to the court in the county where the crime was committed. This means that the court in that county has the legal authority to hear the case, make decisions, and impose penalties if the defendant is found guilty.
(C) In a criminal proceeding, the plaintiff is the state or government body that is bringing charges against the defendant. In this case, the plaintiff would be the State of Florida, as represented by the prosecutor's office in the county where the offense occurred. The defendant would be Barney Gumble, who is accused of committing the felony DUI offense.
The burden of proof rests with the plaintiff, who must prove beyond a reasonable doubt that Barney Gumble committed the crime with which he is charged. If the prosecution fails to meet this burden of proof, then the defendant will be acquitted and released from custody.
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Assume instead that, upon witnessing the lovers in each other's arms, Jill departs from the home and drives around in her car for an hour brooding about her husband’s infidelity. She then returns to the home, finds a shotgun in the garage, and then shoots and kills Jack and Sue. What is the offense for which she will now most likely be convicted? Why did you choose this offense? Support your analysis
Answer:
she will have murder charges and assault charges.
Explanation:
murder charges because she shot and killed both of them assault charges because she assaulted them by shooting them, and since she killed 2 people she will most likely be found guilty and will be in jail for at least 10-20 years.
he eighth amendment to the U.S. Constitution _____. A. prohibits the imposition of excessive bail or fines B. grants the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusations C. protects against unlawful searches and seizures D. grants the right to a speedy tria
The Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution prohibits the imposition of excessive bail or fines and Cruel and Unusual Punishment.
This Amendment is an important part of the Bill of Rights and guarantees individuals protection from excessive punishment. This amendment actually serves two distinct purposes. First, it prohibits excessive bail or fines from being levied on citizens, and second, it prohibits cruel and unusual punishments from being inflicted on citizens.
In particular, this Amendment has been used to protect individuals from cruel and unusual punishments in criminal cases, excessive fines in civil cases, and against high bail requirements. This Amendment ensures that punishments are not disproportionate to the severity of a crime and also prevents excessively high bail amounts which restrict the accused’s right to freedom.
This Amendment is an important check against the potential tyranny of government and ensures that all persons, no matter how wealthy, are subject to the same laws and have equal protection of rights.
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When a team is given a free kick how many meters away does the defending teams wall of players need to be from the ball.
All opponents must stay at least 9.15 meters (10 yards) away from the ball until it enters play, if they're on their own goal area between the goalposts.
What does "goal" signify in sports?A goal in sports can either refer to a specific scoring event or the actual location or structure where an opposition team must throw the ball or ice in order to earn points. Every sport has a different goal framework.
How do Clear goals work?Specific, Quantifiable, Achievable, Meaningful, and Time-Bound goals are also known as smart goals. By defining these parameters in relation to your goal, you can be sure that your goals can be attained in a set amount of time.
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Record the numbers of the correct responses from greatest to least. A forensic scientist will ask questions about: 1. Type of fiber. 2. Fiber color. 3. Number of fibers found. 4. Where the fiber was found. 5. Textile from which fiber originated. 6. The type of crime committed. 7. Time between the crime and the discovery of the fiber. 8. The number of fiber transfers. *
Answer:
The correct arrangement is given below:
Type of fiber Fiber color. The number of fibers found.Where the fiber was found. Textile from which fiber originated. The number of fiber transfers. The type of crime committed. The time between the crime and the discovery of the fiber.Explanation:
Type of fiber: This question tries to establish the nature of the fiber discovered, whether it is popular and what part of the crime scene it was found.Fiber color: this is usually analyzed to see if there is a match between the fiber on the victim and those on the suspect or from the suspect's residence or base of operationThe Number of fibers found: More fibers can be interpreted to mean that there was a prolonged period of contact between the victim and the suspect. It may also mean that there was a struggle between victim and suspect and or use of violence by the suspect.Where the fiber was found: This tells the forensic experts the extent of proximity between the suspect and the crime scene.Textile from which fiber originated: Source of fiber is critical. It tells the forensic scientist more about the crime scene. For example, if most of the fiber are those which may be found in on bedsheets, it may be insinuated that the crime scene was in a residential location.The number of fiber transfers: Multiple fibers exchanged between victim and suspect could mean that were was a long period of contact between them or that there was use of violence on the victim. The type of crime committed: Every type of crime will have an expected form of contact between the victim and the suspect. The manner of exchange of fibers will also reveal this.The time between the crime and the discovery of the fiber: The longer it takes to discover the trace evidence, the less reliable they become.
Cheers
The correct arrangement is given below:
1. Type of fiber
2. Fiber color.
3. The number of fibers found.
4. Where the fiber was found.
5. Textile from which fiber originated.
6. The number of fiber transfers.
7. The type of crime committed.
8. The time between the crime and the discovery of the fiber.
A forensic scientist Questions:
1. Fiber type: This question aims to determine the nature of the fiber identified, whether it is common, and where it was discovered at the crime scene.
2. Fiber color: this is frequently examined to see whether there is a match between the fibers on the victim and those on the suspect, or from the suspect's home or base of operations.
3. The total number of fibers discovered: More fibers could indicate that the victim and the perpetrator were in contact for an extended length of time. It could also indicate a struggle between the victim and the culprit, as well as the suspect's use of violence.
4. The location of the fiber: This informs forensic experts about the distance between the suspect and the crime scene.
5. Textile from which the fiber was derived: It is vital to have a fiber source. It provides further information to the forensic scientist regarding the crime scene. If the majority of the fibers are those found on bedsheets, for example, it could be assumed that the crime scene was in a domestic area.
6. The number of fiber transfers is as follows: Multiple fibers transferred between the victim and the culprit could indicate that they had been in contact for a long time or that the victim had been subjected to violence.
7. The type of crime committed: There will be an expected form of contact between the victim and the suspect in every sort of crime. This will also be revealed by the way fibers are exchanged.
8. The period between both the crime and the fiber's exploration: The longer it will take to find the evidence found, the less reliable it becomes.
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HELP PLEASE FIRST ONE TO ANSWER correctly WILL GET BRAINLY PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE
Answer:
NASA is an independent agency.
Explanation:
Answer:I think it is the department of the state!
Explanation:
Hope this helped!!
Sumner is an accountant accused of negligence by a client. Which of the following defenses should Sumner argue?
A) Actual fraud was lacking.
B) The negligence was NOT the proximate cause of the client's losses.
C) Contributory negligence negates liability for a client's losses.
D) Scienter was lacking
Sumner, the accountant accused of negligence, should argue the defense that the negligence was NOT the proximate cause of the client's losses (Option B).
In the given scenario, Sumner is accused of negligence by a client. Among the options provided, the defense that Sumner should argue is that the negligence was NOT the proximate cause of the client's losses (Option B).
Proximate cause is a legal concept that determines whether the negligent act or omission was the direct cause of the harm suffered by the plaintiff. To successfully defend against the negligence claim, Sumner could argue that even if negligence occurred, it did not directly cause the losses suffered by the client. Proximate cause requires a close connection between the negligent act and the resulting harm.
The other options provided (A, C, and D) do not directly address the issue of proximate cause. Option A relates to actual fraud, which is a different legal concept from negligence. Option C refers to contributory negligence, which is a defense applicable when the plaintiff's own negligence contributes to the harm suffered. Option D, scienter, relates to knowledge or intent and may not be relevant to a negligence claim.
Therefore, the most appropriate defense for Sumner in this case would be to argue that the alleged negligence was NOT the proximate cause of the client's losses.
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US consumers have paid ___ prices for goods at many stores such as Wal-Mart due to globalization.
Because of globalization, many companies, including Walmart, have reduced their prices for US customers. Manufacturing costs are generally decreasing as a result of globalization. This implies that businesses can set lower prices for their products.
The average cost of commodities is an important factor that improves quality of life. Furthermore, because of globalization consumers have greater access to a broader range of goods. Giving people access to a more varied and balanced diet has the potential to improve their health in some cases, but it has also been linked to diabetes and an increase in junk food consumption.
As a result of globalization, businesses can take advantage of lower labor costs in developing countries while also employing the expertise and knowledge of more developed economies.
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1.) Describe an economic problem the government in America is trying to solve. What solution to this public policy issue do you think would work best?
2.) Explain why this policy would be the best solution using Sowell's three questions.
3.) Why is your proposed solution the best response to this issue?
4.) What is the cost of your proposed solution?
ASAP!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Is there evidence (statistics or statements from experts) from a credible source that shows your proposed solution would work? Remember you can use the Helpful Links tab on our class homepage.
An economic issue the government in America is trying to handle is the problem the inflation. The solution that can be used to combat it is called contractionary monetary policy.
A rise in the nation's unemployment rate could be a cost of implementing contractionary monetary policy.
What is the most effective strategy for reducing inflation in the economy?Implementing a contractionary monetary policy is a common method of controlling inflation. A contractionary policy aims to lower the amount of money available in an economy by reducing bond prices and boosting interest rates. Price declines, as well as slower inflation, and less consumption follow as a result.
One crucial monetary strategy to fight inflation is to manage the flow of money through the economy. If the money supply shrinks, prices will rise and demand will decrease.
Note that Another method of reducing the amount of money in circulation is when the government bans certain coins or denominations of paper money. As a result of the economic slowdown and decreasing production, businesses hire fewer personnel.
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What was the UN Security Council resolution after 9 11?
The United Nations Security Council Resolution 1368 was adopted on 12 September 2001, in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. It strongly condemned the acts, reiterated the UN's determination to combat all forms of terrorism and affirmed the need to bring those responsible to justice.
In response to the terrorist attacks that took place in the United States on September 11, 2001, the United Nations Security Council enacted Resolution 1368 on September 12. The resolution denounced the assaults and reaffirmed the council's commitment to taking all necessary action in response.
This resolution prepared the way for additional responses to the 9/11 attacks by the US and its allies, including as the invasion of Afghanistan and the launch of the global War on Terror.
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Mary, Janet and Shantil formed a partnership, Brookdale Senior Care (BSC), to provide temporary housing and general care for elderly people in Memphis, Tennessee. One of the temporary residents left the stove on and burned down the house, which resulted in the loss of the entire building and contents. One of the residents, Francine, sued BSC and obtained a judgment of $ 30,000 against it, but the partnership could not pay the judgment
The option that Francine has since the partnership cannot get the 30000 would be to have assets that are worth this amount from the partnership.
What is a partnership?This is the type of business between two or more people were the parties have to share in the risks, the profits and the loss of the business.
Francine can get the assets from BSC given that this is a partnership and other it, all of the partners have the same liability
Complete question
Mary, Janet and Shantil formed a partnership, Brookdale Senior Care (BSC), to provide temporary housing and general care for elderly people in Memphis, Tennessee. One of the temporary residents left the stove on and burned down the house, which resulted in the loss of the entire building and contents. One of the residents, Francine, sued BSC and obtained a judgment of $ 30,000 against it, but the partnership could not pay the judgment.
What are Francine’s options if the Brookdale partnership cannot pay the $30,000?
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which piece of legislation marked the birth of modern bureaucracy in the united states?
Answer:
Explanation:
The Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act of 1883 marked the birth of modern bureaucracy in the United States. The act established a merit-based system for selecting government employees based on competitive exams, rather than political patronage. The goal was to create a professional, nonpartisan civil service that would be more efficient and effective than the spoils system that preceded it. The Pendleton Act also created the Civil Service Commission to oversee the implementation of the new system.
Question 2 Which is not one of the six arguments that can be employed in the defense against a criminal indictment? A) My client did it but is insane. B) My client did it for a good reason. C) My client did it D) My client did not do it.
One of the six arguments that can be employed in the defense against a criminal indictment My client did it but is insane.
Self-protection, entrapment, insanity, necessity, and respondent superior are a few examples of affirmative defenses. Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure Rule 56, any celebration may also make a movement for precis judgment on an affirmative protection from court.
Some not unusual place procedural defenses are entrapment via way of means of the government, fake confession via way of means of witnesses, falsified evidence, denial of a fast trial, double jeopardy, prosecutorial misconduct, and selective prosecution.
The human frame has 3 number one traces of protection to combat in opposition to overseas invaders, which include viruses, bacteria, and fungi. The immune system's 3 traces of protection include bodily and chemical barriers, non-unique innate responses, and unique adaptive responses.
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______ governments have plenary power, or power that is not constrained. a. Local b. State c. County d. Federal.
The state government has unrestricted power, or plenary power. The best choice is B.
How does a state government function?State governments have a legislative branch, an executive branch headed by a governor, as well as a judicial system, just like the federal government. These links will take you to pages for your local government, state courts, state law website, and state government and state court websites.
How do state and federal power differ?All 50 states are under the limited jurisdiction of the federal government. Within their state's borders, state governments get the authority to regulate. The ability of states to enact laws that clash with those of the national govt is another way in which state authority is constrained. Federalism.
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what causes the object that moves along a surface to slow down and eventually stop
Most criminal and civil cases can be decided by a(n) ______ jury, which is a jury of citizens that determines the guilt or innocence of a person during a trial.
Most criminal and civil cases can be decided by a petit jury, which is a jury of citizens that determines the guilt or innocence of a person during a trial. The term "petit" comes from the Latin word "pletus," which means "full." A petit jury is typically composed of 12 jurors, but it can be smaller in some cases.
In the United States, the right to a trial by jury is guaranteed by the Sixth Amendment to the Constitution. This means that a person accused of a crime has the right to have their case decided by a jury of their peers. The jury is responsible for determining whether the defendant is guilty or not guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.
A petit jury is also used in some civil cases. In these cases, the jury is responsible for determining whether the plaintiff is entitled to damages from the defendant. The size of the jury in a civil case can vary, but it is typically smaller than a petit jury in a criminal case.
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what happens with illegally seized evidence in juvenile proceedings?
In juvenile proceedings, illegally seized evidence is handled differently than in adult court. If evidence is illegally seized during juvenile proceedings, it may be excluded from the proceedings and not used as evidence.
An illegal seizure is a search or seizure by law enforcement without a valid warrant or without reasonable suspicion. An officer is required to have reasonable suspicion, or probable cause, before conducting a search or seizure. A search or seizure may be considered illegal if it violates the Fourth Amendment protection against unreasonable searches and seizures. The Fourth Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures by the government, including the police. It applies to both adults and juveniles.
If the evidence is obtained illegally, it may be excluded from the proceedings and not used as evidence. The exclusionary rule is a legal principle that prohibits the use of illegally obtained evidence in court proceedings. The rule applies to both adult and juvenile court proceedings. The exclusionary rule is designed to protect the constitutional rights of individuals and ensure that law enforcement officers do not violate their rights.In summary, if evidence is illegally seized during juvenile proceedings, it may be excluded from the proceedings and not used as evidence. The exclusionary rule applies to both adult and juvenile court proceedings.
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