Stunted physical growth and impaired intellectual development in babies born to iodine-deficient mothers is called is D, congenital hypothyroidism.
Why is iodine important?Iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones, which are necessary for normal growth and development. A deficiency in iodine can lead to hypothyroidism, which can cause stunted physical growth and impaired intellectual development in babies born to iodine-deficient mothers.
Rickets is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, which is necessary for the absorption of calcium. Beriberi is a condition caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which is a B vitamin. Encephalopathy is a general term for any disorder that affects the brain.
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Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Question 4 options: a) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases c) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care d) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
The criteria required for becoming licensed and employed as an EMT is: (b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
EMT is the abbreviation for Emergency Medical Technician. Their first priority is to transport the patient to the nearest hospital at the earliest while providing care on the way. They are also trained with certain skills and techniques to deal with emergency and life-threatening situations.
Communicable diseases are those that can easily spread from one person to another. This can happen by physical contact with the patient, contact with the patient's personal belongings, through infected surfaces or inhaling the infected droplets. Therefore, an EMT needs to be immunized against such diseases for his as well as the patient's safety.
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25. What word is used to describe the breakdown of
red blood cells?
a. erythema
b. erythrocytosis
c. hemolysis
d. hemostasis
n
Answer:
C. hemolysis
Explanation:
The word used to describe the breakdown of red blood cells is hemolysis. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
What is hemolysis?Hemolysis is the process which can occur naturally as red blood cells reach the end of their life span or it can be the result of a medical condition or external factors, such as exposure to toxins. Hemolysis leads to the release of hemoglobin, which can cause problems such as anemia or jaundice.
In some cases, hemolysis can be a sign of an underlying medical condition that requires treatment, such as sickle cell disease or autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
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if a patient with diabetes was seeing dr elliot joslin during the 1950's, which is more likely to characterize the patient's treatment plan:
If a patient with diabetes was seeing Dr. Elliot Joslin during the 1950s, it is more likely that their treatment plan would involve insulin injections and strict dietary control.
During that era, insulin was the primary treatment for diabetes, and it was administered through injections. Dr. Elliot Joslin, a prominent figure in the field of diabetes care, advocated for the use of insulin therapy to manage blood sugar levels. In the 1950s, there were limited oral medications available for diabetes management, and insulin injections were the mainstay of treatment for individuals with diabetes.
Alongside insulin therapy, strict dietary control was emphasized to regulate carbohydrate intake and maintain stable blood glucose levels. Patients were often prescribed specific meal plans that focused on portion control and carbohydrate counting. Dr. Elliot Joslin's approach to diabetes care emphasized the importance of insulin and dietary management, and his treatment principles greatly influenced the management strategies employed during that time.
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Why do you think that Arjun must continue to take antibiotics for five weeks following his release from the hospital
TLDR: Antibiotics must be taken several weeks to fully kill the bacteria. Else, surviving bacteria develops drug resistance.
Antibiotic prescription really depends on the patient's condition. Some conditions like major surgery or diseases that cause immunosuppression are more prone to bacterial infection, thus they must take antibiotics for prolonged periods of time to fight their current infections or prevent further infections.
Antibiotics, as a general rule, must be given 7 days or several weeks (depending on the bacteria/pathogen) to be sure that all the disease-causing bacteria are dead. If the drugs are taken only until symptoms fade, the surviving bacteria (now fewer in number and not causing symptoms) will develop mutations that may help resist the previously-taken antibiotic, giving rise to drug resistance.
Thus, Arjun must take the antibiotics for several weeks more (according to the doctor's orders, of course) to kill all remaining bacteria and also to prevent bacterial drug resistance. Which is really problematic, since we're slowly losing our number of effective antibiotics.
confirms that P.M. is pregnant. From the chart: Vital Signs Blood pressure 116/74 mm Hg Heart rate 88 beats/min Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min Temperature 98.9 ° F (37.2 ° C) 5. Do any of these vital signs cause concern? What should you do
Answer: blood pressure is good and all the vitals are good you shouldnt have to do anything
Explanation:
A box of pseudoephedrine contains 10 tablets with a strength of 120 per tablet. How many boxes may a patient purchase in a 30 day period If purchasing from a retail pharmacy ?
Answer:
3 boxes.
Explanation:
30/10= 3
Answer:
C
Explanation:
hope this helps :D
Sally is 55 years old and just been diagnosed with type2 diabetes. She as a family history of diabetes but she thought she was living healthy. She is 5.7 tall and 195 pounds weight. What concerns should she have moving forward? What aspect of lifestyle are going to need to change immediately and long-term
Planning change
Stages change
Risk factors for disease
Lifestyle changes
Rationale for choice making
Answer:
Sally's diagnosis of type 2 diabetes puts her at risk for several complications, such as heart disease, nerve damage, kidney damage, and eye damage. She should be concerned about managing her blood sugar levels to avoid these complications. In the short-term, Sally will need to change her diet and exercise habits to manage her blood sugar levels. Long-term, she will need to maintain a healthy lifestyle and monitor her blood sugar levels regularly.
Explanation:
Lifestyle changes refer to the modifications a person makes to their diet, exercise, and other habits to improve their health. Sally will need to make changes to her lifestyle to manage her diabetes, such as reducing her intake of sugar and refined carbohydrates, increasing her consumption of fruits and vegetables, and engaging in regular physical activity.
. On a hiking trip, Brandon starts to complain of pain in the side of his stomach. A few times during
the hike, he must stop because of the sharp pain. After he travels a bit more down the trail, he
suddenly begins vomiting. His friend reaches out to help steady him and notices that Brandon is
burning with fever. What is MOST likely happening to Brandon? What should his friends do and
why?
Answer:
he most likely to have got bitten by an animal and his friend should most likely have a first aid kit.
Explaintion
You never know what can happen on a trip so you should always have those things
Which aspects of the physical assessment should the nurse include for a complete understanding of the client's physical health?
The aspect of the physical assessment that nurses should include for a complete understanding of the client's physical health is inspection.
What is Physical Assessment?Physical assessment may be defined as the methodology of estimating accurate anatomic conclusions through the use of various aspects.
Inspection is the first aspect of the physical assessment which involves the complete monitoring of the patient's external body parts and symptoms.
After the completion of this aspect, the nurses estimate a complete understanding of the client's physical health and what are they required as medical treatment.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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When we sleep, what does the brain replenish it’s stock for?
Answer:
it does not replenish shock but has cerebrospinal fluid that absorbs shock
List five CLIA-waived tests used to diagnose respiratory conditions.
The Five CLIA-waived tests used to diagnose respiratory conditions Have been listed below
CLIA-waived tests used to diagnose respiratory conditionsHere are five CLIA-waived tests commonly used to diagnose respiratory conditions:
Rapid Influenza Diagnostic Tests (RIDTs) - Used to detect the presence of influenza viruses in respiratory specimens.
Strep A Rapid Tests - Used to detect Group A Streptococcus bacteria in throat swab specimens, which can cause respiratory infections like strep throat.
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Rapid Antigen Tests - Used to detect the presence of RSV in respiratory specimens, which can cause respiratory infections in both children and adults.
Fecal Occult Blood Tests (FOBTs) - Used to detect the presence of blood in stool specimens, which can be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, a symptom that can occur in certain respiratory conditions.
C-reactive protein (CRP) Tests - Used to detect elevated levels of CRP in blood samples, which can be a sign of inflammation in the body, a symptom that can occur in some respiratory conditions.
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Here are five CLIA-waived tests commonly used to diagnose respiratory conditions:
Rapid Influenza Diagnostic Tests (RIDTs)Strep A testsInfluenza A/B & RSV testsC-reactive protein (CRP) testsHemoCue Hemoglobin testsWhat is CLIA-waived tests ?CLIA-waived tests refer to simple laboratory tests that are exempt from certain regulatory requirements of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) of 1988. CLIA-waived tests are considered to be of low to moderate complexity, and they can be performed outside of traditional clinical laboratories, such as in physician offices or at home.
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) determines which tests are CLIA-waived based on their complexity and the ease of performing them accurately. CLIA-waived tests are typically designed to provide rapid results with minimal training, making them valuable for point-of-care testing in various healthcare settings.
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Strength tests on four batches of concrete show them to fail at 81, 78, 86, and 95 ksi. The standard deviation of this sample is most nearly:
Answer:
The standard deviation of this sample is 7.438
Explanation:
We are given that Strength tests on four batches of concrete show them to fail at 81, 78, 86, and 95 ksi.
Data: 81, 78, 86, and 95
We are supposed to find standard deviation of this sample
Formula :\(\sqrt{\frac{(x-\bar{x})^2}{n-1}}\)
n = 4
\(\bar x=\frac{81+78+86+95}{4}=85\)
Substitute the values in the formula :
Standard deviation=\(\sqrt{\frac{(81-85)^2+(78-85)^2+(86-85)^2+(95-85)^2}{4-1}}\)
Standard deviation=7.438
Hence The standard deviation of this sample is 7.438
Will is writing an essay about behaviors that healthcare providers should avoid. Choose the correct way to complete each sentence.
those patients. This behavior creates a
Providers who make assumptions about patients based on certain traits are
that negatively affects the ability to provide care.
Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing
safety standards in the workplace?
FDA
OSHA
EPA
The nurse is admitting Eva, a 5 year old with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration, to the hospital. Which of the following nursing interventions has highest priority?
a. assessing Eva's heart rate, skin turgor, and last urine output
b. orienting Eva's family to the unit location of restrooms, call light, TV Etc.
c. Obtaining a detailed family medical history from Eva's mother
d. Making sure that Eva has changed into a hospital gown
Answer: Assessing Eva's heart rate, skin turgor, and last urine output
Explanation: Checking heart rate, skin turgor, and last urine output is the best way for the nurse to assess dehydration, which is a primary concern. The other choices are not a high priority.
(a) assessing her heart rate, skin turgor, and last urine output Is the correct answer.
The nursing intervention with the highest priority in this scenario is assessing Eva's heart rate, skin turgor, and last urine output. This is because severe gastroenteritis and dehydration can lead to cardiovascular complications and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening.
It is essential to assess these vital signs and fluid balance to determine the severity of Eva's condition and initiate appropriate treatment. While the other interventions are important, they are not as urgent as the assessment of vital signs and fluid balance.
The highest priority nursing intervention when admitting Eva, a 5-year-old with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration, to the hospital is This is crucial for evaluating her current health status and addressing her immediate needs.
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The relative risk of ischemic stroke for nonwhites compared with whites is about 2 for those aged 35 to 64 and about 1 for those 65 years of age and older. This is best described as:
The situation above is best described as a MODIFICATION of the effect of race by age. Ischemic stroke occurs when the blood flow supply of oxygen to the brain is blocked.
Ischemic stroke is a serious condition that occurs when the blood flow that supplies oxygen to the brain is blocked.
Although a stroke may occur at any age, the majority of them occurs in individuals who are 65 or older.
Ischaemic stroke is a multifactorial disorder, thereby it is also dependent on genetic factors.
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What is hpi medical abbreviation
What can the advanced emt do to help assure the accuracy of information collected from the patient who has overdosed?
The advanced emt can do to help assure the accuracy of information collected from the patient who has overdosed can verify information with family or friends.
What does EMT mean?Emergency Medical Technicians
Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs) are the most popular form of EMS provider and are also known as EMTs. Many EMTs go on to receive an Advanced EMT credential or become a Paramedic after learning the necessary skills to assist in life-threatening situations.
Difference between EMT and paramedicThe primary distinction between EMTs and paramedics is their level of education and the procedures they are permitted to undertake. While EMTs may do CPR, glucose, and oxygen administration, paramedics can undertake more advanced treatments such inserting IV lines, providing medicines, and implanting pacemakers.
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how important is the function of each organ in our body
you walk into a room and discover that there is a fire in the patient's waste basket. your first step in responding to this fire emergency should be:
In responding to a fire emergency in a patient's waste basket, the first step is to ensure the safety of everyone in the immediate vicinity.
The nurse should immediately activate the facility's fire alarm system to alert others of the emergency. The next step is to contain the fire by closing the door to the room, if possible.
If the fire is small and can be safely extinguished, the nurse may use an appropriate fire extinguisher to put out the fire.
If the fire is large or the nurse is unsure of how to properly use a fire extinguisher, he/she should evacuate the room and the surrounding area, and call for assistance from the facility's designated emergency response team.
It is important for the nurse to remain calm and follow established protocols to ensure the safety of patients and staff.
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Lack of the spleen in 48-years-old male is typical for
Answer:
lack of blood supply
Explanation:
How do you code MRSA in ICD-10?
ICD-10, or the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, is a system used to classify and code diseases and related health conditions. In ICD-10, MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is coded using the category B95.4, which is designated for "Staphylococcus aureus, resistant to methicillin and other specified antibiotics."
To code MRSA in ICD-10, the coder will first locate the appropriate category in the ICD-10 index, which lists all codes and their corresponding disease or condition. In this case, the coder would look for "Staphylococcus aureus, resistant to methicillin" and find the code B95.4. The coder would then record this code on the patient's medical record or claim form.
It is important to note that in addition to the code for MRSA, the coder may also need to assign additional codes for any related conditions or complications, such as sepsis or pneumonia. These codes would be found using the ICD-10 index and recorded along with the MRSA code. Also, the codes should be reported in the order of the main diagnosis and then the secondary diagnosis.
In summary, MRSA is coded in ICD-10 using the code B95.4, which is designated for "Staphylococcus aureus, resistant to methicillin and other specified antibiotics." The coder will locate this code in the ICD-10 index and record it on the patient's medical record or claim form. Additional codes for related conditions or complications may also be required to be recorded.
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A 35-year-old woman ha palpitation, light-headedne, and a table tachycardia. The monitor how a regular narrow-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. Vagal maneuver have not been effective in terminating the rhythm. An IV ha been etablihed. Which drug hould be adminitered
Answer:Answer:Adenosine 6 mg
Explanation:
If i took tylenol at about 6 or 7AM in the morning and took one now at 10PM will i be okay?
No you will not be okay
Explanation:
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for etanercept. The nurse should identify that etanercept treats rheumatoid arthritis by which of the following actions?
Answer: A. inactivation of tumor necrosis factor
Explanation:
The options include:
a. inactivation of tumor necrosis factor
b. inhibition of osteoclast activity
c. decreasing the reuptake of serotonin
d. interference with the production of lymphocytes
Etanercept is simply referred to as a form of drug that's called the biological therapy. It is refered to as an anti-TNF drugs as it helps in the blocking of TNF and also in the reduction of inflammation.
From the question, the nurse should identify that etanercept treats rheumatoid arthritis by the inactivation of the tumor necrosis factor.
"There is no life outside this solar system, and nothing you can say will change that fact!" Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Answer:
"Critical thinking requires an open mind."
Explanation:
Critical thinking is the type of thinking in which the person analyzes and evaluates the facts in a detailed manner. The analyzes then help in the formation of the judgment related to the given facts. Critical thinking aims towards a specific goal which includes the explanation of the facts, methods, and process of extracting the conclusion. It requires an acceptance of a broad mindset to accept certain facts and then evaluate from the given facts and details.
In the given excerpt, the person making such a remark about the solar system lacks the openness and accepting mindset. It is because of this reason that he exerts his thoughts and names it to be a fact.
Hyperglycemia in individuals with diabetic neuropathy leads to the inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the dorsal root ganglion. Which additional process will be inhibited in the dorsal root ganglion under conditions that cause diabetic neuropathy? A) the glyoxylate cycle B) lactic acid fermentation C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis
Answer: (C) The citric Acid Cycle
Explanation:
10 medications for diabetes
Bydureon BCise
Humalog
Jardiance
Lantus
Soliqua
Toujeo
Trulicity\
Victoza
Ozempic
Steglatro
A nurse has been assigned to a 43-year-old man who is to receive epoetin alfa therapy. the patient is hiv-positive and has anemia related to zidovudine therapy. the nurse will monitor?
A nurse has been assigned to a 43-year-old man who is to receive epoetin alfa therapy. The patient is HIV-positive and has anemia related to zidovudine therapy. The nurse will monitor the iron levels of the patient.
Zidovudine therapy may induce blood and bone marrow problems. Signs of bone marrow problems comprise chills, fever, sore throat, pale skin, and weakness. These situations may need blood transfusions or temporarily discontinuing therapy with zidovudine.
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1. Describe the difference observed between hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage? What is the effect of that difference in the way the tissue functions?