scientists build models based on what they know from previous research to develop testable hypotheses. scientists watson and crick first constructed an incorrect triple-helix model of dna with the bases (a, t, c, g) arranged on the outside of the molecule. explain why their triple-helix model was valuable even though it was not correct
Answers
Triple-helix model of DNA was still valuable because they led to the development of the correct double helix model and to better understand the chemical structure and bonding of DNA.
Watson and Crick's initial triple-helix model of DNA, although incorrect, was still valuable for several reasons. First, it was a starting point for further exploration and hypothesis testing, which ultimately led to the development of the correct double helix model.
Second, the model helped scientists to better understand the chemical structure and bonding of DNA, which provided insight into how DNA functions in genetic information storage and replication.
Finally, the incorrect model helped to identify what did not work, which aided in the development of new hypotheses and experiments. In this way, even incorrect models contribute to the advancement of scientific knowledge by helping to refine understanding and identify new avenues for exploration.
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Related Questions
the small bulge at the end of the axon that sends messages to other neurons are called by?
Answers
Terminal buttons are the tiny protrusions at the end of axons that communicate with neighboring neurons.
What is neuron and its function?The basic building blocks of the nervous system and brain are neurons (also known as neurones or nerve cells). Brain cells are the cells that receive sensory information from the outside world, give control signals to our muscles, and transform and relay electrical signals at each stage along the way.
What is the largest neuron?With a width of 1.1 mm, this R2 cell seems to be the biggest neuron ever captured on camera. When this cell is isolated, a record-breaking 1.965 g of total RNA was produced.
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Describe the role of bile salts in lipid digestion and absorption.
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Two crucial jobs are carried out by bilesalts in the digestive system: emulsify big fat droplets into smaller ones and act as detergents.
This process increases the small intestine's surface area again for action of lipase, enhancing fat absorption.Bilesalts emulsify & solubilize fats, facilitating the absorption of lipids. Lipids are suspended in water by surrounding water-soluble lipid particles, creating tiny particles. The micelles that these tiny particles create with lipids are known as. Bile acids are powerful "digestive surfactants" that function as emulsifiers to aid in the absorption of lipids, including fat-soluble vitamins (1,2). About 50% of the total turnover of cholesterol is accounted for by bile acids, which are the main mechanism for degradation of cholesterol (1).
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Producers and consumers release carbon dioxide as waste during which process of the carbon cycle? photosynthesis respiration condensation fixation
Answers
Answer:
respiration
Explanation:
photosynthesis is when plants intake carbon dioxide and release oxygen as waste.
cellular respiration intakes oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.
condensation is a part of the water cycle, not the carbon cycle.
fixation occurs in the nitrogen cycle.
Producers and consumers release carbon dioxide as waste during the respiration process of the carbon cycle. Therefore, respiration is the correct option.
What is respiration?Respiration is a process where plants break down organic compounds, such as carbohydrates to release energy for cellular processes. Respiration is a process where plants utilize oxygen, and releases carbon dioxide as a by-product which is ultimately released into the atmosphere and absorbed by other animals.
Humans and other animals also release carbon dioxide as a byproduct during the respiration process which is then exhaled into the atmosphere.
However, during photosynthesis, plants utilize the carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and convert it into organic molecules, such as carbohydrates, thereby, creating a balance in the carbon cycle, where carbon dioxide released during respiration is absorbed during the photosynthesis process.
Therefore, during the respiration process, producers and consumers release carbon dioxide as a by-product.
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Which represents A strand of DNA bases?.
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DNA has four nitrogen bases such as adenine (A), guanine, cytosine, and thymine. The A of DNA shows the adenine nitrogen base of the DNA, which is a purine in nature.
What is DNA?Because DNA is a polymer, it is made up of monomers of nucleotides. The nucleotide is made up of a deoxyribose (pentose) sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogen base, and during the time of replication, these nucleotides come together. The DNA has four nitrogen bases such as adenine (A), guanine, cytosine, and thymine; out of these, two are purines (A and G) and two are pyrimidines (C and T).
Hence, the A of DNA is adenine, which has a nitrogenous base.
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What is the strong supinator of the forearm?
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The strong supinator of the forearm is the biceps brachii muscle. The biceps brachii muscle is a two-headed muscle located in the front of the upper arm that crosses the elbow and shoulder joints.
The long head of the biceps brachii muscle arises from the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula and the short head arises from the coracoid process of the scapula.
The primary function of the biceps brachii muscle is to flex the elbow joint and supinate the forearm. When the muscle contracts, it pulls the radius bone of the forearm upward and outward, resulting in supination. Additionally, the biceps brachii muscle is also involved in shoulder flexion and abduction.
While the biceps brachii muscle is considered the primary supinator of the forearm, there are other muscles involved in this action, including the supinator muscle, which is located deep in the posterior compartment of the forearm.
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The variety of organisms within an ecosystem is characteristic of which type of diversity?
Genetic diversity
Ecosystem diversity
Species diversity
Regional diversity
Answers
Answer:
Genetic diversity
Explanation:
The answer is the first one hope this helps
Warmer water due to climate change might favor harmful algae in a number of ways: ... Warmer water is easier for small organisms to move through and allows algae to float to the surface faster. Algal blooms absorb sunlight, making water even warmer and promoting more blooms.
Answers
Answer:
See explanation
Explanation:
Actually, a warmer water is less dense than cold water. It follows that small organisms can easily move through a less dense water. Warm water allows algae to flow through it faster leading to an algal bloom facilitated by climate change.
The water will further be heated up by the fact that the increasing number of algae absorb sunlight thereby further increasing the temperature of the water. The foregoing explains the greater algal bloom in warm years.
Insect tympanal organs allow individuals to detect which of the following?
food
magnetic fields
chemicals
light
predators
Answers
The correct answer is predators. Insect tympanal organs do not have any role in detecting food, magnetic fields, chemicals, or light.
The correct option is E.
Insects have evolved various sensory systems that allow them to detect and respond to different aspects of their environment. One such sensory system is the tympanal organ, which is found in many insects, including moths, crickets, and grasshoppers.
Ability of insects to detect and respond to predators is essential for their survival. Insects that are unable to detect or avoid predators are at a higher risk of being eaten. The structure of the tympanal organ varies depending on the insect species, but generally consists of a thin membrane that vibrates in response to sound waves. The vibrations are then transmitted to sensory cells that are attached to the membrane.
Hence , E is the correct option
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What are the two sources of law in Australia?Options are:Federal and statutoryStatutory and commonCivil and commonHigh court and civil
Answers
The correct option is A. Federal and statutory. this is based on the British legal system.
Which vitamin is synthesized by microbes in the intestine and helps to maintain bone health? A. vitamin A B. vitamin D C. vitamin E D. vitamin K
Answers
Answer:
B) Vitamin D
Explanation:
Vitamin calcium is synthesized by microbes in the intestine and helps to maintain bone health.Vitamin D is the one of the far soluble vitamins. the vitamin plays a major role in helping the body to make use of calcium.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
How was osmosis involved in the cause of Clark's seizures?
Answers
Answer:
after Clark was treated with a hypertonic solution? increased Na concentration in matrix of brain caused water from blood to move in to the brain which increased the matrix pressure. Pressure caused the neuron firing rate to increase which increased the likelihood of seizures.
What do arthropods and segmented worms have in common?a. They both have segmented bodies during some stage of their life.b. They both have hard outer shells that are unmovable.c. They both have bones and vertebrae.d. They both lack any sense organs.
Answers
Arthropods are insects, spiders, scorpions, centipedes, crabs, etc. All of them presents sense organs (like eyes), as well as segmented worms (like sensory organs for taste). Therefore, d is incorrect.
Arthropods have hard outer shells but segmented worms don't. Therefore, b is wrong too.
Neither arthropods nor segmented worms have bones. Arthropods have only exoskeleton. So c is incorrect as well.
Both arthropods and segmented worms have segmented bodies, as it is clearly seen in many species. Therefore, the correct answer is a. They both have segmented bodies during some stage of their life.
A cell that is metabolic active but not actively dividing is considered to be in which phase of the cell cycle?.
Answers
The G0 phase of the cell cycle is where a cell that is metabolically active but not actively dividing is considered.
The G1 phase (gap 1), which is the period of time between the beginning of DNA replication and the mitotic phase (G0 phase), comes after the G0 phase. The cell does not replicate its DNA during G1, but it is metabolically active and grows continuously. The S phase (synthesis), which comes after G1, is when DNA replication happens.
The G0 phase is when cells are not actively involved in preparing to divide. The cell has finished its cell cycle and is in the quiescent stage. The cell cycle is a repeated cycle of the phases in which cells divide and multiply. Meiosis for cell division and mitosis for cell multiplication both occur twice. The stage of the cycle known as "quiescence" is when the cell is still metabolically active but does not engage in division or multiplication.
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the only preaustralopithecine found outside the east african rift valley is: group of answer choices orrorin tugenensis. ardipithecus kadabba. sahelanthropus tchadensis. ardipithecus ramidus.
Answers
The only preaustralopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley is Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
Pre-Australopithecines is the informal term that is used to describe a group of extinct hominids that existed before the Australopithecines. They are considered the earliest species of human-like primates. They lived around 5.5 to 7 million years ago and are known to have lived in forested areas of Africa, which is different from the later hominids that lived in savannah-like environments. This group includes the following species: Sahelanthropus tchadensis,Orrorin tugenensis, Ardipithecus kadabba, Ardipithecus ramidus. The only preaustralopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley is Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
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An allele whose trait is masked (weaker) in the presence of a stronger allele
Answers
Answer:
There are 2 alleles, a recessive allele and a dominant allele. The weaker allele is the recessive allele.
To detect immunoglobulin m (igm)antibodies in an acute phase,blood should be collected in _____ days after the onset of infection.
Answers
To detect immunoglobulin m (IgM)antibodies in an acute phase, blood should be collected 7 days after the onset of infection.
IgM and IgG antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 may both be found shortly after infection. IgG is typically detectable for extended periods of time, but IgM is most effective for diagnosing recent infection and typically becomes undetectable weeks to months after infection. IgM antibody detection is frequently viewed as a sign of an acute infection. Due to cross-reactivity with IgM antibodies to other, closely related bacteria or other interfering chemicals, false-positive IgM findings are, nonetheless, frequently observed. A positive IgM result may not always indicate an "acute" infection, and additional testing (such as IgG testing) may be required to interpret results because IgM antibodies may be detectable for 2-4 months (or longer) after disease resolution. For many infections, the onset of a measurable antibody response is 5-7 days after the infection. If samples are taken before infection, the initial IgM test results may be negative. Antibody production Immunosuppressed patients may also continue to be seronegative.Learn more about antibodies here brainly.com/question/14081504
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improved intravitreal aav-mediated inner retinalgene transduction after surgical internal limitingmembrane peeling in cynomolgus monkeys
Answers
Because it is easily accessible and has a mild immune response, the retina makes a good target for gene therapy.
In a mouse model, the inner retina was highly effectively transduced by an intravitreally injected adeno-associated virus (AAV) vector.The vitreous and internal limiting membrane (ILM) operated as obstacles to transduction in large animals, reducing the efficacy of retinal transduction. Before administering AAV vectors, we performed vitrectomy (VIT) and ILM peeling on cynomolgus monkeys to get around these obstacles. The findings suggest that surgical ILM peeling prior to AAV vector delivery would be beneficial for retinal disease treatment and safe for effective transduction of the nonhuman primate retina.Learn more about the adeno-associated virus (AAV) with the help of the given link:
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I'LL GIVE BRAINLIEST !!!!
What is the atmosphere?
Answers
Nitrogen - 78%
Oxygen - 21%
Carbon dioxide - 0.04%
Argon 0.93%
And Water vapour
The gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it.
Hope this helped a bit :)
A and B represent two plates interacting; what kind of plates are they?A) Plate A is oceanic and Plate B is continental B) Plate A is continental and Plate B is oceanic C) Plate A is oceanic and Plate B is oceanic D) Plate A is continental and Plate B is continental
Answers
The photo shows a subduction zone between two oceanic plates. When two oceanic plates are converging, one is overridden and the other is pushed down the asthenosphere. The boundary of the subduction zone is usually marked by deep trenches.
ANSWER: C) Plate A is oceanic and Plate B is oceanic.
An organism that uses CO 2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a/an
Answers
Answer:
autotroph
Explanation:
Autotrophs use sunlight and co2 to make their own food.
true or false: blood in the pulmonary capillaries has a higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide than atmospheric air does. therefore, carbon dioxide diffuses out of the plasma into the lungs.
Answers
Exchange of carbon dioxide occurs because blood in the pulmonary capillaries has a higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide than atmospheric air does. Therefore, carbon dioxide diffuses out of the plasma into the lung. Hence, the answer is true.
The pulmonary capillaries are thin-walled (just about one cell thick) blood vessels that are found in the lungs, or more specifically, close to the alveoli (air sacks) to enable gaseous exchange between the blood plasma and the atmospheric air. In order to understand how gaseous exchange works in the pulmonary capillaries, we need to understand how gases behave.
Air is made up of gases. Air also exerts pressure on the surfaces they come in contact with. According to Dalton's law, this pressure can be gotten by adding up the partial pressure of the indivigual gases in air. The more the concentration of that gas, the more the partial pressure that gas will have. If the partial pressure of a gas is higher in one area, the gas tends to remove to concentration gradient by diffusion.
In the pulmonary capillary, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is about 45mmHg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in atmospheric air is about 40mmHg. This difference in partial pressures causes carbon dioxide to diffuse out of the blood plasma. Therefore, the answer to the question above is true.
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Lily feels tired and weak in the evenings after work. Before starting her chores, she eats dinner. Which characteristic of life does Lily exhibit?
Answers
The characteristics of life that Lily exhibited was the need for energy. That is option B.
What are the characteristics of life?The characteristics of life are those features that living things exhibit that helps them to survive in an environment.
The characteristics of living organisms include the following:
Cellular organization, the ability to reproduce, growth & development, energy use,Homeostasis, Response to their environment, and The ability to adapt.Therefore, since lily feels tired and took her dinner before her chores, it then means there is need for energy which can be obtained from the metabolism of food taken in.
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Complete question:
Lily feels tired and weak in the evenings after work. Before starting her chores, she eats dinner. Which characteristic of life does Lily exhibit?
A)growth
B)need for energy
C)organization
D)regulation
Which of the following is not one of the many functions of protein.
Question 5 options:
Antibodies that protect us from foreign agents (bacteria, viruses)
Repair body tissues
Copy the genetic code from DNA
Carry oxygen throughout our bodies
Answers
Answer:
I think it is C, copy the genetic code from DNA.
Explanation:
Which statement best describes cancer cells?
They grow as a single layer of cells.
They cease to reproduce after 20–50 mitotic divisions.
They reproduce only when needed to replace missing cells.
They are not regulated by contact inhibition.
Answers
The statement "they are not regulated by contact inhibition" best describes cancer cells. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is a Cancerous cell?A cancerous cell may be defined as a cell that stimulated continuous growth, inhibition of apoptosis, perform metastasis, etc.
Contact inhibition is performed by the noncancerous cells to cease proliferation and growth when they contact with each other. This property is lost when any noncancerous cell is transformed into a cancerous cell.
Thus, the correct option for this question is D.
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determinants of heredity and genetic variation (bioflix tutorial)
Answers
The determinants of heredity are genes while the genetic variation can occur due to several factors including mutation, meiosis, and sexual reproduction.
In the BioFlix tutorial, it is illustrated how the process of meiosis leads to genetic variation.The genetic material of an organism is passed from one generation to another through genes. These genes are the determinants of heredity. Genes are made up of DNA and are found on chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell. During sexual reproduction, half of the genes from each parent are passed down to their offspring.
The process of meiosis, which includes independent assortment and crossing over of homologous chromosomes, is the reason behind the genetic variation that occurs in the offspring.Genetic variation can also occur due to mutations, which are changes in the DNA sequence of a gene. These changes can be beneficial, harmful or neutral.
Genetic variation is important for the survival of a species as it helps to ensure that some individuals will have traits that are better adapted to the environment and have a higher chance of survival.
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Match the information to the argument it supports
1. Some substances can be passed to humans through animal products.
2. Egg-laying hens do not need as much protein as other chickens.
3. Different feeds contain different levels of supplements.
It is unsafe to give antibiotics to mature poultry.
It is advisable to feed birds mixes specific to poultry.
It is best to separate poultry by purpose.
Answer asap!!
Answers
2. It is advisable to feed birds mixes specific to poultry.
3. Different feeds contain different levels of supplements.
When you crack the back of a minion and then shake, they will glow like a glow stick. Kevin was wondering if temperature has any effect on how brightly they can glow. To test this, he will place one glowing minion in a walk-in refrigerator, one in the living room, and one in a sauna. He will then observe the brightness of each glowing minion. What is the independent or manipulated variable?
A. temp
B. brightness
C. shaking time
D. cracking the back of the minion
Answers
select two reasons why speciation events can be difficult to discern when examining the fossil record.
Answers
The incomplete fossil record and the gradual changes that occur during speciation events make it difficult to discern these events when examining the fossil record. It is important to consider other sources of evidence such as molecular biology, morphology, and biogeography to gain a better understanding of the evolution of species.
Speciation events can be difficult to discern when examining the fossil record for a couple of reasons:
1. Incomplete Fossil Record: The fossil record is incomplete due to several reasons such as destruction of fossils due to natural disasters, erosion, or burial under sedimentary rock layers. Also, not all organisms have the potential to form fossils, and only a small percentage of fossils have been found. Due to these limitations, there may be gaps in the fossil record that make it difficult to identify when a particular species emerged.
2. Gradual Changes: Speciation events do not happen overnight, and it takes many generations for a species to change enough to become a new species. During this process, the transitional forms of the organism may not be as distinct from their ancestors. This means that the characteristics of the organism may change gradually over time, and it may be difficult to distinguish between the two species using the fossil record alone.
In conclusion, the incomplete fossil record and the gradual changes that occur during speciation events make it difficult to discern these events when examining the fossil record. It is important to consider other sources of evidence such as molecular biology, morphology, and biogeography to gain a better understanding of the evolution of species.
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If a purple-flowered, heterozygous plant were crossed with a white-flowered plant, what is the expected ratio of genotypes among the f1 offspring? suppose p is a dominant allele for a flower color and p is a recessive one.
Answers
suppose P is a dominant allele for a flower color and p is a recessive one.
The expected ratio of genotypes among the F1 offspring is 1 Pp : 1 pp.
The white pea bloom was "masked" in the F1 generation, which caused all of the flowers to be purple.
The "masked" genes from the F1 generation were permitted to mate, but they were only allowed to pair once, leaving the other three times to appear with purple flowers, resulting in a 3:1 ratio of purple to white blooms in generation F2.
He paired a homozygous dominant flower with a homozygous recessive flower in his initial attempt. As a result, all of the F1 generation's progeny were heterozygous, making them all purple.
Two heterozygous, one homozygous recessive, one homozygous dominant, and the progeny of the F1 generation were crossed with another heterozygous plant.
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the papanicolaou smear test collects cells from the vagina and cervix. which type of membrane is being analyzed during this examination?
Answers
During a papanicolaou smear test, the squamous epithelial cells lining the cervix and vagina are examined.
A Papanicolaou test, also known as a Pap smear, is a gynecological test that examines cells from the cervix and vagina to screen for cervical cancer or pre-cancerous cells.
During the procedure, a doctor or nurse practitioner will use a tool to collect a sample of cells from the cervix and vagina.
These cells are then placed on a slide and sent to a laboratory for analysis.
In conclusion, squamous epithelial cells from the cervix and vagina are the type of membrane being analyzed during a Papanicolaou smear test.
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