The fraction of codons that encode a) phenylalanine is 8/27, b) isoleucine - 2/27, c) Proline =0 d) Stop codons = 2/27.
Ribonucleoside (RNA) is broken down into ribonucleosides by Polynucleotide (PNP) phosphorylase, resulting in ribonucleoside diphosphate (rNDP). These rNDPs can then be broken down to deoxyribonucleoside diphosphates by ribonucleotide (dNDP) reductase.
Given U = 2/3, A = 1/3
a) The fraction of codons that will encode for phenylalanine is calculated as
UUU = 2/3 × 2/3×2/3
= 8/27
b) Isoleucine AUU = 1/3 × 2/3 × 2/3
= 4/27
AUA = 1/3 × 2/3 × 1/3
= 2/27
c) Proline
CCU = 0
CCC = 0
CCA = 0
CCG = 0
d) Stop codons
UAA = 2/3× 1/3 × 1/3
= 2/27
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1. Other than having many features in common, state other characteristics of species 2. Give reasons for the loss of energy from one trophic level to the next in a food chain.
Answer:
As a metabolic heat.
Explanation:
The loss of energy from one trophic level to the next in a food chain occurs because energy is lost in the form of heat when the organisms from one trophic level are consumed by organisms from the next level. Only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to another while the remaining 90% energy is lost in the form of heat energy in the ecosystem.
which term describes a viral infection of the brainstem and spinal cord that may result in paralysis?
The term that describes a viral infection of the brainstem and spinal cord that may result in paralysis is called poliomyelitis, also known as polio.
Poliomyelitis is caused by the poliovirus, which is spread through contaminated water or food, as well as through contact with an infected person's feces or saliva.
The virus primarily attacks the nervous system, leading to inflammation of the spinal cord and brainstem, which can cause muscle weakness and paralysis.
Poliomyelitis can affect individuals of all ages, but it is more common in children under the age of five.
Symptoms of the disease can range from mild flu-like symptoms to more severe symptoms, such as muscle pain, fever, and paralysis. There is no cure for poliomyelitis, but vaccinations are available to prevent it.
The World Health Organization has launched an initiative to eradicate the disease through global vaccination efforts. Today, poliomyelitis is rare in most parts of the world, but it remains a serious concern in some areas where access to vaccinations is limited.
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What is the coding region of DNA called? Explain.
a- A gamete
b- A allele
c- A sister chromatid
d- A gene
Answer:
D-Gene
Explanation:
Because of the protein it get's. When it gets the protein it needs then they develop the gene therapy.
please help me answer this question u will get a lot of points!!!!!
Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential. Thus, we state that the membrane is briefly _____.O refractoryO myelinated neuronsO exocytosisO potassium ions
Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential. Thus, we state that the membrane is briefly refractory
What is refractory?Refractory is a material that is highly resistant to heat, wear, and corrosion. It is commonly used in applications such as lining furnaces, kilns, incinerators, and other high temperature systems. Refractory materials are also used to insulate against extreme temperatures and protect against fire. Refractory materials typically have a high melting point, thermal conductivity, and chemical stability.
This ensures that one action potential is not confused with two, and that an action potential is propagated in a single direction. Myelinated neurons help to increase the speed of action potential propagation, but do not affect the refractory period. Exocytosis and potassium ions are both involved in the generation of action potentials.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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"If a scientist isolates genes for Hepatitus B antigens from a Hepatitus virus, then inserts them into a bacterial plasmid and replicates the bacteria in a fermenter, what product will be collected?"A. Transgenic bacterial plasmidsB. Hepatitus B frusesC. Hepatitus B vaccineD. Hepatitus resistant bacteria
If a scientist isolates genes for Hepatitus B antigens from a Hepatitus virus, then inserts them into a bacterial plasmid and replicates the bacteria in a fermenter, the product collected will be transgenic bacterial plasmids, inside the bacteria, in order to proove if the transgenic plasmid actually gives the bacteria resistance to the virus, it has to be grown in an infected medium.
The correct answer is option A.
the following data is an emsa experiment examining the interaction of ap1 with the cns13 dna. the competitor row refers to the addition of unlabeled dna that specifically interacts with the indicated protein. based on this data, what can we conclude regarding where ap1 binds on the cns13 dna?
Based on this data, we conclude regarding where AP1 binds on the CNS13 DNA is AP1 binds to the CNS13 DNA fragment in the vicinity of the promoter region of regulated genes.
EMSA stands for Electrophoretic Mobility Shift Assay, and it is a method used for detecting protein-DNA interactions.The data shows that the addition of unlabeled DNA (competitor) which interacts with the indicated protein leads to a reduction in the intensity of the bands, this is indicative of a decreased interaction between the labeled probe and the protein when the competitor DNA is added.
This is because the competitor DNA competes with the labeled probe DNA for protein binding sites. This supports the conclusion that the labeled probe is specifically interacting with the protein AP1. Further, the observation that the binding of AP1 to CNS13 is weaker than with the competitor DNA suggests that AP1 may bind in the vicinity of the competitor DNA, possibly upstream or downstream.
AP1 belongs to the group of transcription factors that bind to DNA in the promoter region of genes. It is thus likely that AP1 binds to CNS13 in a similar fashion, near the promoter region of a gene or genes that are being regulated. In conclusion, based on the data presented, it can be concluded that AP1 binds to the CNS13 DNA fragment in the vicinity of the promoter region of regulated genes.
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ssume there is no interference between regions (a-b and b-c). when an f1 individual produces gametes, what proportion of its gametes would have abc genotype?
The proportion of f1 individual gametes would have abc genotype is 0.04
In the first cross one of the parent has only dominant allele and one has only recessive allele that means the offspring in F1 will be 100% heterozygous
Xx Yy Zz
the gametes resulted from this individual are
XYZ XYz XyZ Xyz xYZ xYz xyZ xyz
it produces 8 types of gametes one of which is xyz.
Choosing three from 8 gametes ,the proportion will be 3/8
In decimal terms 3/8=0.0375=0.04(approx)
Gametes are organism's reproductive cells. They are also called as sex cells. Female gametes are called the ova or egg cells, and male gametes are called the sperm. Gametes are haploid cells, and each cell carries only the one copy of each chromosome.
Gametogenesis is the process in which a haploid cell (n) is formed from a diploid cell (2n) via meiosis and cell differentiation. Gametogenesis in the male is called as spermatogenesis and produces spermatozoa.
Hence, the proportion is 0.04.
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A Muscle cells require large amounts of energy and therefore have large numbers of organelles called
Will mark brainiest ; worth 24 points ; please help And also can you separate them by claim , evidence and reasoning
Based on the evidence, Sample B is a better choice for a marathon runner before a big race.
What makes Sample B better?Claim: Sample B is a better choice for a marathon runner before a big race.
Evidence:
Sample B has more calories, carbohydrates, and protein than Sample A.Marathon runners need a lot of calories, carbohydrates, and protein to fuel their long runs.Carbohydrates are the body's main source of energy.Protein is needed for muscle repair and growth.Reasoning:
Sample B has more of the nutrients that marathon runners need to fuel their long runs and recover from their races. Therefore, Sample B is a better choice for a marathon runner before a big race.
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Blood vessels are connected to nerve fibers which are regulated by the
nervous system. When innervated they respond by doing what?
Answer:
When blood vessels are innervated they respond by contracting and relaxing their muscle wall, as a result of the activity of the autonomic nervous system.
Explanation:
The nerves that are responsible for the innervation of the blood vessels are called nervi vasorum, and are composed of nerve fibers of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
The innervation of the blood vessels specifically acts on the muscular wall of the vessel, so it contracts or relaxes depending on the activity of the nervous system:
Sympathetic nervous system stimulates vascular contraction.Parasympathetic nervous system makes the vascular smooth muscle relax.The action of the autonomic nervous system has an effect on blood pressure, being a determinant of normal or pathological behavior of the arteries.
describe the procedure you followed to gram-stain bacteria. what is the purpose of each of the specific reagents?
The most frequent test to determine whether you have a bacterial infection is a Gram stain. The test will indicate whether your infection is Gram-positive or Gram-negative if you do.
What are Gram positive bacteria?If you are exhibiting signs of a bacterial illness, you could require this test. Numerous bacterial illnesses frequently exhibit the symptoms of pain, fever, and weariness.
The type of infection you have and where in your body it is located will determine any additional symptoms.
Depending on the type of illness, your doctor may need to collect a sample from the suspected infection site or from specific body fluids.
Therefore, The most frequent test to determine whether you have a bacterial infection is a Gram stain. The test will indicate whether your infection is Gram-positive or Gram-negative if you do.
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In order to safely bring the fossilized remains of a yeti down the side of a snowy mountain, they are strapped to a sled - the combination of which weighs 972 N - then carefully lowered down the 19.8∘ incline. To ensure the fossil is not damaged, it is brought down the snowy slope at a constant 1.92 m/s Although the runners of the sled are smooth, they are not free of friction; the coefficient of kinetic friction between the runners and the snow is 0.107. Assuming the rope is kept taut and parallel to the incline, what must be the tension (in newtons) in it
The tension in the rope is calculated as 33.7 N.
Weight of sled and fossil, w = 972 N Inclination angle of slope, θ = 19.8°
Speed of sled, v = 1.92 m/s
Coefficient of kinetic friction between sled runners and snow, μ = 0.107
To find:
Tension in the rope, T The forces acting on the sled are the gravitational force (Fg), the normal force (Fn) and the force of friction (Ff). The normal force is perpendicular to the slope and equal to the component of the gravitational force perpendicular to the slope. The force of friction is parallel to the slope and opposite the direction of motion.
The net force acting on the sled is given by the expression:
F net = ma
Since the sled moves with constant velocity, a = 0.
Therefore, F net = 0. F net = Fg sinθ - Ff = 0⇒ Fg sinθ = Ff
Since the speed of sled is constant, work done by tension in the rope is equal to work done by frictional force.
Hence, T = Ff = μFn
Where F n = Fg cosθ = w cosθ
Putting all the values,
T = μw cos θ sinθ= sin 19.8°cos 19.8°= 0.3365T = 0.107 × 972 × 0.3365T = 33.7 N
The rope is 33.7 N. The given problem is related to the tension in the rope. The tension in the rope is calculated as 33.7 N.
To bring down the fossil safely down the slope, the tension in the rope is 33.7 N. The gravitational force is acting perpendicular to the slope and the force of friction is acting parallel to the slope. The normal force is the component of gravitational force acting perpendicular to the slope. The sled moves down the slope with a constant velocity. The force acting on the sled is equal and opposite to the force of tension in the rope. The force of friction is given by the expression,
Ff = μFn,
where Fn = Fg cosθ = w cosθ.
Therefore, the tension in the rope is calculated as 33.7 N.
To bring down the fossil safely down the slope, the tension in the rope must be 33.7 N.
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agro forestry PROJECT
i) Design a agroforestry project plan in 4 pages
ii) Draft the logical framework for the project showing the goals, input, output, indicators etc
iii) Develop the management tools that will be practiced to ensure success of the business
i) Agroforestry Project Plan: Introduction, objectives, components, implementation strategy, budget, and sustainability plan.
ii) Logical Framework: Goals, inputs, outputs, and indicators for measuring success.
iii) Management Tools: Planning, stakeholder engagement, training, monitoring, financial management, knowledge sharing, and sustainability planning.
i) Agroforestry Project Plan:
Page 1: Introduction and Objectives
- Introduction to agroforestry and its benefits
- Project objectives: Increase farm productivity, enhance environmental sustainability, and generate additional income
Page 2: Project Components
- Component 1: Agroforestry system design and implementation
- Component 2: Capacity building and training for farmers
- Component 3: Provision of necessary inputs (seeds, tools, etc.)
- Component 4: Monitoring and evaluation of project activities
Page 3: Implementation Strategy
- Timeline for project activities
- Roles and responsibilities of project team members
- Engagement with local communities and stakeholders
Page 4: Budget and Sustainability
- Project budget breakdown
- Potential sources of funding and income generation
- Long-term sustainability plan for the agroforestry system
ii) Logical Framework for Agroforestry Project:
Goal: Improve farm productivity, enhance environmental sustainability, and generate additional income through agroforestry.
Inputs:
- Land for agroforestry system
- Seeds and saplings
- Farming tools and equipment
- Training materials and expertise
Outputs:
- Established agroforestry system
- Trained farmers adopting agroforestry practices
- Increased crop and tree yields
- Reduced soil erosion and improved soil fertility
Indicators:
- Number of farmers trained in agroforestry
- Percentage increase in crop and tree yields
- Reduction in soil erosion rates
- Increase in household income from agroforestry activities
iii) Management Tools for Agroforestry Project Success:
1. Project Planning and Scheduling: Develop a detailed project plan with timelines and milestones, ensuring efficient resource allocation and progress tracking.
2. Stakeholder Engagement: Foster collaboration and communication with local farmers, community leaders, and relevant organizations to garner support and ensure project alignment with their needs.
3. Capacity Building and Training: Provide comprehensive training programs on agroforestry techniques, maintenance, and sustainable practices to empower farmers and enhance their skills.
4. Monitoring and Evaluation: Establish a robust monitoring system to track progress, evaluate outcomes, and make informed decisions for project adjustments and improvements.
5. Financial Management: Implement effective financial management practices, including budgeting, expense tracking, and reporting, to ensure proper allocation of funds and transparency.
6. Knowledge Sharing and Documentation: Document project activities, lessons learned, and best practices, and facilitate knowledge sharing among project stakeholders to promote continuous learning and replication.
7. Sustainability Planning: Develop strategies for long-term project sustainability, such as establishing farmer cooperatives, accessing markets, and creating income-generating opportunities beyond the project duration.
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How many genetically different gametes can this cell form?
Answer: The human genome consists of 23 pairs of chromosomes. There are therefore 223 different kinds of gametes that one individual can produce.
Explanation:
I learned 'bout this-
why do plant cells contain organelles that are not found in animal cells?
Answer:
However, plant cells and animal cells do not look exactly the same or have all of the same organelles, since they each have different needs. For example, plant cells contain chloroplasts since they need to perform photosynthesis, but animal cells do not
Explanation:
the correct answer would be D) Plants need specialized organelles to perform photosynthesis.
Use the figure above to compare the quantity of carbon present in the atmosphere to that present in fossil fuels. What percent of the carbon in the fossil fuel compartment would double the amount if carbon in the atmosphere if it was burned?
0.003% percent of the carbon in the fossil fuel compartment would double the amount of carbon in the atmosphere if it was burned.
As buried carbon-based organisms decompose over millions of years, fossil fuels are created. Carbon-rich deposits are produced by them, which are then extracted and burned to produce energy. Approximately 80% of the world's energy is currently provided by these non-renewable resources.
Because they contain hydrocarbons and other carbon-based substances, fossil fuels are valuable as energy sources. Any member of the class of organic compounds known as hydrocarbons contains only carbon and hydrogen.
The carbon content of a fuel is its mass-percentage carbon content. This number is used to determine how much carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and unburned hydrocarbons will be released each year as a result of using this fuel in a generator, boiler, or reformer.
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What shape of bone is the pelvic bone?
A. long
B. short
C. irregular
D. flat
24. Which process in humans does not use energy released from respiration?
A cell division
B. diffusion of oxygen
C. muscle contraction
D. protein synthesis
Answer:
Muscle contraction
Explanation:
Because it will be very hard for the respiration to release through human energy
even though state laws may have specific mandates, how long should pharmacists maintain records of immunizations?
Explanation:
Your vaccination record (sometimes called your immunization record) provides a history of all the vaccines you received as a child and adult. This record may be required for certain jobs, travel abroad, or school registration.
How is photosynthesis different from respiration
Answer:
photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, cellular respiration requires oxygen and releases carbon dioxide
Explanation:
the fluidity of the lipid side chains in the interior of a bilayer is generally increased by: a decrease in temperature an increase in fatty acyl chain length an increase in the number of double bonds in fatty acids an increase in the percentage of phosphatidylethanolamine the binding of water to the fatty acyl side chains
Answer:
see the explanation
Explanation:
I think the answer may be the
amount of the length doubled
How is Gaucher disease treated?
human monosomics all abort before birth, with the exception of turner's syndrome (45, xo). why would you expect this monosomic to survive when other monosomics do not?
Turner's syndrome is a human monosomic that survives and does not cause abortion before birth. This is because it lacks a gene or genes that are required for male development.
Turner's syndrome is a type of monosomic, which is a chromosomal abnormality in which an individual is missing a single chromosome out of the typical 46 chromosomes (23 pairs) found in most human cells. Turner's Syndrome is a genetic condition that affects females. It is characterized by the presence of only one X chromosome rather than two. Girls with Turner syndrome are often shorter than average, and they may have heart and kidney problems, among other health issues. The symptoms of Turner's Syndrome may vary from person to person, and some females may have mild to no symptoms. Furthermore, the cause of Turner Syndrome is a random genetic mutation that occurs spontaneously rather than being inherited from parents. Because Turner Syndrome occurs only in females, it does not cause males to be born with Turner Syndrome, as they require a Y chromosome to develop male characteristics. Monosomic fetuses, on the other hand, are typically aborted before birth because the loss of a chromosome disrupts normal fetal development, resulting in fatal malformations. Turner Syndrome is unique because the X chromosome missing in Turner Syndrome is not required for female development. As a result, Turner Syndrome is the only monosomic that can survive to birth.Learn more about Turner's Syndrome: https://brainly.com/question/953084
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The lac Operon is considered an inducible operon. Explain what this means making reference to and comparing the trip operon
The lac operon is an inducible operon, meaning that it is expressed only when needed. This is in contrast to a repressible operon, such as the trp operon, which is turned off in response to a stimulus.
The lac operon is activated when lactose, its inducer, is present in the environment. This activates the lac repressor, which in turn binds to the DNA, blocking the transcription of the genes. When the inducer is absent, the repressor is not activated, so the genes are expressed. In contrast, the trp operon is activated when the repressor is absent.
When the repressor is present, the trp operon is not expressed, and when the repressor is absent, the trp operon is expressed. Therefore, the lac operon is activated when its inducer is present, while the trp operon is activated when its repressor is absent.
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if a test tube contained an rna solution, what would you predict would be the result of a dische diphenylamine test on this sample?
If a test tube contained an RNA solution, the Dische diphenylamine test would likely result in a blue color, indicating the presence of RNA.
Chemical tests are frequently used to identify the presence of DNA or RNA in a sample, such as the Dische diphenylamine test. When the test reagent, which is composed of concentrated sulfuric acid and diphenylamine, is introduced to a sample of DNA or RNA, it interacts with the pentose sugars in the nucleic acid backbone and produces a blue colour. The presence of DNA or RNA in the sample is indicated by this colour. The Dische diphenylamine test can be used to determine whether or not RNA is present in a sample because it also includes pentose sugars. As a result, when the Dische diphenylamine test was run on a test tube containing an RNA solution, it would probably produce a blue hue, indicating the presence of RNA.
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4. Once an object is in motion, what type of energy is being used?
potential energy
kinetic energy
gravity need answer asap or I fail
Answer:
4. Once an object is in motion, what type of energy is being used?
A: Kinetic
Explanation:
What does it mean when a
cell has an infection?
A. An invader is kept out of the cell by
the cell membrane.
B. An invader has been denied entry
into the cell by the cell membrane.
C. An invader has found its way into
the cell.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
If the invader was outside the cell, it wouldn't be infected.
Using bioinformatics.1. a) Find Accession NG_016141.1. what is the name of this sequence and on what chromosome is it located?b) The e-value represents the probability that the sequence you are testing does NOT match the sequence in the database. Let’s say you have a sequence from humans that did not have a known function. It matches to the GFP sequence from jellyfish with an e-value of 1e-2 and the CDK sequence of the yeast S. cerevisae with an e-value of 1e-8. Which of these two sequences is a closer match that would lead to further testing (don’t forget to tell us why you determined this)?c) How and where specifically do the taster and nontaster alleles differ? What is the most common (predominant) form (variant) of each one for the taster and non-taster alleles?d) What are the accession numbers for the non-taster and taster alleles?e) What is the full length of the nontaster allele in nucleotides?
a) Accession \(NG_{016141.1}\) is on chromosome 22 in humans.
b) The CDK sequence of yeast S. cerevisae is a closer match than GFP to an unknown human sequence with an e-value of 1e⁻⁸ and 1e⁻² respectively.
c) The taster and nontaster alleles differ due to an SNP at position 145. The most common variant for the taster allele is rs713598 (C), and for the nontaster allele, it is rs1726866 (T).
d) \(NG_{008732.1}\) and \(NG_{008733.1}\) are the accession numbers for the taster and nontaster alleles, respectively.
e) The full length of the nontaster allele is 2,986 bp.
a) Accession NG_016141.1 is a DNA sequence located on chromosome 22 in humans. The sequence is part of the reference genome and is annotated as Homo sapiens chromosome 22, GRCh38.p13 Primary Assembly.
b) The CDK sequence of yeast S. cerevisae with an e-value of 1e-8 is a closer match to the unknown human sequence than the GFP sequence from jellyfish with an e-value of 1e-2. The lower e-value for CDK indicates a higher significance of the match and a lower probability of a random match. Moreover, CDK is a conserved protein involved in cell cycle regulation, and its homologs have been found in all eukaryotic organisms, including humans. GFP, on the other hand, is a fluorescent protein used as a molecular marker and is not involved in any essential biological function in humans.
c) The taster and nontaster alleles refer to the ability to taste the bitter compound phenylthiocarbamide (PTC). The taster allele has a functional TAS2R38 gene, whereas the nontaster allele has a non-functional gene due to a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) at position 145. The SNP changes an amino acid from proline to alanine, resulting in a non-functional protein. The most common variant of the taster allele is rs713598 (C), and the nontaster allele is rs1726866 (T).
d) The accession numbers for the taster and nontaster alleles are \(NG_{008732.1}\) and \(NG_{008733.1}\), respectively.
e) The full length of the nontaster allele in nucleotides is 2,986 bp.
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The correct question is:
Using bioinformatics.1.
a) Find Accession \(NG_{016141.1}\). what is the name of this sequence and on what chromosome is it located?
b) The e-value represents the probability that the sequence you are testing does NOT match the sequence in the database. Let’s say you have a sequence from humans that did not have a known function. It matches to the GFP sequence from jellyfish with an e-value of 1e⁻² and the CDK sequence of the yeast S. cerevisae with an e-value of 1e⁻⁸. Which of these two sequences is a closer match that would lead to further testing (don’t forget to tell us why you determined this)?
c) How and where specifically do the taster and nontaster alleles differ? What is the most common (predominant) form (variant) of each one for the taster and non-taster alleles?
d) What are the accession numbers for the non-taster and taster alleles?
e) What is the full length of the nontaster allele in nucleotides?
what is the difference between a short-term cellular response and a long-term cellular response? based on your readings, try to provide one example of each kind of cellular response.
A short-term cellular response is a response that occurs quickly and is typically resolved within seconds to minutes. This type of response is often triggered by a signal or stimulus that activates a signaling pathway within the cell.
One example of a short-term cellular response is the release of calcium ions in response to a signal. Calcium ions can act as second messengers, activating downstream signaling pathways that regulate cellular processes such as muscle contraction or gene expression.
On the other hand, a long-term cellular response is a response that occurs over a longer period of time and may persist for hours, days, or even weeks. This type of response often involves changes in gene expression, protein synthesis, or cellular metabolism. One example of a long-term cellular response is the activation of the MAPK signaling pathway in response to growth factors. This pathway can stimulate the expression of genes involved in cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation, leading to long-term changes in cell behavior.
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