Question 10 (1 point)
Which of these would NOT be considered a reputable way to form a hypothesis?
Make an educated guess based on common sense and intuition.
Study research already gathered in the field.
Consider existing knowledge about the topic and make an inference.
Read other studies pertaining to your question.
Answers
A hypothesis is an educated guess that gives explanation about an observation. It is not reputable to form a hypothesis by considering existing knowledge about the topic and making an inference.
Hypothesis precedes scientific research. It is a tentative explanation that must be verified by experiment.
Usually a hypothesis is formed after reading other studies pertaining to your question.
A hypothesis is different from an inference. While inference uses background knowledge of established facts to make its guess, hypothesis uses knowledge obtained from past similar research to guess about something that is yet to happen.
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Related Questions
what is the meaning of involuntary action
Answers
Involuntary actions is when something happens unintentionally or without a person's conscious control, it is said to be occurring involuntarily
What is Involuntary actions?When something happens unintentionally or without a person's conscious control, it is said to be occurring involuntarily. Usually, the autonomic nervous system or reflexive reactions control these actions.
In contrast to voluntary acts, which may be controlled consciously, involuntary actions occur without conscious thought or intentional decision-making.
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Which of the following is not true regarding active transport?
Answers
Active transport requires energy in form of ATP to occur.
ACTIVE TRANSPORT:
Active transport is a form of cellular transport in which molecules or substances move against concentration gradient i.e. from region of low concentration to high concentration. Due to this movement against concentration gradient, energy in form of ATP is required to move the molecules. Example of active transport in living cells is the sodium-pottasium ion pump.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/12133248?referrer=searchResults
Considering the steps of meiosis, identify the correct number of chromosomes present at the beginning of meiosis I, interkinesis, and in the daughter cells at the end of meiosis II.
92, 46, 23
92, 46, 46
46, 23, 12
46, 92, 23
Answers
Step by step explanation:
At the beginning of meiosis I, there are 46 chromosomes, which are in the form of 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes. During meiosis I, these homologous pairs separate, resulting in two daughter cells, each with 23 chromosomes.
During interkinesis, the cell undergoes a period of rest, and the chromosomes partially uncoil. At the end of interkinesis, the cell enters meiosis II.
During meiosis II, the sister chromatids of each chromosome separate, resulting in four daughter cells, each with 23 chromosomes. So, the correct number of chromosomes present in the daughter cells at the end of meiosis II is 23.
4. The ATP yield from 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH under aerobic conditions in a eukaryotic cell would be: which option is correct a) 1 mole of ATP b) 2 moles of ATP c) 3 moles of ATP d) 4 moles of ATP e) 6 moles of ATP
Answers
The ATP yield from 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH under aerobic conditions in a eukaryotic cell is approximately 4 moles of ATP.
During oxidative phosphorylation, each mole of NADH can generate around 2.5 to 3 moles of ATP. Therefore, for 2 moles of NADH, the total ATP production would be in the range of 4 to 6 moles of ATP. While the more precise estimate falls within the 4 to 6 moles range, the closest option provided is 4 moles of ATP. It is important to note that the exact ATP yield can vary depending on factors such as the efficiency of the electron transport chain and the specific conditions within the cell.Since there are 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH, the total ATP yield would be around 4 to 6 moles of ATP. However, the most accurate option among the given choices is 4 moles of ATP.
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4)
from "Carbon Dioxide and Photosynthesis"
What is the independent variable in this experiment?
A) type of plant
B) number of trials
C) amount of carbon dioxide
D) number of oxygen bubbles
3
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Wdg
Which types of changes must follow the law of conservation of mass?
O Both physical and chemical changes
ONeither physical nor chemical changes
Only physical changes
Only chemical changes
Answers
Answer:Matter can change form through physical and chemical changes, but through any of these changes, matter is conserved. The same amount of matter exists before and after the change—none is created or destroyed.
Explanation:
Answer:
I believe A. is the answer
Explanation:
4. Identify What forces
act on the dead organisms in
sediment, transforming these
materials into oil and gas?
cocos
Answers
Natural gas may also be produced from organic material at high enough pressure. The two basic factors that convert biological matter into fossil fuels are heat and pressure.
What transforms extinct animals into crude oil and natural gas?Algae and plants inhabited shallow oceans millions of years ago. The organic material was buried when it perished and sank to the bottom, where it mingled with other materials. The remnants of these animals were converted into fossil fuels over millions of years under extreme pressure and heat.
Layers of clay and sand have been covering dead creatures that were buried in the water millions of years ago. These decomposing organisms became petroleum and natural gas as a result of the lack of air, the high temperature, and the high pressure.
Only carbon and hydrogen are necessary for the conversion of organic matter (OM) into petroleum.
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A group of students decide to have a fishbowl in their classroom. They put the following things in it:
Seaweed that grows on the bottom.
Fish that eat the seaweed.
Bacteria that eat the waste created by the fish.
In this ecosystem, what are the bacteria?
Answers
When a person breathes in, what happens to the diaphragm and to the cage?
Answers
Upon inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens and the chest cavity enlarges. This contraction creates a vacuum, which pulls air into the lungs. Upon exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and returns to its domelike shape, and air is forced out of the lungs.
What are three things neurons have in common?
Answers
Neurons generally vary depending on their location and their role. However there is three fundamental components that tend to show up among all of the neurons: Cell body, dendrites and axon.
Therefore your answer is Cell body, dendrites and axon.
Apologies if this is wrong.
10. What happens to DNA strands during hybridization?
O It binds together.
O It splits from each other.
ma
O It is degraded.
O It is sliced into different sections.
Answers
Answer:
it binds together
Explanation:
dna is commonly present in the shape of a molecule with double strands. In a similar way, these two molecules connect to each other in a mechanism called hybridisation. DNA naturally, the new strand hybridizes to the old strand when it is replicated.
hope this helped!
During hybridization, DNA strands bind together. The correct option is A.
The process of joining two complementary strands of DNA from various sources to create a double-stranded molecule is referred to as hybridization.
The complementary DNA strands join together during this phase and create strong hydrogen bonds between their corresponding base pairs. Adenine (A) and thymine (T) and guanine (G) and cytosine (C) couple up specifically to form this interaction.
Numerous molecular biology procedures, including DNA hybridization tests, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and DNA sequencing, frequently employ hybridization.
Hybridization enables the identification and amplification of particular DNA sequences as well as the analysis of genetic data by allowing the complimentary strands to come together.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:
10. What happens to DNA strands during hybridization?
A. It binds together.
B. It splits from each other.
C. It is degraded.
D. It is sliced into different sections.
When a space shuttle was launched, the astronauts
onboard experienced an acceleration of 29.0 m/s2. If one
of the astronauts had a mass of 60.0 kg, what net force in
newtons did the astronaut experience?
Answers
What process causes dissolved substances to be left behind to form minerals after water in lakes or ponds evaporates?
Answers
Answer:
Precipitation
Explanation:
Precipitation refers to a process causes dissolved substances to be left behind to form minerals after water in lakes or ponds evaporates.
Three circuit diagrams are shown. Which statement about the circuit
diagrams is accurate?
Circuit A Circuit B Circuit C
A. Circuits A, B, and C are all series circuits.
OB. Circuits A and C are series circuits, and circuit B is a parallel
circuit.
C. Circuits A and B are series circuits, and circuit C is a parallel
circuit.
OD. Circuit A is a series circuit, and circuits B and C are parallel
circuits.
Answers
From the diagram, circuit a and b are series circuit while c is parallel. Option C
What is a parallel and series circuit?
The components in a parallel circuit are linked together so that the electric current can go along several different routes. The power source is directly connected to each component, forming parallel branches. While the current in a parallel circuit can vary, the voltage between each component is constant.
The components of a series circuit are connected one after the other to create a single path for the passage of electricity. While the voltage across each component can change, the current flowing through each component is constant.
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What is likely to occur if humans continue to burn fossil fuels?
Answers
There are four Goal Categories. What are the four categories in NSLS?
Answers
Answer:
Personal, Interpersonal, Academic/Professional, And Societal Goals.
Explanation:
Answer:
I assume that you are referring to the National Society of Leadership and Success (NSLS) in this question.
The NSLS has identified four goal categories that can help members focus their leadership development efforts. These categories are:
1. Vision and goal setting - This category involves the ability to create a clear and compelling vision for the future and to set goals that will help achieve that vision.
2. Communication - This category involves the ability to communicate effectively with others, including listening actively, speaking persuasively, and writing clearly and concisely.
3. Team building - This category involves the ability to work effectively with others, including building strong relationships, resolving conflicts, and delegating tasks.
4. Ethics and social responsibility - This category involves the ability to act with integrity and to make ethical decisions, as well as to recognize and address social issues in one's community.
Explanation:
Trisomy 21 is a genetic disorder that occurs when a patient has three copies of chromosome 21 in each cell. Which mutation would MOST likely result in a similar phenotype as trisomy 21?
A.
inversion of the distal portion of chromosome 21
B.
duplication of the distal portion of chromosome 21
C.
insertion of the distal portion of chromosome 21 to chromosome 5
D.
translocation of the distal portion of chromosome 21 to chromosome 5
Answers
The correct answer is B.duplication of the distal portion of chromosome 21
Duplication of the distal portion of chromosome 21 is the mutation that would most likely result in a similar phenotype as trisomy 21.
What are the characteristics of trisomy 21?A genetic chromosome 21 disorder causing developmental and intellectual delays. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in extra genetic material from chromosome 21.
Down syndrome is usually caused by an error in cell division called “nondisjunction.” Nondisjunction results in an embryo with three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two.
The extra chromosome causes problems with the way the body and brain develop. Down syndrome is one of the most common causes of birth defects.
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differs in number of neutrons
atomic mass
2. number of protons
fusion
3. number of protons and neutrons
2
atomic number
4. splitting of atoms
1
isotope
5. joining atoms together
Answers
Answer:
1. Isotope
Explanation:
Isotope is the atom of the same element whichhave same proton and electron but they have different mass number
Farmers need to make many decisions about how they grow their crops. One of these decisions is whether to use synthetic fertilizer or organic fertilizer, such as manure.
An advantage of using synthetic fertilizer instead of organic fertilizer is that
A synthetic fertilizer can provide more targeted macronutrients to the crops
B) synthetic fertilizer remains in the soil longer than organic fertilizer does, reducing the volume needed and, therefore, the cost to the farmer
c) synthetic fertilizer adds to soil texture and increases the soil's water-holding capacity
organic fertilizer runs off more readily into waterways, leading to nutrient overload
Answers
An advantage of using synthetic fertilizer instead of organic fertilizer is that
synthetic fertilizer can provide more targeted macro nutrients to the crops.
Synthetic fertilizers are used by farmers to increase crop yield. The fertilizer
are specially formulated to ensure all the macro-nutrients are present in the
right proportions for optimal yield of the crops.
This is the advantage synthetic fertilizers have as organic fertilizer don't
contain all the targeted macro nutrients in the right amounts.
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which characteristic is the same for all electromagnetic waves
Answers
Answer:
its frequency
Explanation:
their frequencies remain unchanged but their wavelength changes when the wave travels from one medium to another.
What is the purpose of natural selection?
Answers
Answer:
The purpose of natural selection is not a conscious or intentional one, as it is not driven by a specific goal or purpose. Instead, natural selection is a fundamental process in biology that acts on heritable traits within populations over generations. It is a key mechanism of evolution.
Explanation:
The primary outcome of natural selection is the adaptation of organisms to their environment. Individuals with traits that are advantageous in a particular environment are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on those beneficial traits to their offspring. Conversely, individuals with traits that are disadvantageous are less likely to survive and reproduce, leading to a reduction in the frequency of those traits in the population over time.
Natural selection, therefore, acts as a filter that shapes the characteristics of populations, favoring traits that enhance an organism's survival and reproductive success in a given environment. Over many generations, this process can lead to the development of new species or the modification of existing ones, as populations accumulate adaptations that allow them to thrive in different ecological niches.
It's important to note that natural selection does not have an end goal in mind, nor does it necessarily lead to the "best" or most advanced organisms. Instead, it is a consequence of the interactions between organisms and their environment, constantly shaping and refining the traits of living beings based on their ability to survive and reproduce.
How does artificial selection differ from natural selection? Select all that apply.
A. During artificial selection, the mating pairs are selected by humans, not the organisms.
B. The outcomes of artificial selection are predictable.
C. Artificial selection requires variety in a population.
D. Artificial selection does not help a population adapt to its environment.
Answers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Artificial selection is the process by which humans choose individual organisms with certain phenotypic trait values for breeding.
what comes first mieosis or mitosis
Answers
Answer:
I'm not sure there's a first exactly, but if I had to guess I'd say mitosis.
Explanation:
Meiosis produces genetically identical cells, results in diploid cells and takes place throughout an organism's lifetime; involved in asexual reproduction. Meiosis produces genetically unique cells, results in haploid cells, only happens at curtain times in an organism's life cycle; involved in sexual reproduction.
In the first division the homologous chromosomes are separated, in the second the sister chromatids. That is to say: meiosis consists of two consecutive divisions between which the DNA does not replicate. These two divisions are called mitosis or division I and mitosis or division II of meiosis.
Explain why Extreme heat can threaten human survival
Answers
Answer:
Extreme heat events can be dangerous to health – even fatal. These events result in increased hospital admissions for heat- related illness, as well as cardiovascular and respiratory disorders. Extreme heat events can trigger a variety of heat stress conditions, such as heat stroke.
Explanation:
There is little food available in ecosystems found near polar ice. True or false
Answers
Answer:
false
Explanation:
edge 2021
Which materials are exchanged between the ocean and the atmosphere? Select all that apply.
fish
plankton
energy
heat
water
Answers
Answer:
Water and energy
Explanation:
Water and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the ocean and the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is taken out of the atmosphere by photosynthesis into plants to produce ENERGY.
In the following map of the world, in which zones would be most likely to find Seagrams meadows ?
Answers
Answer:
between Asia and Australia
Answer:
I believe it is North not entirely sure though and I'm sorry if I was incorrect!
Explanation:
Is a decomposer a predator or a prey? Explain
Answers
Answer:
Decomposers are prey.
Explanation:
Decomposers break down (hence, 'decompose') dead organisms, and are heterotrophs, but are not predators. They do not actively go hunting, nor consume food like a predator typically would, and are not technically scavengers.
However, they are eaten. We eat mushrooms and fungi all the time. Other animals eat them. This constitutes them as prey.
Which factors changed throughout the experiment? Check all that apply
Answers
In the experiment, two factors changed throughout the course of the study: the genes of the parental mice and the fur color of the offspring.
The genes of the parental mice: The experiment involved studying the genetic makeup of the parental mice, specifically focusing on the alleles responsible for fur color. The researchers likely examined the genes of the parental mice to determine which alleles they carried and how they could potentially be passed on to their offspring. By studying the genetic composition of the parental mice, the researchers could track the inheritance pattern of the fur color trait.
The fur color of the offspring: The primary objective of the experiment was to investigate how fur color is inherited in mice. To achieve this, the researchers likely observed and recorded the fur color of the offspring produced by the parental mice.
As the experiment progressed and new generations of mice were born, the researchers would have noticed changes in the fur color of the offspring. By comparing the fur color of the offspring to the known genetic makeup of the parental mice, they could analyze the inheritance patterns and determine whether specific alleles were dominant or recessive.
The Question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :
Which factors changed throughout the experiment? Check all that apply.
the trait examined, fur color
the organism, mice
which allele was dominant and which allele was recessive
the genes of the parental mice
other aspects of the mice
fur color of the offspring
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What force makes it difficult to push the weight?
Answers
Answer:
This is INERTIA. Heavier objects (objects with more mass) are more difficult to move and stop. Heavier objects (greater mass) resist change more than lighter objects. Example: Pushing a bicycle or a Cadillac, or stopping them once moving.
Explanation:
Answer:
The force that makes it difficult to push the weight is inertia.