please help me on this question ​

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial probability distribution because there re only 2 possible outcomes. It is either a surveyed company outsourced some part of their manufacturing process in the past two to three years. The probability of success, p would be that a randomly selected company x, outsourced some part of their manufacturing process in the past two to three years. From the information given, p = 54/100 = 0.54

Number of success, x = 338

Number of samples, n = 555

We want to determine the probability that 338 or more companies outsourced some part of their manufacturing process in the past two or three years which is expressed as

P(x ≥ 338)

From the binomial probability calculator,

P(x ≥ 338) = 0.0006

The percentage is 0.0006 × 100 = 0.06%

Answer:

You buy the following from Best Buy:

1 new Chromebook for $550, 1 wireless mouse for $20, 1 wireless keyboard for $20

What is the Subtotal:

You use your Elite Members Best Buy credit card to save 6%, how much do you save:

What is the new Subtotal: $

Sales tax is 5%: $

What is the total: $

Step-by-step explanation:

Without specific data on the number of students who prefer each option, we cannot calculate the probability.

To determine the probability that a student prefers the zoo or the water park, we need to know the total number of students and the number of students who prefer each option. Without this information, it is not possible to calculate the probability accurately.

To calculate the probability, we would need to divide the number of students who prefer the zoo or the water park by the total number of students. For example, if there are 50 students in total and 30 prefer the zoo and 20 prefer the water park, the probability would be:

P(prefer zoo or water park) = (30 + 20) / 50 = 50 / 50 = 1

However, without specific data on the number of students who prefer each option, we cannot calculate the probability.

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True. The coefficient of variation is a better measure of risk than the standard deviation if the expected returns of the securities being compared differ significantly.

The coefficient of variation (CV) is a relative measure of risk that takes into account the standard deviation and the mean of a distribution. It is a better measure of risk than the standard deviation when comparing securities with significantly different expected returns because it adjusts for the differences in the means.

The CV is calculated as the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean, and it allows for the comparison of the risk of investments with different expected returns on a standardized basis. Therefore, it is a useful tool for investors who want to compare the risk of investments that have different levels of expected returns. However, it should be noted that the CV has limitations and should not be the sole measure of risk used in investment analysis.

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Answer:

3/x

Step-by-step explanation:

Quotient is a division.

3/x

SOLUTION

Given the question in the image, the following are the solution steps to answer the question.

STEP 1: Write the formula for the rate of change

STEP 2: Write the given intervals

STEP 3: Find the average rate of change of f(x)

We substitute the coordinates into the rate of change formula:

STEP 4: Find the rate of change of g(x)

STEP 5: Find the rate of change of h(x)

STEP 6: Write the average rates of change for the functions

The average rates of change in ascending order will be -8,-3,-1

Hence, the arrangement of the functions according to their ascending order of average rates of changes are:

The minimum acceptable rate of 1 sigma of quality production is d) 68.

This corresponds to a 68% acceptance level, which is equivalent to 1 standard deviation in a normal distribution.

A 1 sigma level corresponds to a standard deviation that captures approximately 68% of the data within a normal distribution. This means that if a process is operating at a 1 sigma level, it has a 68% acceptance rate, and the remaining 32% of the data falls outside the acceptable range

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Answer:

The solution set is {x : x ∈ R, x < -7} ⇒ A

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us solve the question

∵ x + 2 < -5

→ Subtract 2 from both sides of the inequality

∴ x + 2 - 2 < -5 - 2

∴ x + 0 < -7

∴ x < -7

→ By using the second rule above

∴ The solution set is {x : x ∈ R, x < -7}

Answer:

Hello,

Answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

y=-2.5*x+10: function decreases

if x=0 then   y=-2.5*0+10=10 ==> (0,10)

if x=4 then y=-2.5*4+10=0 ==> (4,0)

Answer C

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

linear equation:

y = mx + c

m = slope or gradient

c = y-intercept, the point at which the line meets the y-axis (vertical axis)

The y-intercept of y = 10 - 2.5x is equal to 10

**in the above equation, the slope and the y-intercept have been switched. The slope can be identified as it has an x beside it, so 10 is the y-intercept

Just looking at the equation we can already rule out B, D and E. So now it's up to A and C.

Next is the slope, we can see the slope/gradient is -2.5. It is a negative value which means the line must be sloping downwards. The line in graph C is sloping down (starts high on the left and as it moves the right goes down).

So answer C. is the graph of the equation y = 10 - 2.5x and there was no need for complicated maths!

Answer:

t = -6

Step-by-step explanation:

3/8t - 3/4 =1/2t

3/8t - 3/4 = 4/8t

3/8t - 4/8t = 3/4

-1/8t = 3/4

(-8)-1/8t = 3/4(-8)

t = -6

Answer:

12(t+6)+8=4(2t-1)+2t 12t+72+8=8t-4+2t 12t-2t-8t=-72-8-4 2t=-84 2t/2=84/2 t=42

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9x7ym+b=83

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer.

Attached my answer, hope that helps...

Answer:

\(A=41.86 cm^{2}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the shaded regions= \(\frac{0}{360}* \pi [(4)^{2}-(3)^{2}]\)

\(=\frac{120}{360} *3.14*(10)(4)\\\)

\(=\frac{3.14*10*4}{3}\)

\(A=41.86 cm^{2}\)

--------------------

hope it helps...

have a great day!!

Answer:

Hello!!

Alan drove a total of 62 miles while on vacation

Step-by-step explanation:

\(111.20-43=68.20\) ÷ \(1.10=62\)

Hope this helps!!

The value of x from the information regarding the perimeter is 8.4.

Ratio demonstrates how many times one number can fit into another number. Ratios contrast two numbers by ordinarily dividing them. A/B will be the formula if one is comparing one data point (A) to another data point (B).  

This indicates that you're dividing information A by B. For instance, the ratio will be 5/10 if A is 5 and B is 10

In this case, the ratio of the perimeters are identical. Therefore, this can be illustrated thus:

7/10 = x/12.

Cross multiply

10x = 7 × 12

10x = 84

Divide

x = 84 / 10

x = 8.4

The picture is attached.

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The probability that an employee of the company is single or has a college degree is 7/5 or 1.4.

The probability that an employee of the company is single or has a college degree can be calculated using the principle of inclusion-exclusion.

From the given information, we know that there are 600 employees in total, 400 of whom have college degrees and 100 of whom are single. We are also given that 60 employees are both single and college graduates.

To find the probability that an employee is single or has a college degree, we can add the probabilities of being single and having a college degree and then subtract the probability of being both single and a college graduate, since we would be counting those employees twice.

Let's denote the event of an employee being single as S, and the event of an employee having a college degree as C. Using these notations, we can calculate the probability as follows:

P(S or C) = P(S) + P(C) - P(S and C)

P(S or C) = 100/600 + 400/600 - 60/600

P(S or C) = 1/6 + 2/3 - 1/10

P(S or C) = 5/10 + 10/10 - 1/10

P(S or C) = 14/10

P(S or C) = 7/5

Therefore, the probability that an employee of the company is single or has a college degree is 7/5 or 1.4.

In other words, there is a 1.4 probability that a randomly selected employee is either single or has a college degree.

To understand the calculation, we can break it down into individual probabilities. Out of the 600 employees, 100 are single, which gives us a probability of 100/600 or 1/6. Additionally, out of the 600 employees, 400 have college degrees, so the probability of having a college degree is 400/600 or 2/3.

However, if we simply add these probabilities, we would be counting the employees who are both single and college graduates twice. To correct this, we need to subtract the probability of being both single and a college graduate. From the given information, we know that there are 60 employees who fall into this category, which gives us a probability of 60/600 or 1/10.

By applying the principle of inclusion-exclusion, we add the probabilities of being single and having a college degree, and then subtract the probability of being both single and a college graduate to obtain the final probability of 7/5 or 1.4.

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Answer:

The line AB, with A(Ax, Ay), B(Bx, By) and midpoint M(Mx, My) satisfying:

Ax + Bx = 2Mx

Ay + By = 2My

=>

2 + Bx = 2*1

5 + By = 2*2

=> Bx = 0

=> By = -1

=> B(0, -1)

Hope this helps!

:)

Answer:

B(3, 8 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the midpoint formula

Given endpoints (x₁, y₁ ) and (x₂, y₂ ) then midpoint is

[ \(\frac{1}{2}\)(x₁ + x₂ ), \(\frac{1}{2}\)(y₁ + y₂ ) ]

let the coordinates of B = (x, y ), then

\(\frac{1}{2}\)(1 + x) = 2 ( multiply both sides by 2 )

1 + x = 4 ( subtract 1 from both sides )

x = 3

and

\(\frac{1}{2}\) (2 + y) = 5 ( multiply both sides by 2 )

2 + y = 10 ( subtract 2 from both sides )

y = 8

Thus

coordinates of B = (3, 8 )

In a long-run equilibrium in a perfectly competitive market structure, the following statement is true: Price equals the minimum average total cost (ATC).

In a perfectly competitive market, firms are price takers, meaning they have no control over the market price. In the long run, firms have the flexibility to adjust their inputs and make changes to their production processes.

In a long-run equilibrium, firms aim to maximize their profits. They will continue to adjust their production levels until they reach the point where their marginal cost (MC) equals the market price (P) and their average total cost (ATC) is minimized.

When a firm is producing at the long-run equilibrium, the price they receive for each unit of output is equal to the minimum average total cost. This condition ensures that the firm is covering all of its costs and earning normal profits in the long run.

If the price exceeds the minimum ATC, firms would have an incentive to increase production and if the price falls below the minimum ATC, firms would face losses and might consider exiting the market. Therefore, in a long-run equilibrium in a perfectly competitive market structure, the firm operates efficiently by producing at the minimum average total cost.

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Answer:

2 distance

Step-by-step explanation:

you solve it and see it's easy know first try I will do it

Answer:

x=130/3

Step-by-step explanation:

2x _5x=80_50

collect like terms calculate

-3x=-130

Divide both sides

x=130/3

OR

x=43 1/3 x=43.3

Answer:

•The prime factorization of 20 using exponents is 22*5 2 2 ∗ 5 .

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Step-by-step explanation:

gof(x)= g(f(x))

gof(x)= g(4x-1)

gof(x)= (4x-1)²+7

gof(x)=16x²-8x+1+7

gof(x)=16x²-8x+8

Step-by-step explanation:

\(\huge\underline\bold\blue{ƛƝƧƜЄƦ}\)

\(\huge\underline\bold\green{Gïvëñ}\)

[tex]\small\underline\bold\red{ v=0}\)

\(\small\underline\bold\blue{ v = u+gt}\)

\(\small\underline\bold\blue{0=20-10t}\)

\(\small\underline\bold\blue{t = 2 sec}\)

\(\huge\underline\bold\yellow{distance in first 2 second }\)

s = s(t=0 to 2 second) + s(2second to 3 second)

s = (ut+1\2(at)^2+ (ut+1\2at^2)

s = 20×2-1\2×10×4+1\2×10×1

s = 25

\(\huge\underline\bold\blue{Displacement}\)

s = 20 - 5 = 15

Hope it helps

For incompressible flow in a horizontal pipe of constant diameter and without fittings or valves, the pressure is a linear function of pipe length.

Linear function:A linear function can be defined as a function that shows a constant rate of change between input values (x) and output values (y). When we plot the graph of a linear function, it shows a straight line. The standard form of a linear function is y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.

Pressure:Pressure is defined as the force exerted per unit area. Pressure is a scalar quantity. It can be measured in units such as pascals, bars, pounds per square inch, etc.

Now let's consider the given statement for incompressible flow in a horizontal pipe of constant diameter and without fittings or valves to prove that pressure is a linear function of pipe length.

In a horizontal pipe of constant diameter, the following assumptions are made:No valves and fittings are presentFluid is incompressibleFriction is negligibleThe fluid flow is steady-state and laminarAt two points P1 and P2 along the horizontal pipe, let us assume that the fluid pressure and velocity are P1, V1 and P2, V2, respectively.

The pressure drop between the two points is given byΔP = P1 - P2The flow rate of the fluid through the pipe is given by the equation,Q = (A1V1) = (A2V2)

where, A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe.

Substituting V1 = Q/A1 and V2 = Q/A2 in ΔP = P1 - P2, we getΔP = P1 - P2 = 32μQL / πd4,

where μ is the viscosity of the fluid, L is the length of the pipe, d is the diameter of the pipe.

The above equation is called the Hagen-Poiseuille equation. It shows that pressure drop (ΔP) is proportional to the length of the pipe (L) when the other parameters such as flow rate (Q), viscosity (μ), and diameter (d) of the pipe are constant.

Thus, it can be concluded that the pressure is a linear function of pipe length.

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Answer:

I think (C2)

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope it help

Answer:

the answer is ice cream parlor and town hall

Step-by-step explanation:

because if you for 3 times right and 3 times up from ice cream parlor it will land to town hall

Answer:

60241.22

Step-by-step explanation: