Physics is confusing :(

A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains 7.5 liters of saturated liquid water at 275 kPa. An electric resistance is turned on until 3050 kJ of energy is transferred to the water.

i) The mass of water can be determined by using the specific volume of saturated liquid water at the given pressure and volume. By using the specific volume data from the steam tables, the mass of water is calculated to be 6.66 kg.

ii) To find the final enthalpy of water, we need to consider the energy added to the water. The change in enthalpy can be calculated using the energy equation Q = m(h2 - h1), where Q is the energy transferred, m is the mass of water, and h1 and h2 are the initial and final enthalpies, respectively. Rearranging the equation, we find that the final enthalpy of water is 454.55 kJ/kg.

iii) The final state and the quality (x) of water can be determined by using the final enthalpy value. The final enthalpy falls within the region of superheated vapor, indicating that the water has completely evaporated. Therefore, the final state is a superheated vapor and the quality is 1 (x = 1).

iv) The change in entropy of water can be obtained by using the entropy equation ΔS = m(s2 - s1), where ΔS is the change in entropy, m is the mass of water, and s1 and s2 are the initial and final entropies, respectively. The change in entropy is found to be 10.13 kJ/kg.

v) The process described is irreversible because the water started as a saturated liquid and ended up as a superheated vapor, indicating that irreversibilities such as heat transfer across a finite temperature difference and friction have occurred. Therefore, the process is irreversible.

On a P-v diagram, the process can be represented as a vertical line from the initial saturated liquid state to the final superheated vapor state, crossing the saturation lines.

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Answer:

because liquid and solid states of water possesses intermolecular force of attraction which held the molecules of water in fixed

The magnetic force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field can be calculated using the formula F = BIL, where F is the magnetic force, B is the magnetic field, I am the current, and L is the length of the wire. In this case, the wire is perpendicular to the magnetic field, so we can simplify the equation to F = BIL. F = 0.075 N

The magnetic force on the wire carrying a current of 0.25 A and perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.6 T is 0.075 N. It is important to note that the direction of the magnetic force is perpendicular to both the direction of the current and the direction of the magnetic field. To find the magnetic force on a wire carrying a current in a perpendicular magnetic field, we can use the following formula Magnetic Force (F) = Current (I) × Length of wire (L) × Magnetic Field (B) × sin(θ)
Here, θ is the angle between the current direction and the magnetic field. Since the wire is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the angle θ is 90 degrees. The sine of a 90-degree angle is 1, so sin(θ) = 1. Current (I) = 0.25 A Length of wire (L) = 0.5 m Magnetic Field (B) = 0.6 T Magnetic Force (F) = (0.25 A) × (0.5 m) × (0.6 T) × sin (90°) F = (0.25 A) × (0.5 m) × (0.6 T) × 1 F = 0.075 N The magnetic force on the wire is 0.075 N.

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Explanation:

The energy of a wave is given by :

\(E=\dfrac{hc}{\lambda}\)

Where

h is Planck's constant

c is the speed of light

\(\lambda\) is wavelength

Energy is inversely proportional to wavelength. Also, the relation between frequency and wavelength is inverse.

If the frequency is high, the wavelength will be shorter.

Hence, the correct options are :

Higher frequencies have shorter wavelengths.

Shorter wavelengths have lower energy.

Lower frequencies have lower energy.

A) The magnitude force required to give a helicopter of mass M an acceleration of 0.10 g upward is F = 0.981 M N.

B) The work done by the force as the helicopter moves a distance h upward is W = 0.981 Mh N.

A) The force required to give a helicopter of mass M an acceleration of 0.10 g upward can be calculated using Newton's Second Law of Motion, which states that the force applied to an object is equal to the object's mass multiplied by its acceleration. The acceleration given is 0.10g, which can be converted to meters per second squared (m/s²) as follows:

0.10 g = 0.10 × 9.81 m/s² = 0.981 m/s²

Thus, the force required can be calculated as:

F = M × a

F = M × 0.981 N

B) To calculate the work done by the force as the helicopter moves a distance h upward, we can use the formula for work done by a constant force, which is:

W = F × d × cos(θ)

where W is the work done, F is the force applied, d is the displacement, and θ is the angle between the force and the displacement vectors. In this case, the displacement is upward and the force is also upward, so θ = 0 and cos(θ) = 1.

The work done by the force as the helicopter moves a distance h upward is:

W = F × h × cos(θ)

W = F × h

Substituting the value of F from Part A, we get:

W = 0.981 M N × h

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The complete question is:

A) What magnitude force is required to give a helicopter of mass M an acceleration of 0.10 g upward? Express your answer in terms of the variable M and appropriate constants.

B) What work is done by this force as the helicopter moves a distance h upward? Express your answer in terms of the variables M,h, and appropriate constants.

A wedge is like a ramp that can work while in motion.

As a tool for raising or lowering a load, an inclined plane, also referred to as a ramp, is a flat supporting surface that is tilted at an angle from the vertical direction with one end higher than the other. One of the six traditional simple machines that Renaissance scientists defined is the inclined plane.

Heavy loads are transported over vertical obstacles using inclined planes. Examples include a ramp used to load cargo into a truck, a pedestrian ascending a ramp, or an automobile or train ascending a grade.

Less force is needed to lift an object up an inclined plane than to lift it straight up, but the distance travelled is greater. Hence, a wedge is like a ramp that can work while in motion.

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Answer:

Brightness.

Explanation:

very bright.

Light energy with very high amplitude would be perceived as very bright or intense light.

Waves with a big maximum displacement or height relate to light energy with a very high amplitude.

This large amplitude equates to a greater intensity or brightness of light in terms of perception.

When high-amplitude light waves enter our eyes, they excite light-sensitive cells, such as the cones in our retinas, more powerfully.

As a result of the increased stimulation, the sense of a bright or powerful light source is formed. The magnitude of the light's amplitude is interpreted by the human visual system as a measure of its intensity, allowing humans to distinguish between dimmer and brighter light sources.

Thus, in human visual experience, light energy with a very high amplitude is related with a heightened feeling of brightness or intensity.

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The rate constant, k, is given as 0.049 s^(-1). To find the mass of the beryllium-11 remaining after 28 seconds, we can use the exponential decay formula:

N(t) = N(0) * e^(-kt)

Where N(t) is the amount remaining at time t, N(0) is the initial amount, e is the base of natural logarithm (approximately 2.71828), k is the rate constant, and t is the time.

In this case, the initial mass, N(0), is given as 0.500 mg. We want to find the mass remaining after 28 seconds, so t = 28 seconds. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

N(28) = 0.500 * \(e^(-0.049 * 28)\)

Now we can calculate the mass remaining:

N(28) = 0.500 * \(e^(-1.372)\)

Using a scientific calculator, we find that \(e^(-1.372)\) is approximately 0.254. Therefore:

N(28) ≈ 0.500 * 0.254

N(28) ≈ 0.127 mg

So, after 28 seconds, approximately 0.127 mg of the 0.500 mg sample of beryllium-11 remains.

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Answer:

c.    1.5 s

Explanation:

i had this and i got it right

A wave with a frequency of 1000 hertz vibrates at 1000 cycles per second. Therefore, the correct answer is B) 1000 cycles per second.

Frequency refers to the number of cycles or vibrations of a wave that occur in one second. In this case, a wave with a frequency of 1000 hertz means that it completes 1000 cycles or vibrations in one second. Since the frequency is specifically 1000 hertz, it vibrates at precisely 1000 cycles per second.

When we say a wave has a frequency of 1000 hertz, it means that in one second, the wave completes 1000 cycles or vibrations. This frequency indicates the rate at which the wave oscillates or repeats its pattern.

So, if we consider a time interval of one second, during that time the wave will go through 1000 complete cycles. Each cycle represents one complete vibration of the wave, from its starting point to its peak, back to its starting point, and then to its trough.

Therefore, a wave with a frequency of 1000 hertz vibrates at a rate of 1000 cycles per second. This is why the correct answer is B) 1000 cycles per second.

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In this question, you need to determine the torque.

The formula for torque is

torque = weight * length of the lever arm in meters

Since we are given the mass of each child, we need to solve for their weights, which is found by multiplying their masses by the pull of gravity, which is 9.8 m/sec/sec.  

This gives the weight of the 20 kg child to be 196 Newtons, and the weight of the 30-kg child to be 294 Newtons.  

If the length between the 2 children is 0.5 meters, then let's say that the distance away that the heavier child is from the fulcrum is r.  

That makes the distance that the lighter child is away from the fulcrum as 0.5 - r.  

Now the sum of the torques must equal 0 if the seesaw is to remain balanced.  

Because one torque is positive and one is negative, we can move the negative one over to the other side of the equals sign making them equal to each other, which is what rotational equilibrium is all about.  

Here's our formula thus far:

196(0.5 - r) = 294r and

686 - 196r = 294r and

686 = 490r so

r = 1.4

Therefore, with the help of torque, we get, the heavier child is at the distance of 1.4 m and the lighter child is 3.5 - 1.4 = 2.1 m away.

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Answer:

The atomic mass of an element is the average mass of the atoms of an element, according to google. Sum of protons and neutrons in nucleus is the mass number and multiply by 1 amu gives you the mass of the atom

To determine if a transition from one (l=0) state to another (l=0) state is forbidden, we need to compute the expectation value of the electron's position vector, r, using wave functions for both the initial and final states.

Let's break down the vector r into its Cartesian components: r = (x, y, z).

The expectation value integral becomes:

∫ψf∗(x, y, z) ψi dτ

Since both initial and final states have l=0, the wave functions can be written as:

ψi = R_i(r)Y_0^0

ψf = R_f(r)Y_0^0

Here, R_i and R_f are the radial wave functions, and Y_0^0 represents the spherical harmonic for l=0.

Expanding the expectation value integral in Cartesian coordinates:

∫∫∫ψf∗(x, y, z) ψi dV

Since the wave functions depend only on the radial coordinate, the angular integration disappears. Therefore, the integral becomes:

∫∫∫ψf∗(r) ψi dV

Substituting the wave functions, we have:

∫∫∫R_f(r)R_i(r)Y_0^0 Y_0^0 dV

The Y_0^0 terms are constants and can be pulled out of the integral.

∫∫∫R_f(r)R_i(r) dV

The integral now represents the overlap integral of the two radial wave functions, R_f(r) and R_i(r). If the two wave functions have no overlap (orthogonal), the integral will be zero, indicating a forbidden transition.

Since both initial and final states have l=0, the radial wave functions for both states will have different forms, and their overlap integral will be zero. Therefore, a transition from one (l=0) state to another (l=0) state is indeed forbidden.

In summary, by computing the expectation value integral for the electron's position vector using wave functions for the initial and final states, we can determine if a transition is forbidden. In the case of a transition from one (l=0) state to another (l=0) state, the overlap integral of the radial wave functions is zero, indicating a forbidden transition.

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The modifications to the car design that would have the greatest effect on increasing the kinetic energy of the car is to increase the mass of the car slightly (option B).

Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object because of its motion. The kinetic energy equal (nonrelativistically) to one half the mass of the body times the square of its speed.

According to this question, an engineer is designing a small toy car that will be launched from rest. The engineer wants to maximize the kinetic energy of the car when it is launched by a compressed spring.

However, he can only make one adjustment to the initial conditions of the car. Considering the fact that the mass of an object is directly proportional to the kinetic energy.

This suggests that the modifications to the car design that would have the greatest effect on increasing the kinetic energy of the car is to increase the mass of the car slightly.

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Answer:

Energy

Explanation:

One ways of stating the law of conservation of energy is that "you cannot get more energy from a machine than the amount of energy you put into it".

The law of conservation of energy states that in a system, energy is neither created nor destroyed but transformed from one form to another.

The energy in a system does not increase based on the premise of this law.

Answer:

The atoms ,molecules, or compound present at the start of a chemical reaction that parcitipate in the reaction are the reactants.

Explanation:

The chemical reaction is the way in which one substance reacts against another. So, a chemical reaction consists of the transformation of some substances into others, that is, the process of arranging atoms and bonds when chemical substances come into contact.

In a chemical reaction, the initial substances are called reactants, while the new substances obtained are called products.

So, the atoms ,molecules, or compound present at the start of a chemical reaction that parcitipate in the reaction are the reactants.

Answer:

59g

Explanation:

The tennis ball with a velocity of 18 m/s and momentum of 1.06 kg m/s then the mass of the tennis ball in grams will be 59 grams (approx) two significant figures.

Regardless of the frame of reference, momentum is a conserved quantity in any inertial frame, which means that if an enclosed system is not subject to outside influences, its total linear momentum remains constant.

Additionally, momentum is preserved in general relativity, electrodynamics, quantum mechanics, quantum field theory, and special relativity (using a modified formula). It is a manifestation of translational symmetry, one of the basic symmetries of space and time.

According to the question, the given values are :

Velocity, v = 18 m/s

Momentum, p = 1.06 kg m/s

p = m × v

1.06 kg m/s = m × 18 m/s

m = 1.06 / 18

m = 0.0589 kg or

m = 58.9 grams or 59 grams approx in two significant figures.

So, the mass will be 59 grams.

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Given the amount of work done in pushing the car over the given distance, the amount of force applied is 2400 Newtons.

Work done is simply defined as the energy transfer that takes place when an object is either pushed or pulled over a certain distance by an external force. It is expressed as;

W = F × d

Where f is force applied and d is distance travelled.

Given that;

W = F × d

60000kgm²/s² = F × 25m

F = 60000kgm²/s² ÷ 25m

F = 2400kgm/s²

F = 2400N

Given the amount of work done in pushing the car over the given distance, the amount of force applied is 2400 Newtons.

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Air temperature represents the average speed of air molecules, which means that as the temperature rises, the average speed of air molecules also increases. This is because the temperature is directly related to the kinetic energy of the molecules that make up the air.

When molecules are heated, they gain energy and move faster, leading to an increase in temperature.

Similarly, when the average speed of air molecules decreases, the temperature will decrease as well. This can occur when the air is cooled, causing the molecules to lose energy and slow down. The temperature of the air is a direct reflection of the average kinetic energy of the air molecules.

It is important to note that air temperature is not the same as heat, which is the total amount of energy contained within a substance. Rather, the temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance. So, when we talk about temperature, we are specifically referring to the average speed of the air molecules.

In summary, the relationship between air temperature and the average speed of air molecules is direct and proportional. As the average speed of air molecules increases, so does the temperature, and as the average speed of air molecules decreases, so does the temperature.

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A disturbance that causes particles to move closer together or farther apart in the same direction that the wave is moving is called a compressional or longitudinal wave. In this type of wave, the particles of the medium oscillate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

As the wave travels through the medium, regions of compression and rarefaction are created. During compression, the particles are pushed closer together, resulting in an area of higher pressure. Conversely, during rarefaction, the particles spread farther apart, leading to an area of lower pressure.

Compressional waves are commonly observed in mediums such as air, liquids, and solids. Examples of compressional waves include sound waves, where the compression and rarefaction of air particles generate variations in air pressure that our ears perceive as sound.

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Maximum heigh: 1.496 m

(This number is not exacte I truncated it)

Explanation:

Data:

mass : m = 0.003 kg

spring constant : k = 220 N/m

amount of compression: x = 2 cm = 0.02 m

heigh : h = ?

accelaratiom due to gravity : g = 9.8ms^-2

Potential Energy : PE = ?

Since you'll be converting the PE to KE, you'll use 2 formulas.

Formulas:

Solution:

Only 3% of the incident sound energy would be transmitted into the fluid, and the rest would be reflected back to the air. The amount of sound intensity transmitted into the fluid can be calculated using the transmission coefficient.

If sound waves were to pass directly from air to the liquid in the cochlea without any middle ear mechanism, a significant amount of sound energy would be reflected back to the air. This is because of the difference in acoustic impedance between air and liquid. The acoustic impedance is the product of the density of the medium and the speed of sound in that medium.

Air has a much lower density and a higher speed of sound compared to the liquid in the cochlea. This mismatch in impedance causes reflection of the sound waves and a decrease in the amount of sound transmitted to the liquid.

The transmission coefficient is the ratio of the intensity of the transmitted sound wave to the intensity of the incident sound wave. It depends on the difference in acoustic impedance between the two media. In the case of air and liquid, the transmission coefficient is very small, only about 0.03.

This means that only 3% of the incident sound energy would be transmitted into the fluid, and the rest would be reflected back to the air. This is why the middle ear mechanism, consisting of the eardrum and three tiny bones (the malleus, incus, and stapes), is necessary to match the impedance of the air and the fluid in the cochlea, and to efficiently transmit sound energy to the inner ear.

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Answer:

The magnetic field through the wire must be changing

Explanation:

According to Faraday's law, the induced emf, ε in a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux,Φ  through it. This is stated mathematically as ε = dΦ/dt.

Now for the wire, the magnetic flux through it is given by Φ = ABcosθ where A = cross-sectional area of wire, B = magnetic field and θ = angle between A and B.

So, dΦ/dt = dABcosθ/dt

Since A and B are constant,

dΦ/dt = ABdcosθ/dt = -(dθ/dt)ABsinθ

Since dθ/dt implies a change in the angle between A and B, since A is constant, it implies that B must be rotating.

So, for an electric current (or voltage) to be produced in the wire, the magnetic field must be rotating or changing.

The magnitude of the radial acceleration of pendulum is 25 rad/s²

Acceleration can be defined as the rate change of velocity with time.

acceleration a = (Δv) / (Δt)

The centripetal acceleration or radial acceleration for the pendulum is given by

a = v²/r

Given is the radius = cord length of pendulum =1m and the velocity v = 5m/s, then the acceleration will be

a = (5)² /1

a = 25 rad/s²

Thus, the radial acceleration is 25 rad/s²

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The S.I. unit of E is NC^-1 and that of B is NA^-1 m^-1, then unit of E/B is A m/C (ampere meter per coulomb). This unit represents the ratio between the electric field and the magnetic field, indicating the strength and direction of the electromagnetic field.

The SI unit of electric field (E) is NC^(-1) (newton per coulomb) and the SI unit of magnetic field (B) is NA^(-1) m^(-1) (tesla). To determine the unit of E/B, we need to divide the unit of E by the unit of B.

Dividing the unit of E (NC^(-1)) by the unit of B (NA^(-1) m^(-1)), we can simplify the expression:

E/B = (NC^(-1))/(NA^(-1) m^(-1))

To simplify this expression, we can cancel out the common units in the numerator and denominator:

E/B = (N/C)/(N/(A m))

Now, let's simplify further by dividing the numerator and denominator:

E/B = (N/C) * (A m/N)

Canceling out the common units:

E/B = (A m)/(C)

Therefore, the unit of E/B is A m/C (ampere meter per coulomb).

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The momentum of block A is calculated by multiplying its mass (2 kg) with its velocity (50 m/s). Therefore, the momentum of block A is 100 kg·m/s.

Momentum is a fundamental concept in physics that quantifies the motion of an object. It is defined as the product of an object's mass and its velocity. In this case, block A has a mass of 2 kg and is moving along the positive x-axis with a speed of 50 m/s. To find the momentum, we multiply the mass and velocity: 2 kg * 50 m/s = 100 kg·m/s.

Momentum represents the quantity of motion possessed by an object and accounts for both its mass and how fast it is moving. The larger the mass or velocity, the greater the momentum. When considering momentum, direction is also crucial, as it is a vector quantity. In this scenario, since the block is moving along the positive x-axis, the momentum is positive.

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Answer:

The time it takes for the jet to reach landing speed is approximately 0.136 hours which is approximately 489 seconds

The landing speed is approximately 466.365 km/hr

Explanation:

The given parameters are;

The initial cruising speed of the jet = Mach 0.79 = 844 km/hr

The rate of speed reduction in the last 89 km = -2780 km/hr²

The distance it  takes the jet to reduce its speed for landing = 89 km

Given the above information,  we make use of the following equation of motion;

s = u·t - 1/2·a·t²

v² = u² - 2·a·s

Where;

s = The distance over which the acceleration (deceleration) is applied = 89 km

u = The initial velocity = 844 km/hr

t = The time taken for the accelerating/decelerating motion

v = The final velocity (landing speed)

Substituting the values gives;

v² = 844² - 2·(2780)·89 = 217496

v = √217496 = 466.365 km/hr

v ≈ 466.365 km/hr

Therefore, the landing speed, v  ≈ 466.365 km/hr

The time it takes is given by the equation, v = u - a·t

Therefore;

t = (u - v)/a = (844 - 466.365)/2780 ≈ 0.136 hours

The time it takes for the jet to reach landing speed ≈ 0.136 hours

From, s = u·t - 1/2·a·t², we have

89 = 844·t - 1/2 × 2780 × t²

89 = 844·t - 1390 × t²

1390 × t² - 844·t + 89 = 0

Solving with an online application gives;

t = 211/695 + (√(27187/2))/695 = 0.4715 hours or t = 211/695 - (√(27187/2))/695 = 0.136 hours

We note that the second time is for the time it will take the jet to get back to 89 km after reaching a speed of 0

Therefore, the correct time is t = 0.136 hours

The time it takes for the jet to reach landing speed ≈ 0.136 hours