peter has already determined his total daily calories (2,500) protein (640) calories, and fat intake (750 calories). his next step is to determine how many calories from carbohydrates he should eat. peter is sticking with a 2,500-calorie diet to help lose some weight. how many calories of carbohydrate should he consume? nasm
Answers
He should consume 278 grams of calories of carbohydrate per day.
Typically, cutting back on carbohydrates causes a drop in appetite and weight that either happens automatically or happens without calorie counting.Some people discover that they can eat until they are stuffed, feel full, and yet lose weight when they follow a low-carb diet.Different daily carbohydrate intakes are recommended for weight loss depending on a person's age, body type, and level of exercise.Carbohydrate target calories = total daily calories - protein calories - fat calories
Carbohydrate target calories = 2,500 - 640 (protein) - 750 (fat)
= 1,110
Carbohydrate target = 1,110 calories
Carbohydrates in grams = 1,110 calories / 4 calories per gram
= 278 grams of carbohydrate per day
Hence, he should consume 278 grams of calories of carbohydrate per day.
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Related Questions
A client has been prescribed rabeprazole (aciphex). it will be important for the nurse to assess the client's drug history to determine if the client is taking which drug?
Answers
It will be important for the nurse to assess the client's drug history to determine if the client is taking Digoxin drug. Option C is correct.
Digoxin should be evaluated by the nurse. Digoxin's serum concentration rises as a result of a rabeprazole-digoxin interaction. When these drugs are given together, it is important to keep an eye out for signs of digoxin toxicity. Metoclopramide can interact negatively with dicyclomine hydrochloride, morphine, and levodopa.
Digoxin is a treatment for heart failure, certain arrhythmias, and abortion. It belongs to the drug class known as cardiac glycosides. Digoxin's uses, side effects, and contraindications are discussed in this article as a useful treatment for heart failure and certain arrhythmias.
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Complete question as follows:
A client has been prescribed rabeprazole (Aciphex). It will be important for the nurse to assess the client's drug history to determine if the client is taking which drug?
A. Levodopa
B. Morphine
C. Digoxin
D. Dicyclomine hydrochloride
How many examination rooms must be wheelchair accessible?
Answers
There should be two examination rooms with space on opposite sides for wheelchair accessible.
The path from the waiting area to the room should be at least 900 mm wide and clear.
The entry door should open to 900mm and have a 900mm clear door width.
Within, there should be adequate space for wheelchair turning, accessible hardware, an accessible weighing scale to weigh a wheelchair, an examination table that can be lowered to 400mm to 500mm, accessible equipment, grab bars, and positioning aids, and so on. Within the room, a wheelchair turning space of 1500mm diameter is required.
A sufficient amount of open space is necessary in the room for the use of patient lift equipment and patient transfers. An space of at least 750 mmX1250 mm along at least one side of an adjustable examination table is required for this.
Whenever feasible, there should be adequate room on both sides of the examination table for simple transfer from either side that is comfortable to the patient based on his handedness or handicap. Another option is to have two examining rooms on opposing ends of the room. All controls, such as door knobs and light switches, must be reachable and operable with a closed fist.
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Medicare allowed $77 for Mrs. Ross’s office visit on 02/03/20XX; however, it paid nothing toward this charge. Explain why Medicare did not pay 80% of this service.
Answers
There could be several reasons why Medicare did not pay 80% of the office visit charge for Mrs. Ross. Here are some possible explanations:
Deductible: Medicare has an annual deductible that needs to be met before it starts covering services. If Mrs. Ross had not met her deductible for that year, Medicare would not have paid anything towards the charge. Coinsurance: Medicare typically covers 80% of the approved amount for covered services. However, the remaining 20% is usually the responsibility of the patient as coinsurance. If Mrs. Ross had not paid her share of the coinsurance, Medicare would not have paid its portion either.
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Which individual is qualified to apply for the Certification Examination for Diabetes Educators?
Answers
Answer:
B) a registered nurse who works with diabetes patients
Explanation:
Diabetes is a serious disease that affects much of the population. People with this disease need to be treated and educated by a healthcare professional who has experience in treating patients with this disease.
To be a diabetes educator you must be an experienced healthcare professional who works in this field and aims to help patients better and better. For this reason, we can state that among the options shown in the question above, the one that shows someone who may request the diabetes educator certification exam is the letter B.
If one half of the DNA ladder is above sequence, what is the other side of the ladder’s DNA sequence?
Answers
With whom can patient health information (PHI) be shared without the patient's permission?
Answers
Patient health information (PHI) can be shared without the patient's permission in certain situations, such as with healthcare providers directly involved in the patient's care or for billing and administrative purposes.
Patient health information (PHI) is protected under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and can only be shared with others under specific circumstances. Healthcare providers who are directly involved in the patient's care, such as nurses and doctors, are permitted to access and share PHI without the patient's permission in order to provide treatment. PHI may also be shared for billing and administrative purposes, such as submitting insurance claims. In addition, PHI may be shared with public health authorities or law enforcement officials in certain situations, such as when reporting communicable diseases or suspected cases of abuse or neglect. However, in most other circumstances, patient consent is required before their PHI can be shared.
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Semi-Fowler’s position is maintained for at least which timeframe following completion of an intermittent tube feeding?
a) 2 hours
b) 1 hour
c) 90 minutes
d) 30 minutes
Answers
Option D. Semi-Fowler’s position is maintained for at least 30 minutes following completion of an intermittent tube feeding.
Semi-Fowler's position is a comfortable patient position that is often utilized in nursing care.
A semi-Fowler's position is an inclined position with the head and trunk elevated between 15 and 45 degrees.
It may be accomplished by placing a pillow under the patient's head or by raising the head of the bed on which the patient is lying.
During feeding, a patient should be in a semi-Fowler position for at least 30 minutes following completion of an intermittent tube feeding.
After feeding, patients should be positioned properly to avoid aspiration pneumonia, which occurs when the contents of the stomach enter the lungs via the trachea. As a result, the head of the bed should be elevated.
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How can understanding the information processing model help you to be a better nurse? Give a specific example of how you can improve health care delivery by understanding this model.
Answers
Understanding the information processing model will help me to be a better nurse because
It will enable me to understand and keep up with the latest health needs of patients. I will also be able to make the required recommendations based on the received information.A specific example of how I can improve healthcare delivery by understanding the model is
The aspect of rendering patient-centered care. When I understand the information processing model, I will know how important it is to record and keep up to date with the choices of patients. That way, I will avoid legal suits that arise from not respecting the wishes of patients.The information processing model consists of six steps which are
receiving information,
disseminating information,
amending and upgrading records,
actioning the recommendations from the hospital,
scanning information, and
providing the patient with feedback.
A proper understanding of this model will help nurses to effect timely healthcare delivery, acquaint doctors with the correct records of patients and render patient-centered care.
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A health care professional on a surgical unit notices that a colleague has been acting strangely, forgetting things, and leaving the unit frequently for long periods of time. The narcotic count has been incorrect several times over the past few weeks, and this occurs whenever the colleague is working. What should the health care professional do
Answers
Answer:
I would report it so it can be investigated, but also ask him/ her some questions that might get to the bottom of the problem but don't get personal
Explanation:
How many extra reps should you be able to perform with perfect technique before increasing the weight for a particular strength training exercise
Answers
5 - 8 reps should you be able to perform with perfect technique before increasing the weight for a particular strength training exercise.
What is reps and strength training exercise?Reps, or repetitions as they are sometimes called, are the actions of one full strength training exercise, such as one biceps curl.In between rest times, you perform sets of a certain number of reps.For muscle hypertrophy (increased growth), the American College of Sports Medicine advises 4 to 6 repetitions with greater weight, 8 to 12 repetitions for muscle strength, and 10 to 15 repetitions for muscle endurance.The National Strength and Conditioning Association (NSCA) claims that performing 2 to 6 sets of 6 or less reps (with 2 to 5 minutes of rest in between) or performing 1 to 3 sets of 8 or fewer reps are the optimal reps and sets for strength (with roughly 90 seconds to 2 minutes of rest in between).Learn more about weight here:
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_____ strengthens the contraction of the heart muscle, slows the heart rate, and helps eliminate fluid from body tissues.
Answers
The effects of digitalis include a reduction in heart rate, assistance with fluid removal from bodily tissues, and improved heart muscle contraction.
Additionally, the majority of patients were being treated for heart failure using angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and diuretics.
How does the medication digitalis work?Congestive heart failure (CHF) and issues with cardiac rhythm are both treated with digitalis (atrial arrhythmias). Your body's blood flow can be improved with digitalis, and the swelling in your hands and ankles can be reduced.
Is digitalis a kind of digoxin?Digoxin, also known as Digitalis, is a drug used to treat several types of heart problems. It is also marketed under the trade names Lanoxin and other names. One of the first drugs utilized in the field of cardiology was digoxin.Digoxin is no longer utilized, why?Digoxin's narrow therapeutic index and need for constant monitoring make its use restricted. Digoxin can result in a variety of negative side effects and interact with several medications.
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Which of the following serves as the catalyst for
initiating photosynthesis?
O cartenoid
O electrons
O sunlight
chlorophyll
Answers
Answer:
c sunlight acts as a catalyst for initiating photosynthesis
Answer:
Sunlight Chlorophyll
Explanation:
This is used in initializing photosynthesis because a catalyst is something that reduces the activation energy required for a collision to take place and it must not be consumed during the process of chemical reaction as well so the answer is sunlight chlorophyll.
Order: ABC 750 mg po. Stock: ABC 1500 mg po scored tablets. You would need to give 0.5 of a tablet.
● True
● False
Answers
Assuming they were both released in the same method (i.e. one wasn’t XR or IR).
is it true/false that Medical professionals may wear light cologne or perfume?
Answers
A 19 year old patient sitting in the waiting room experiences a grand mal seizure. What should cheryl the medical assistant do to prevent injury to the patient. After the seizure the patient needs to be placed in the recovery position maintain her airway. Explain how to place her in this position.
Answers
Answer:
Protect them from injury by helping them to the floor and clearing away furniture or other items. Do not put anything in their mouth as it could lead to injury. Do not try to stop their movements. You may remove eyeglasses or other items that could cause injury. Time the seizure, call 9-1-1 if it lasts longer than 5 minutes. Reassure them and try to help them stay calm . Gently help them roll onto their side and push the angle of the jaw forward to assist with breathing, this is the recovery position
Explanation:
CPT Surgery Codes
Choose a musculoskeletal, respiratory, cardiovascular, hemic, or lymphatic procedure from your CPT manual. Using the Internet, your textbook, and the CPT manual as references, write a brief description of the procedure (including the possible diagnoses that would warrant the procedure) and assign the appropriate ICD10-CM and CPT surgery codes.
Answers
Description: Total knee arthroplasty is a surgical procedure that involves the replacement of a damaged or worn knee joint with an artificial joint. It is typically performed on patients who have severe arthritis or other conditions that cause chronic knee pain and stiffness. During the procedure, the surgeon removes the damaged cartilage and bone from the knee joint and replaces it with a prosthetic implant.
Possible Diagnoses: Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, traumatic injury to the knee joint, avascular necrosis of the knee
ICD10-CM Code: M17.1 - Unilateral primary osteoarthritis, knee
M06.9 - Rheumatoid arthritis, unspecified
CPT Surgery Code: 27447 - Arthroplasty, knee, condyle and plateau; medial or lateral compartment
Arthroscopic knee surgery is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to diagnose and treat various knee joint conditions.
Example Procedure: Arthroscopic Knee Surgery
Description: Arthroscopic knee surgery is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to diagnose and treat various knee joint conditions. It involves inserting a small camera called an arthroscope through small incisions around the knee joint. The surgeon can visualize the structures inside the knee, such as ligaments, cartilage, and menisci, on a monitor and perform necessary repairs or treatments.
Possible Diagnoses:
Meniscal tears or injuriesLigament tears (e.g., ACL, PCL, MCL, LCL)Knee cartilage (articular cartilage) damage or defectsLoose bodies (small fragments of bone or cartilage) in the knee jointSynovitis (inflammation of the synovial membrane lining the joint)Knee osteoarthritisICD-10-CM Code: The specific ICD-10-CM code would depend on the patient's diagnosis. For example, if the procedure is performed to treat a meniscal tear, the ICD-10-CM code might be S83.2XXA (Unspecified tear of the medial meniscus, current injury, initial encounter).
CPT Surgery Code: The CPT surgery code for arthroscopic knee surgery would depend on the specific procedure performed. For instance, a common CPT code for arthroscopic meniscectomy (partial removal of the meniscus) might be 29881 (Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; with meniscectomy).
Please remember that medical coding is a highly specialized and complex field, and it is essential to consult qualified healthcare professionals and the latest coding resources for accurate and up-to-date coding information.
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Where should an SDS binder be kept?
Answers
Explanation:
Stored in a location that all staff can access during work hours.
Answer:
in a work room
Explanation:
not too far away from where it's needed
Okay guys please 1-10
Answers
goolduck !!
have a good day <3
Wish I could have the skills to do that :(
During a biceps curl, the triceps play what role in contraction?
a.Antagonist
B.Assistant
c. Prime mover
d.Agonist
Answers
Answer:
A. Antagonist
Explanation:
The triceps, acting in opposition, is called the antagonist. Because the two muscles are located on opposite sides of the arm, the triceps must relax enough to allow the biceps to tense and contract during a curl. As it contracts, it shortens. As the triceps relaxes, it lengthens. (google)
A/An is a type of blood cell that's also called a red blood cell. a) Jeukocyte O b) thrombocyte c) plasma d) erythrocyte
Answers
Answer:
red blood cell, also called erythrocyte,
Explanation:
Hope it helps
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True or False: FLATTER base curves (ie. 4.00 base rather than 6.00 base) give BETTER optical quality
Answers
Answer:
False
Flatter base curves (i.e. smaller numbers like 4.00 base) have a broader field of view, but they also cause more distortion towards the lens's corners. Steeper base curves (i.e. greater numbers like 6.00 base) have less distortion but a narrower range of view. The best base curve is determined by the individual's prescription and the frame type.
Which disease or disorder occurs when the pancreas stops producing insulin?
gestational diabetes
type 1 diabetes
hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism
Answers
Answer:
type 1 diabetes.......
I have a good relationship with my provider I feel a strong connection with my provider I am very committed to my provider Overall, I am very satisfied with my provider I would strongly recommend my provider to a friend
Answers
The relationship between a patient and their healthcare provider plays a crucial role in the patient's overall experience.
Having a good relationship with your healthcare provider is vital in ensuring a positive healthcare experience.
It provides a level of comfort and trust that enables patients to share their concerns and feel heard.
In this case, it is evident that you have established an excellent rapport with your provider.
Having a strong connection with your healthcare provider is a reflection of mutual respect, honesty, and effective communication.
It allows for better decision-making and shared responsibility in your care.
When patients and providers are committed to one another, they work together to achieve the best possible outcome for the patient's health.
Patient satisfaction is a measure of how well healthcare providers meet patients' expectations, and it is closely tied to the quality of care received.
Being satisfied with your healthcare provider is an essential component of healthcare experience.
If patients are satisfied, they are more likely to continue seeking care and will recommend their provider to others.
In conclusion, A patient who is satisfied with their provider is more likely to continue seeking care and recommend their provider to others.
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Which Gestalt law of organization is BEST demonstrated in this image?
A.
law of harmony
B.
law of closure
C.
law of proximity
D.
law of similarity
Answers
The law of similarity, the Gestalt law of organization is best demonstrated in this image. Therefore, the correct option is D.
According to the Gestalt psychology principle, the law of similarity, people tend to think of objects as similar to each other. According to this theory, objects with similar characteristics are grouped together by our visual system. When two or more of these characteristics are shared by objects, it is assumed that they belong to the same class or group.
For example, the law of similarity predicts that if you have a collection of circles and squares of different sizes, you will probably see circles as one group and squares as another group.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Whats he common goal of ONC, NHIN, RHIOs, HIEs, SNOs, RECs, ACOs, and CCHIT
Answers
Answer:
electronic sharing of patient health care data among care providers
Explanation:
a nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism about the prescribed heparin therapy. the nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the client states heparin is given to
Answers
The client states that heparin is given to prevent blood clots and promote blood flow. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for the treatment and prevention of blood clots, including those associated with conditions such as pulmonary embolism.
When a client has a pulmonary embolism, it means that there is a blood clot in one of the arteries in the lungs, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The nurse's teaching regarding heparin therapy aims to educate the client about the medication's purpose and how it works.
By stating that heparin is given to prevent blood clots and promote blood flow, the client demonstrates an understanding of the medication's therapeutic effects. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots and preventing existing clots from getting larger. It helps to keep the blood flowing smoothly, reducing the risk of further complications.
In addition to teaching about heparin therapy, the nurse would also educate the client about potential side effects, signs of bleeding, dosage instructions, and the importance of regular monitoring of blood clotting factors. It is crucial for the client to understand the prescribed heparin therapy to ensure compliance and reduce the risk of complications associated with pulmonary embolism.
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administrative security federal medical center with an adjacent minimum security satellite camp. True or false
Answers
True, administrative security federal medical center with an adjacent minimum security satellite camp.
What level of security are there at federal facilities?The five institutional types that make up the federal prison system are minimum, low, medium, high (the most secure), and administrative. Institutions with minimum security, sometimes known as "federal prison camps," are made for criminals who do not present a risk of violence or escape.
What three degrees of security are there?Security controls are divided into three main categories. These include physical security controls as well as managerial security and operational security measures.
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A gland that secrets a hormone that regulates the body's use of calcium
Answers
Answer:
Parathyroid gland secrets a hormone called parathyroid hormone or parathormone (PTH) which regulates calcium usage in our body.
Hope it helps!
Answer:
parathyroid gland
Explanation:
The parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH) which is responsible for monitoring blood calcium levels by mobilizing calcium reserves in the bone, increasing intestinal absorption and increasing renal excretion. Another hormone involved in regulated Ca blood levels is calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland. It lowers Ca blood levels by increasing its deposition in the bone.
Mohammad’s mother brought the completed new patient forms to the office for this appointment. During Mohammad’s pre-exam interview, it becomes obvious that there are some inconsistencies between what his Mother entered in the social and sexual history areas and what he is now telling you. How should this be handled?
Answers
Answer:
Kindly check explanation
Explanation:
Inconsistent data might affect the process to be followed, output and ultimately the effectiveness of a diagnosis. Inconsistencies occurs when the inputted patient's data conflicts with each other (that is data supplied in a certain segment does not coincide with the other). Due to the conflicting details brought in by Mohammad's mother and the details being given by Muhammad himself. At this point, it is wsse Tila to have them both on sit, then take the questions again in other to address the discrepancies.
4
1 point
The fibrous protein that makes up most of the hair is called ?
Answers
Answer:
Keratin
Explanation:
It forms the main structural component.