Answers
The National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research (NIDCR) aims to promote the general health of the American people by advancing research, education, and training related to dental, oral, and craniofacial health.
The National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial's mission is to promote the general health of the American people by advancing oral, dental, and craniofacial research and education, and promoting the prevention and treatment of oral and craniofacial diseases and conditions. This ultimately contributes to improving the overall health and well-being of the American people.
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Related Questions
Lana is a support specialist who evaluates candidates for jobs in the fire department. she provides instructions to the seven new recruits about the challenging course they must complete before entering the program. watching the recruits as they successfully scale the walls and obstacles set out before them, what deduction will lana most likely make as to their prior fitness level? a. the recruits have only recently begun to engage in regular exercise. b. the recruits are naturally fit because of their young age and health. c. the recruits lead an active, physically fit lifestyle already. d. the recruits have likely never exercised before this program.
Answers
Firefighters that work full-time for the fire department typically cover urban regions.
On-call responders known as retained firefighters typically serve remote areas. Typically, you'll be within five minutes or one mile of the fire station where you live or work, and you'll be available to answer pagers when an emergency call comes in. Either you'll work for yourself or for a company that will let you leave work right away to attend to an emergency.
Responsibilities Firefighters do a variety of duties. While some of them are daily tasks, others are less regular. They consist of:
reacting swiftly and safely to aid requests and emergency calls
attending to emergency situations such as fires, car accidents, floods, terrorist attacks, spills of hazardous materials, and train and airplane disasters
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Answer:
The recruits have only recently begun to engage in regular exercise.
Explanation:
Select the better estimate of the width of a teacher's desk. The better estimate of the width of the desk is 10 meters or 1 meter
Answers
Answer:
The answer is 1 meter because the 10 meters will be too long for a desk to be used by one person which is a teacher in this case. For a single person, one meter is a better estimate than 10.
A 10 meter wide table cen be used for a conference table where a lot of people can share the space .
Make a table where you clearly explain the stanley coren test vs the campbel test (canines)
Answers
Here is a table comparing the Stanley Coren Test and the Campbell Test for assessing canine intelligence:
Stanley Coren Test Campbell Test
Creator Stanley Coren David Campbell
Intelligence Categories Instinctive, Adaptive, & Working Intelligence Achievement and Aptitude
Assessment Method Owner survey Trainer assessment
Purpose Identify breed traits, suitability for certain activities Assess trainability, aptitude for various roles
Number of Tasks 138 10
Complexity of Tasks Simple Complex
Time to Complete Approx. 20 minutes 30 minutes to hours
Results Quantitative (score out of 60) Qualitative (ranking of 10)
Criticisms May not accurately reflect true intelligence, may be influenced by owner biases May not fully capture the range of a dog's abilities
Popularity Widely used and recognized Less well-known
In summary, the Stanley Coren Test and Campbell Test are two different approaches to assessing canine intelligence. The Stanley Coren Test uses an owner survey and evaluates dogs in three categories of intelligence, while the Campbell Test is conducted by a trainer and assesses dogs' trainability and aptitude for various roles through a series of complex tasks. While both tests have their strengths and weaknesses, they are both useful tools for understanding a dog's abilities and potential
Sharp, stabbing chest pain related to pericarditis.
Etiology
Finding
Answers
Pericarditis is a medical condition in which the pericardium, a thin sac that surrounds the heart, becomes inflamed. One of the most common symptoms of pericarditis is sharp, stabbing chest pain. This pain is often described as a sudden, intense pain that may radiate to the shoulders, back, or abdomen.
The exact cause of pericarditis is often unknown, but it can be related to a viral or bacterial infection, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. Other symptoms of pericarditis may include fever, difficulty breathing, coughing, and fatigue.If you are experiencing sharp chest pain related to pericarditis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Your healthcare provider will likely perform a physical exam and order tests such as an electrocardiogram or echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes of chest pain.Treatment for pericarditis typically involves medications such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine, or corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, hospitalization may be necessary for monitoring and more aggressive treatment.In summary, sharp, stabbing chest pain is a common symptom of pericarditis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardium. Seek medical attention if you experience chest pain, as timely diagnosis and treatment are important for managing this condition.
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How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Answers
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
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which of the following is not a natural ligand that binds to G protein
Answers
Answer:
Some girls in a Girl Scout troop are pairing up with some boys in a Boy Scout troop to practice square dancing. Two-thirds of the girls are paired with three-fifths of the boys. What fraction of the scouts are square dancing? (Each pair is one Girl Scout and one Boy Scout. The pairs are only from these two troops.)
Explanation:
Some girls in a Girl Scout troop are pairing up with some boys in a Boy Scout troop to practice square dancing. Two-thirds of the girls are paired with three-fifths of the boys. What fraction of the scouts are square dancing? (Each pair is one Girl Scout and one Boy Scout. The pairs are only from these two troops.)
Select the correct answer.
Dr. Smith and Dr. Walters are leading a team in charge of deciding which new MRI equipment to purchase. They are helping build consensus. What
should be obtained when building consensus?
A. a deadline
B. a report
C. a compromise
D. a milestone
E. an option
Answers
According to the given statement a report should be obtained when building consensus.
What equipment is used in MRI?Large, magnetized tubes make up the majority of MRI equipment. The magnetic field in an MRI scanner causes your body's water molecules to momentarily rearrange. These aligned atoms emit tiny signals that are utilized to make cross-sectional MRI pictures, which resemble the slices of bread.
What are the MRI's fundamental tenets and equipment?Protons inside the body are forced to align with the magnetic field created by the strong magnets used in MRI machines. The protons are activated and spun out of equilibrium when a microwave current is pulsed through the person, which causes them to struggle against the magnetic field.
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Do you agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones’s meal could not explain his improved performance?
Answers
Answer:I agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones's meal could not explain his improved performance because, food can´t change anything except for your hungriness, and the more food you eat the more fat you get, and not slim.
Explanation:
Yes, I completely agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones’s meal could not explain his improved performance.
How your performance relates to the meal?Your performance relates to the meal but does not depend on it. This is because meal only provides you energy for physical as well as metabolic actiovities. But it does not mean if you do not get the meal of your wish, it impacts your performance and overall activity greatly.
According to the context of this question, a meal only gives you strength in order to perform your daily activities along with your jobs. But alterations in that could not explain or illustrates anyone's improved or reduced performances. Because other factors are also responsible for this happening.
Therefore, I completely agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones’s meal could not explain his improved performance.
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Cells that produce and accumulate protein in the epidermis
Answers
Answer: Keratinocytes
Explanation:
can a consumer who qualifies for low income subsidy receive financial assistance for their part of medicare part d cost?
Answers
Answer:
Individuals with incomes up to 150 percent of the federal poverty level can receive help with their Part D costs for premiums, deductibles and co-pays through the Part D Low Income Subsidy (known as “LIS” or “Extra Help”), which is administered by the Social Security Administration.
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:Through subsidies that offer lower or no cost monthly premiums and lower or no cost copays
communication is the interchange of information through thoughts, feelings, messages, or perceptions as by speech, gestures, writing, or behavior. the elements of the sender-receiver process include?
Answers
Communication means transferring thoughts, information, emotion and ideas through gesture, voice, symbols, signs and expressions from one person to another, communication process they are Sender, Receiver and the Channel.
what is communication ?Communication is a two-way process where it involves transfer of information or messages from one person or group to another.
This process goes on and includes a minimum of one sender and receiver to pass on the messages, it can either be any ideas, imagination, emotions, or thoughts.
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5. the nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. the client asks the nurse how this can happen. the nurse's response is based on the understanding that: a. a bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area b. an injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment c. bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand d. the fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles
Answers
The correct answer is C. Compartment syndrome occurs when bleeding and swelling increase pressure within a compartment that cannot expand,
Leading to decreased blood flow to tissues within the compartment. This can result in tissue damage and even necrosis if not promptly addressed. In the case of a severely fractured arm, the pressure may increase within the compartment due to bleeding and swelling, leading to compartment syndrome.
The priority nursing interventions for a client with compartment syndrome include close monitoring of neurovascular status, frequent assessments of the affected limb for signs of further swelling or changes in sensation, and ensuring that the affected limb is elevated to reduce swelling. Urgent medical intervention may be required to relieve the pressure and restore blood flow if compartment syndrome is suspected.
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Cognitive behavioural therapy has an excellent record of success, particularly in
the treatment of ____.
Answers
Answer:
depression, anxiety, ptsd, phobias, eating disorders, ocd.
Explanation:
its a song...........
Answers
Explanation:
correct me if I'm wrong but isn't that falling down by lil peep and xxxtentacion
Lithia monson93 years old, came to us yesterday with a fall at the nursing home with a suspected subdural hematoma. She seems stable, difficult to determine her level of confusion as she has dementia. She has a bump on her head. Ms. Monson is cooperative, direct-able, and we do not see any changes. Vital signs are stable -temp 97. 2, bp 96/74, p 82, rr 20, sao2 97%. She is oriented with some direction to time and place. Her speech is clear. She did not recognize her son today when he came to see her, but that is not new for her. Q1 hour nuero assessments and we are watching her closely. We have asked the family to stay with her 100% of the time so she does not fall. Strict i
Answers
93-year-old Lithia Monson with dementia had a fall and suspected subdural hematoma. Stable condition, frequent neurological assessments, family support to prevent falls.
Lithia Monson, 93 years old, presented with a fall and suspected subdural hematoma. Despite having dementia, she appears stable with vital signs within normal limits. Her level of confusion is challenging to assess due to her condition. Neurological assessments are being conducted every hour, and no significant changes have been observed so far.
Ms. Monson is cooperative and responsive to direction, though she didn't recognize her son, which is not uncommon for her. To ensure her safety, we've requested constant family presence. Close monitoring will continue to promptly address any changes in her condition. The interdisciplinary team is working together to provide appropriate care and support for Ms. Monson's well-being.
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The complete question is:
Lithia monson93 years old, came to us yesterday with a fall at the nursing home with a suspected subdural hematoma. She seems stable, difficult to determine her level of confusion as she has dementia. She has a bump on her head. Ms. Monson is cooperative, direct-able, and we do not see any changes. Vital signs are stable -temp 97. 2, bp 96/74, p 82, rr 20, sao2 97%. She is oriented with some direction to time and place. Her speech is clear. She did not recognize her son today when he came to see her, but that is not new for her.
Q1 hour neuro assessments and we are watching her closely. We have asked the family to stay with her 100% of the time so she does not fall.
19. A parent is concerned with the interpersonal skills of her 12-year-old son. Based on interpersonal theory, the nurse should asks:
Answers
Answer:
Do you have any outstanding medical issues?
Explanation:
Always be cautious around kids
what is the final step after cementing the provisional crown
Answers
The final step after cementing the provisional crown is to evaluate and ensure proper fit, function, and aesthetics. This step is crucial to ensure the success of the final restoration and patient satisfaction.
Once the provisional crown is cemented in place, the dentist will assess several key factors:
1. Occlusion: The dentist will check the bite to ensure that the provisional crown does not interfere with the opposing teeth during chewing or cause any discomfort. Adjustments may be made to achieve proper occlusion.
2. Marginal Fit: The dentist will examine the margins of the provisional crown to ensure a tight and accurate fit along the tooth preparation. Any gaps or discrepancies may need to be addressed to prevent leakage or irritation to the underlying tooth structure.
3. Esthetics: The provisional crown should closely mimic the color, shape, and contour of the natural tooth. The dentist will evaluate the provisional crown's appearance, making any necessary adjustments to achieve a pleasing and natural-looking result.
4. Patient Comfort: The patient's feedback and comfort are essential considerations. The dentist will inquire about any discomfort or sensitivity, addressing any issues that may arise.
After assessing these factors, the dentist may make adjustments or refinements to the provisional crown as needed. Once the dentist is satisfied with the fit, function, and aesthetics, the final step may involve documenting the provisional crown's placement, reviewing postoperative care instructions with the patient, and scheduling the next appointment for the placement of the permanent crown.
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The final step after cementing the provisional crown is to check for occlusion and make any necessary adjustments. This ensures the patient's bite is comfortable and aligned properly. The dentist will also evaluate the provisional crown for any aesthetic concerns.
Explanation:The final step after cementing the provisional crown is to check for occlusion and make any necessary adjustments. Occlusion refers to the contact between the upper and lower teeth when the mouth is closed. The goal is to ensure that the patient's bite is comfortable and aligned properly.
To check for occlusion, the dentist will ask the patient to bite down and move their jaw from side to side. If any high spots or interference are detected, the dentist will use a dental articulating paper to mark them. The areas of interference will then be adjusted using a dental handpiece.
Once the occlusion has been checked and adjusted, the dentist will evaluate the provisional crown for any aesthetic concerns, such as shape, color, and contour. If necessary, the crown can be further manipulated to achieve the desired appearance. Finally, the dentist will provide the patient with post-operative instructions and schedule a follow-up appointment to monitor the stability and fit of the provisional crown.
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Which of the following terms does NOT refer to a body cavity?
Thoracic
Cranial
Abdominal
Pelvic
Epigastric
Answers
9.In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal bloodpressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?a.Class I, Initial Stageb.Class II, Compensated Stagec.Class III, Progressive Staged.Class IV, Refractory StageANS: BIn compensated stage hemorrhage (Class II), the blood loss is between 750 and 1500 mL.Blood pressure remains normal when the patient is supine but decreases upon standing. Ininitial stage hemorrhage (Class I) blood loss is up to 750 mL, and the patient’svital signsremain normal. Class III hemorrhage (progressive stage) is blood loss of 1500 and 2000 mL.Vital signs are changing. Severe Class IV hemorrhage (refractory stage) occurs when morethan 2000 mL is lost. The patient is lethargic, with severe hypotension.Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik Test Bank
Answers
The patient described in the question is in Class II, Compensated Stage of shock.
Class II, Compensated Stage of shockThe patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing is in Class II, Compensated Stage of shock.
During the Compensated Stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for the loss of blood by increasing the heart rate and constricting the blood vessels. This helps to maintain normal blood pressure while the patient is lying down (supine). However, when the patient stands up, the blood pressure drops (orthostatic hypotension) because there is not enough blood to adequately fill the blood vessels and maintain normal blood pressure.
As the patient progresses through the stages of shock, the body's ability to compensate for the loss of blood decreases, leading to lower blood pressure and organ failure. It is important to recognize and treat shock early to prevent the patient from progressing to the later stages of shock.
here there are another example of stages of shock
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Describe the difference between supination & pronation, circumduction & rotation, contraction & relaxation,
adduction & abduction.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Supination and pronation are used to describe the up or down orientation of your hand. When your palm or forearm faces up, it’s supinated. When your palm or forearm faces down, it’s pronated.
Circumduction is when the limb moves in a circle and rotation is when the limb turns around its long axis, like using a screwdriver.
Contraction is when you flex/activate your muscle so it stiffens, and relaxation is when your muscle is at rest.
Abduction is movement away from the midline of the body, and adduction is a movement towards the midline of the body
Answer:
Supination means that when you walk, your weight tends to be more on the outside of your foot. Pronation means that when you walk, your weight tends to be more on the inside of your foot. An easy way to remember the difference is that supination has the term “up” in it.
Explanation:
Patient satisfaction scores are down in your 44-bed medical-surgical unit from last year's scores. Current scores are at 44% this year. Patients felt the nursing staff does not have time to care or listen and the nurses are unprofessional. The Quality Improvement Committee wants to bring the patient satisfaction scores back up to 88% or higher. The unit has limited finances and many new staff members.
Answers
1. Increase staff communication: Patients may feel that the nursing staff does not have time to care or listen. This could be due to a lack of communication between staff and patients. Encourage staff to communicate more frequently with patients and actively listen to their concerns.
2. Provide staff training: Unprofessional behavior by nursing staff can lead to negative patient experiences. Consider providing training to staff on professionalism, customer service, and communication skills.
3. Improve staff workload: If nursing staff are overworked, they may not have enough time to provide quality care to patients. Consider increasing staffing levels or adjusting nurse-to-patient ratios to reduce the workload.
4. Enhance patient education: Improving patient education can help patients better understand their care plan and feel more involved in their treatment. Consider providing more education materials, such as brochures or videos, and ensuring that patients have access to them.
5. Address patient concerns: Patient satisfaction surveys can provide valuable feedback on areas for improvement. Take the time to review survey responses and address any concerns or complaints raised by patients.
6. Celebrate successes: Celebrate successes with staff members to promote a positive work environment. Acknowledge and reward nursing staff for their hard work in providing high-quality care to patients.
7. Utilize patient feedback: Patient feedback can be used to identify areas for improvement. Consider implementing patient feedback mechanisms, such as suggestion boxes or online surveys, to gather feedback and improve the patient experience.
While limited finances and new staff members may present challenges, these strategies can help improve patient satisfaction scores in your medical-surgical unit.
Assume that you are a consultant to the Minister of Health of a modernizing poor country with a significant burden of illness and death from road traffic injuries. The Minister asks you to set up a surveillance system for injury morbidity and mortality. How would you do it
Answers
The surveillance system for injury morbidity and mortality will be done by monitoring the total number of deaths and the illness caused by road accidents.
What is Mortality?This is also known as death rate and is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population.
The surveillance system will however be done by monitoring the total number of deaths and the illness caused by road accidents and putting appropriate measures on tackling the menace.
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ipratropium is very widely used in the treatment of copd T/F
Answers
Ipratropium is very widely used in the treatment of COPD. This statement is True.
Ipratropium is a bronchodilator that helps to open air passages in the lungs by relaxing the muscles in the airways. It's a medication used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. This medication works by blocking the activity of acetylcholine in the lungs, which helps to widen the airways and make breathing easier. It also aids in the reduction of the quantity of mucus generated in the lungs.
The medication is available in a variety of forms, including metered-dose inhalers, nebulizer solutions, and nasal sprays, among others. It is a quick-acting medication that can be used in combination with other COPD drugs to achieve maximum benefit. This medication is used in both outpatient and inpatient settings. Its effectiveness in treating COPD symptoms makes it one of the most commonly prescribed medications for this condition.
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Using so-called reasons (usually not true) to encourage you to try something. Examples: “It won’t hurt you.” “Your parents will never find out.” “You'll have a lot more fun.”
Answers
Peer Pressure is used in situations where egos and esteem rise off of the wrong impressions.
What is peer pressure?Active peer pressure occurs when your friends explicitly persuade you to do something.
Examples are offering and forcing you to drink then criticizing for refusing it. Forcing you to attend a party even your parents do not agree.
On the other hand, passive peer pressure happens within a person's want to fit in to his/her colleagues. It is further classified into social modelling and perception.
Example for social modeling is when you see all your friends are drinking then you just drink also because you do not want to be left out. Perception, on the other hand, is when you perceive that your peers are happy drinking then you drink as well because you believe that you also will be happy doing this.
Thus, this could be the answer
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How many root words are in the medical term ot/o/laryng/o/logist? A.two. B.one. C. Three
Answers
Answer:
B. One
Explanation:
...
Which one of the following drugs causes a decrease in liver triglyceride synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids needed as building blocks for this pathway?A. NiacinB. FenofibrateC. CholestyramineD. GemfibrozilE. Lovastatin
Answers
C. Cholestyramine causes a decrease in liver triglyceride synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids needed as building blocks for this pathway.
Colestyramine, also known as cholestyramine, is a bile acid sequestrant that binds to bile in the digestive system to prevent it from being reabsorption. It is a strong ionic exchange resin, which implies that it may exchange chloride anions for anionic bile acids, and cholesterol, in the gastrointestinal system and strongly bind them in the resin matrix.
Cholestyramine is a medication used to treat excessive levels of cholesterol in the blood. This may aid in the prevention of medical complications caused by cholesterol-blocking blood vessels. Cholestyramine is additionally utilized to eliminate bile acids from the body.
Cholestyramine falls to a class of medications known as bile acid sequestrants. A drug class is an array of pharmaceuticals that function in the same way. These medications are frequently used to treat comparable symptoms.
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A healthy 70-year-old woman, admitted to the hospital for a hip replacement surgery, develops an infection after the surgery and recovers more slowly than expected. You notice that she seems uninterested in meals and has eaten only small amounts of food for several days. What steps can be taken to uncover and address problems that the woman might be having with food
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
ames Brantner had always been scrupulous about maintaining his health. He sees his primary care doctor annually, avoids sweets and developed a habit of walking 3.5 miles every other day near his home just outside Harrisburg, Pennsylvania.
So when a routine colonoscopy in 2017 showed evidence of cancer, Brantner, then 76, was stunned. He’d need 12 radiation treatments, followed by surgery to reconstruct his colon. His physician recommended Johns Hopkins Hospital’s colorectal surgeon Susan Gearhart.
“The surgery [which took place last December] was quite extensive,” says Brantner, a retired planning officer for the Pennsylvania Department of Transportation. “Dr. Gearhart was very upfront with me—and compassionate.” He recalls little about his two days in the intensive care unit, but all went well during the surgery and hospital stay. And, though he’s lost 30 pounds and is not yet able to walk long distances, Brantner says he’s getting his appetite back and feels stronger every day.
More than a third of all surgeries in U.S. hospitals—inpatient and outpatient procedures combined—are now performed on people age 65 and over, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. That number, 38 percent, is expected to increase: By 2030, studies predict there will be some 84 million adults in this age group, many of whom will likely need surgery.
Last year, across all five adult Johns Hopkins medical centers, 36 percent of surgeries—48,359—took place in the 65-plus population.
Now, Johns Hopkins Bayview—a longtime hub for comprehensive health care of older adults—is poised to become a “center of excellence” in geriatric surgery. This means the American College of Surgeons will likely recognize Hopkins Bayview as offering a high concentration of expertise and resources devoted to caring for older-adult patients in need of surgery, leading to the best possible outcomes. Hopkins Bayview is one of eight hospitals expecting to merit this distinction, which also recognizes extensive research. (The others, which include community hospitals, veterans’ hospitals and academic centers, are Denver Veterans Affairs Medical Center, Kaiser Permanente Fresno, New York University Winthrop Hospital, University of Alabama, University of Connecticut, University of Rochester, and University Hospital—Rutgers’s—in Newark, New Jersey.)
Gearhart is among the leaders championing the program. Others include Perry Colvin, medical director for Peri-Operative Medicine Services; and Thomas Magnuson, Hopkins Bayview’s chairman of surgery, as well as geriatric nurse practitioners JoAnn Coleman, Jane Marks and Virginia Inez Wendel.
Shifting Perceptions of Aging
While advances in technology and medicine make it easier for people to live longer, healthier lives, no one is sure how factors such as chronological age and chronic disease affect geriatric surgical outcomes.
Consider Podge Reed. In 2011, he was 70 years old, trim and still working as chairman of the board of an oil production company. He played golf regularly and was an avid gardener. Then, during an annual physical, he learned that his lungs were impaired. He’d acknowledged having some recent shortness-of-breath episodes and was diagnosed with lung disease of unknown origin. Within a few months, Reed was placed on a transplant waiting list for a new set of lungs.
Four days after being placed on the transplant waiting list, Reed received a call from the hospital: A 41-year-old organ donor had just died, and the victim’s lungs appeared to be suitable for Reed in blood type and body size. The transplant went well, and Reed remained in the hospital for 56 days—longer than usual for most lung transplant patients because of a lung infection.
a 2-year-old patient is brought to the ed unable to breathe due to a toy he swallowed, which had lodged in his throat. to establish an immediate airway, the ed physician performs an emergency transtracheal tracheostomy. what icd-10-cm code(s) is/are reported?
Answers
Answer: T17.290A
Explanation:
As per the given case, the appropriate ICD-10-CM code for the scenario described would be J98.01
In the given case, a 2-year-old child arrives to the emergency department unable to breathe because he ingested a toy that became stuck in his throat. The emergency department doctor conducts an emergency transtracheal tracheostomy to provide an airway right away. J98.01 would be the proper ICD-10-CM code for the situation as indicated.
Any unintended puncture or laceration that happens during a surgical or medical procedure is reported using this number. In one instance, a toy in the patient's throat was preventing him from breathing, therefore an emergency transtracheal tracheostomy was done to open up his airway right away. The puncture or laceration happened during an operation in a respiratory system organ or structure, according to the code J98.01.
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I have covid and want to know what to do?
Answers
Answer:
1. Stay home from work, school and public areas unless it's to get medical care.
2. Avoid using public transportation, ride-sharing services or taxis.
3. Stay isolated in one room, away from your family, others and pets, as much as you can.
Explanation:
i hope it help
1. What two chemical content(s) of mast cells enable them to exhibit their unique property on mesentry spread (slides)
2. What naturally occurring substance shares the properties of and elastic fibre
3. Give one difference between dense and loose connective tissues, which is observable under the microscope
4. Give one difference between regular and irregular dense connective tissues which is observable under the microscope
Answers
Answer:
1. What two chemical content(s) of mast cells enable them to exhibit their unique property on mesentery spread?
Heparin and histamine. Mast cells are commonly found in connective tissue and can be identified under the microscope thanks to their densely-stained granules that contain heparin -a powerful anticoagulant-, and histamine -a substance involved in inflammatory response-.
2. What naturally occurring substance shares the properties of an elastic fiber?
Elastic fibers contain a protein called elastin that allows them to stretch, making them of great importance in tissues such as ligaments.
3. Give one difference between dense and loose connective tissues, which is observable under the microscope.
This classification of the connective tissue relies on how densely packaged are the fibers in it. Loose connective tissue contains small bundles of collagen fibers, separated by the ground substance. Dense connective tissue, on the other hand, is very rich in collagen fibers and has very little ground substance.
4. Give one difference between regular and irregular dense connective tissues which is observable under the microscope.
Irregular dense connective tissue has fibers spreading on multiple orientations, which allows the tissue to lessen the impact of forces coming from multiple directions - this gives this tissue a disorganized appearance under the microscope. Regular connective tissue is the opposite: the fibers are parallel to one another, which makes them capable of resist tension coming from one direction.